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CDC 3E052D Volume 2. Contingency Operations > Volume 2. Contingency Operations > Flashcards

Volume 2. Contingency Operations Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (201) What should you do before touching a capacitor that is connected to a de-energized circuit?
    a. Remove the capacitor from the circuit and test it with a capacitor tester.
    b. Use an ohmmeter to determine if the capacitor is capable of storing a charge.
    c. Test the capacitor using an ammeter to make sure that there is sufficient discharge.
    d. Short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is completely discharged.
A

d. Short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is completely discharged.

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2
Q
  1. (201) Normally the alternating current (AC) volts found within the mission essential power (MEP)–12 bare base equipment can be how high?

a. 120.
b. 208.
c. 600.
d. 4,160.

A

d. 4,160.

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3
Q
  1. (201) You ground the high voltage cable before you place the terminals on the storage terminals because the cable

a. carries a residual voltage.
b. is still energized by the primary distribution center (PDC).
c. maintains bus voltage due to heat.
d. increases in frequency until it is grounded.

A

a. carries a residual voltage.

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4
Q
  1. (202) Which force module (FM) is defined at open the airbase?

a. FM 1.
b. FM 2.
c. FM 3.
d. FM 4.

A

a. FM 1.

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5
Q
  1. (202) What basic expeditionary airfield resources (BEAR) package is designed to provide basic shelter and hygiene for 150 personnel and will fit onto one C–17 aircraft?

a. Initial housekeeping (IH) package.
b. Initial flightline (IFL) package.
c. Harvest eagle (HE) package.
d. Swift basic expeditionary airfield resources (SB) package.

A

d. Swift basic expeditionary airfield resources (SB) package.

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6
Q
  1. (202) How many mission essential power (MEP)–806B generators are included in the swift basic expeditionary airfield resources (SB) package?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

A

c. 4.

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7
Q
  1. (202) What must you install if sufficient distance cannot be achieved between the power plant and facilities on a bare base site?

a. Warning signs.
b. Noise barriers or baffles.
c. Cover for the generators.
d. Additional mufflers on the generators.

A

b. Noise barriers or baffles.

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8
Q
  1. (202) Mission essential power (MEP)–12 generators are positioned so that the prevailing winds blow

a. across the radiator fan.
b. across the side of the generators.
c. in the same direction as the radiator fan.
d. in the opposite direction the radiator fan.

A

c. in the same direction as the radiator fan.

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9
Q
  1. (202) At a bare base site, fuel is maintained at each prime power generation location to last for how many days?

a. 1⁄3.
b. 3.
c. 7.
d. 10.

A

c. 7.

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10
Q
  1. (202) What are the four planning factors that determine the location of a bare base power plant?
    a. Type of terrain, location to running water, task, and site preparation.
    b. Site preparation, type of terrain, noise, and electrical.
    c. Lighting, task, electrical, and site preparation.
    d. Task, electrical, noise, and lighting.
A

d. Task, electrical, noise, and lighting.

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11
Q
  1. (202) Who determines the general location of the primary power plant with input from electrical personnel?

a. Electrical superintendent and power production personnel.
b. Power production personnel and site commander.
c. Site commander and electrical superintendent.
d. Engineer officers and engineering personnel.

A

d. Engineer officers and engineering personnel.

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12
Q
  1. (202) What is the maximum towing speed you are allowed to tow a mission essential power (MEP)–12 diesel generator on paved surfaces?

a. 5 miles per hour (MPH).
b. 10 MPH.
c. 20 MPH.
d. 30 MPH.

A

c. 20 MPH.

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13
Q
  1. (202) What is the maximum towing speed you are allowed to tow a mission essential power (MEP)–12 diesel generator on unpaved surfaces?

a. 5 miles per hour (MPH).
b. 10 MPH.
c. 15 MPH.
d. 20 MPH.

A

a. 5 miles per hour (MPH).

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14
Q
  1. (202) How many feet tall should the berms be to contain a possible fuel spill at a mission essential power (MEP)–12 fuel system layout?

a. 1-1⁄2.
b. 3.
c. 3-1⁄2.
d. 4.

A

c. 3-1⁄2.

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15
Q
  1. (203) Placing all of the mission essential power (MEP)–12 control panels into one place and making it a control room allows you to

a. have the electrical systems remain cooler.
b. go out and inspect the generators regularly.
c. quickly and easily operate several generators at one time.
d. check the instrumentation while you are inspecting the generator.

