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Volume 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System

A

Joint strategic planning system, planning, programming, budgeting and execution system, and joint operations and planning execution system.

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2
Q

What is an ongoing process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?

A

Planning, programming, and budgeting execution (PPBE) system.

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3
Q

What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?

A

Employment

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4
Q

What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?

A

Operational control

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5
Q

In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when go functional areas reevaluate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?

A

Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle

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6
Q

What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?

A

24 months

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7
Q

What is the Air Force’s war planning system?

A

DCAPES

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8
Q

What system’s objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?

A

DCAPES

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9
Q

According to the DOD, a unit task force is developed and assigned by the

A

Joint Chiefs of Staff

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10
Q

What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTC)?

A

Manpower Force Element Listing (MFEL)

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11
Q

What is the three tier rating system in the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

A

Red, yellow, green

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to update the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

A

Daily

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13
Q

Who is responsible for assessing the “mission ready” status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?

A

Unit commander

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14
Q

Who assigns the unit’s missions and goals in the Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)?

A

Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)

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15
Q

What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?

A

Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS)

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16
Q

What C-level states the unit posses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?

A

C-1

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17
Q

Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later than what day of the month?

A

15th

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18
Q

What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)

A

MRDSS-ULTRA

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19
Q

What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)

A

MRDSS-ULTRA

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20
Q

Who must approve user accounts before the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS) Help Desk creates accounts?

A

Major Command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters

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21
Q

In the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS), what tool is designed to manage the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) readiness resources?

A

Medical Resource Letter

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22
Q

What plan is the Medical unit commander’s plan, establishing procedures for the unit’s expeditionary missions identified in the designed operational capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP)?

A

MCRP

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23
Q

What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?

24
Q

Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?

A

MAJCOM readiness office

25
Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?
MAJCOM readiness office
26
When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?
Personnel deployment function
27
At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?
The unit deployment manager (UDM)
28
Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?
Installation deployment office (IDO)
29
Once you have navigated to the Training Overview Page, what do you select to update an individual's training information?
Find individual’s record
30
What part of the deployment folder is for major command (MAJCOM)/installation/wing/unit requirements?
Part 5
31
All of the following should be on the in-processing checklist, except
Give the member their mobility folder
32
The medical control center is also known as the
Unit control center
33
The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as what kind of system?
Pyramid alerting system
34
Whose function is it to oversee the mission operation of the installation?
Crisis action team (CAT)
35
Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and tactics and distribution of resources at the incident site?
Incident commander (IC)
36
On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above?
Brown
37
On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?
Red
38
On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the
Vertical grid line
39
What time frame should an event log cover?
24 hour period
40
What is the first step in completing a checklist?
Evaluate the scenario
41
What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the ba eveation the initial point of treatment, and then to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone?
Forward
42
What phase of acromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?
Theater
43
Who approves the activation or inactivation of a designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?
AF Chief of Staff
44
The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, except the
UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter
45
The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, except the
UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter
46
What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott Air Force Base (AFB)?
TPMRC-A
47
Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft?
Rotary wing
48
What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of one hour?
I-Urgent
49
What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?
III-Routine
50
An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?
I-Urgent
51
What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?
TMDS
52
What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?
TMDS
53
Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?
Notification status
54
A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as a
Severe psychiatric litter patient
55
Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as
Litter
56
What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
6A
57
What classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
6B

CDCs (1 decks)

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