A

c. quickly and easily operate several generators at one time.

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16
Q
  1. (203) After each load change, check the generator for load,
    a. leaks, and fluid levels.
    b. voltage, and frequency.
    c. voltage, and fluid levels.
    d. operation, and frequency.
A

b. voltage, and frequency.

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17
Q
  1. (203) What indicates that a generator is at full load?
    a. Ammeter is at 50 percent.
    b. Ammeter is at 100 percent.
    c. Kilowatts (kW) meter is at 100 percent.
    d. kW meter is at 125 percent.
A

b. Ammeter is at 100 percent.

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18
Q
  1. (203) Where can the amount of fuel consumption of a generator be found?
    a. On the side of the engine.
    b. On the fuel tank data plate.
    c. In the table of leading particulars.
    d. In the illustrated parts breakdown.
A

c. In the table of leading particulars.

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19
Q
  1. (203) How often should you perform running checks during the time that the mission essential power (MEP)–12 generator is online?

a. At least once a shift.
b. At least once an hour.
c. No more than once a shift.
d. No more than once an hour.

A

b. At least once an hour.

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20
Q
  1. (203) Meter readings are recorded on a mission essential power (MEP)–12 generator every

a. half hour.
b. hour.
c. two hours.
d. four hours.

A

b. hour.

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21
Q
  1. (204) When paralleling mission essential power (MEP)–12 generators, place the output breaker control switch of the incoming generator to the CLOSED position when the synchroscope lights are completely dark and the synchroscope is reading approximately at what o’clock position?

a. 12.
b. 11.
c. 10.
d. 1.

A

b. 11.

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22
Q
  1. (204) Motorization of a generator occurs when

a. there is some load on the generator while it is still connected to the bus.
b. all load has been removed after the generator is disconnected from the bus.
c. all load has been removed from the generator while it is connected to the bus.
d. there is some load on the generator after it has been disconnected from the bus.

A

c. all load has been removed from the generator while it is connected to the bus.

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23
Q
  1. (204) What meter readings indicate motorization of a generator?

a. The kilowatts (kW) meter is above zero, the ammeter is reading amperage, and the power factor (PF) meter is moving off scale.
b. The kW meter at zero or lower, the ammeter reading zero, and the PF meter is moving off scale.
c. The kW meter at zero or lower, the ammeter is reading amperage, and the PF meter is reading unity.
d. The kW meter at zero or lower, the ammeter is reading amperage, and the PF meter is moving off scale.

A

d. The kW meter at zero or lower, the ammeter is reading amperage, and the PF meter is moving off scale.

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24
Q
  1. (204) How are crosscurrents between parallel generators minimized if the bus voltage is low and the power factors (PF) are different?

a. Lower the voltage to all units.
b. Raise the voltage to the lag unit.
c. Raise the voltage to the lead unit.
d. Lower the voltage to the lead unit.

A

c. Raise the voltage to the lead unit.

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25
Q
  1. (204) How are crosscurrents between parallel generators minimized if the bus voltage is high and the power factors (PF) are different?

a. Raise the voltage to all units.
b. Lower the voltage to lag unit.
c. Raise the voltage to the lag unit.
d. Lower the voltage to the lead unit.

A

b. Lower the voltage to lag unit.

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26
Q
  1. (204) How are crosscurrents between parallel generators minimized if the bus voltage is low and the power factors (PF) are the same?

a. Raise the voltage to all units.
b. Raise the voltage to the lag unit.
c. Lower the voltage to the lead unit.
d. Lower the voltage to the lag unit.

A

a. Raise the voltage to all units.

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27
Q
  1. (204) How are crosscurrents between parallel generators minimized if the bus voltage is high and the power factors (PF) are the same?

a. Lower the voltage to all units.
b. Raise the voltage to the lag unit.
c. Raise the voltage to the lead unit.
d. Lower the voltage to the lead unit.

A

a. Lower the voltage to all units.

28
Q
  1. (205) Typically mission essential power (MEP)–12 generators are scheduled for maintenance after operating for

a. one year.
b. thirty days.
c. 300 hours.
d. 1,000 hours.

A

c. 300 hours.

29
Q
  1. (205) The two areas the mission essential power (MEP)–12 generator electrical system can be divided into are the

a. high voltage system and low voltage system.
b. control voltage system and low voltage system.
c. output voltage system and high voltage system.
d. output voltage system and control voltage system.

A

a. high voltage system and low voltage system.

30
Q
  1. (205) What action do you take if you find anything questionable on a fuse in the mission essential power (MEP)–12 generator electrical system?

a. Repair it.
b. Replace it.
c. Keep a close eye on it.
d. Schedule it for maintenance.

A

b. Replace it.

31
Q
  1. (206) Which type of electrical distribution layout provided two or more paths for current flow to a facility?

a. Loop layout.
b. Open layout.
c. Radial layout.
d. Closed layout.

A

a. Loop layout.

32
Q
  1. (206) How many inputs does the primary distribution center (PDC) have?

a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.
d. 6.

A

b. 4.

33
Q
  1. (206) What is the default amperage setting for WAY 6 on the primary switching center (PSC)?

a. 300 amps.
b. 400 amps.
c. 500 amps.
d. 600 amps.

A

b. 400 amps.

34
Q
  1. (206) How many 60-amp outputs are included on the secondary distribution center (SDC)?

a. 10.
b. 12.
c. 14.
d. 16.

A

d. 16.

35
Q
  1. (206) What is the amperage rating of the mission essential circuit breaker on the secondary distribution center (SDC)?

a. 60 amps.
b. 100 amps.
c. 150 amps.
d. 250 amps.

A

d. 250 amps.

36
Q
  1. (207) How many light masts are included with the remote area lighting set (RALS)?

a. 12.
b. 13.
c. 14.
d. 15.

A

b. 13.

37
Q
  1. (207) How many lights make up the light mast on the TF–2 light cart?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

A

b. 4.

38
Q
  1. (208) What is the size of the generators used to support the emergency airfield lighting system (EALS)?

a. 15 kilowatts (kW).
b. 30 kW.
c. 60 kW.
d. 100 kW.

A

b. 30 kW.

39
Q
  1. (208) What is the maximum size runway that an emergency airfield lighting system (EALS) can support?

a. 50 feet wide by 5,000 feet long.
b. 100 feet wide by 5,000 feet long.
c. 100 feet wide by 10,000 feet long.
d. 150 feet wide by 10,000 feet long.

A

d. 150 feet wide by 10,000 feet long.

40
Q
  1. (208) How many intensity levels does the emergency airfield lighting system (EALS) regulator include?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

A

b. 3.

41
Q
  1. (209) The initial deployment kitchen (IDK) is designed to support the bare base site by providing
    a. laundry and alterations for site personnel.
    b. dish kits to be used during operations.
    c. temporary commissary facilities.
    d. meal preparation capabilities.
A

d. meal preparation capabilities.

42
Q
  1. (209) The initial deployment kitchen (IDK) generator output is wired for how many separate 120/208 volt, alternating current (VAC), 3-phase circuits?

a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 7.

A

b. 3.

43
Q
  1. (210) The chemically hardened air management plant (CHAMP) is specifically designed to provide air conditioning and heating for the

a. initial deployment kitchen (IDK).
b. alternate damage control center.
c. mobile command post tent extendible modular personnel (TEMPER) tent.
d. chemically hardened air transportable hospital TEMPER tent.

A

d. chemically hardened air transportable hospital TEMPER tent.

44
Q
  1. (210) What is the chemically hardened air management plant (CHAMP) equipped with for monitoring and control purposes in the shelter?

a. Detachable ducts.
b. A removable panel.
c. A window on the housing.
d. Air gauges at duct connections.

A

b. A removable panel.

45
Q
  1. (210) What is the normal power configuration for the chemically hardened air management plant (CHAMP)?

a. External power with no backup.
b. Generator power with no backup.
c. Generator power with external power as a backup.
d. External power with the generator set in the AUTO position.

A

d. External power with the generator set in the AUTO position.

46
Q
  1. (211) Which type of energy absorber is used on the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS)?
    a. Barrier arresting kit (BAK)–9.
    b. BAK–12.
    c. BAK–13.
    d. BAK–14.
A

b. BAK–12.

47
Q
  1. (211) What is the flow rate of a mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) hydraulic power unit (Wacker) running at 2,250 revolutions per minute (RPM)?

a. 1 gallon per minute (GPM).
b. 2 GPM.
c. 3 GPM.
d. 4 GPM.

A

d. 4 GPM.

48
Q
  1. (212) Who has the lead role in selecting a site for the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS)?
    a. Airfield manager.
    b. Engineer assistant.
    c. Electrical superintendent.
    d. Power production NCOIC.
A

b. Engineer assistant.

49
Q
  1. (212) What is used to secure the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) on a concrete runway for unidirectional arrestment capability?

a. Moil points.
b. Stake pockets.
c. Anchor plates.
d. KM stake lines.

A

c. Anchor plates.

50
Q
  1. (212) Where should the four-axle trailer retaining pins on a mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) be stored once they have been removed?

a. In your pocket.
b. In the stake pockets.
c. In the front storage box.
d. In the pin storage compartment.

A

c. In the front storage box.

51
Q
  1. (212) On the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS), what is used to ensure a 3/8 –inch clearance gap between the bolt head and anchor plate?

a. Ruler.
b. Flat washer.
c. Taper bolt gauge.
d. Long nosed pliers.

A

c. Taper bolt gauge.

52
Q
  1. (212) For soil installation of a unidirectional mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS), 19 aluminum stakes are used to anchor the unit alongside a runway. Around the perimeter of the MAAS trailer, what are 10 of the stakes installed through?

a. Stake guide.
b. Anchor plate.
c. Stake spacers.
d. Stake pockets.

A

d. Stake pockets.

53
Q
  1. (212) If you have an asphalt over concrete runway and want to use standard concrete installation procedures, how much asphalt are you allowed to chip away before installing a mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS)?

a. Less than 1⁄2 inch.
b. More than 1⁄2 inch.
c. Less than 1 inch.
d. More than 1 inch.

A

c. Less than 1 inch.

54
Q
  1. (213) Based on time, how often is a certification engagement required on aircraft arresting systems (AAS)?

a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months.

A

b. 12 months.

55
Q
  1. (213) How often are fire protection personnel required to be trained on aircraft arresting system (AAS) activities in order to stay current?

a. Annually.
b. Semiannually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.

A

c. Quarterly.

56
Q
  1. (214) When performing monthly mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) service inspections, when should you pull out the tape a minimum of 800 feet?

a. Every time.
b. Twice a month.
c. Every second month.
d. Every third month.

A

d. Every third month.

57
Q
  1. (214) According to purchase tape replacement criteria, how many points are added to the tape history for every full tape pullout (800 feet) and rewind cycle made to comply with the requirements of the technical order count?

a. No engagements.
b. 1⁄2 of an engagement.
c. 1 engagement.
d. 4 engagements.

A

b. 1⁄2 of an engagement.

58
Q
  1. (215) What are the three main components of the lightweight fairlead beam (LWFB)?
    a. Beam and two sheaves.
    b. Beam and two anchor plates.
    c. Two beams and an anchoring system.
    d. Two sheaves and an anchoring system.
A

a. Beam and two sheaves.

59
Q
  1. (215) What does a California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test determine?

a. The strength of the tapes on the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS).
b. The strength of the anchoring system to absorb energy.
c. The strength and load absorption capability of the tapes.
d. The strength and load absorption capability of the soil in a selected area.

A

d. The strength and load absorption capability of the soil in a selected area.

60
Q
  1. (215) The lightweight fairlead beam (LWFB) is designed for what aircraft runout distance?

a. 950 feet.
b. 990 feet.
c. 1,200 feet.
d. 1,300 feet.

A

c. 1,200 feet.

61
Q
  1. (215) What is the total number of stakes needed to install the lightweight fairlead beam (LFWB) in soil?

a. 26.
b. 32.
c. 42.
d. 52.

A

d. 52.

62
Q
  1. (216) What is the maximum allowable setback distance for the mobile aircraft arresting system (MAAS) trailers when utilizing the mobile runway edge sheave (MRES)?

a. 100 feet.
b. 175 feet.
c. 200 feet.
d. 275 feet.

A

d. 275 feet.

63
Q
  1. (216) During soil installation, how many stakes are required to install each mobile runway edge sheave (MRES) assembly?

a. 8 stakes.
b. 24 stakes.
c. 32 stakes.
d. 52 stakes.

A

c. 32 stakes.

64
Q
  1. (216) What is the desired reading on the manta ray load locker assembly when testing for security?

a. 9,000 pounds.
b. 10,000 pounds.
c. 11,000 pounds.
d. 12,000 pounds.

A

b. 10,000 pounds.

65
Q
  1. (201) What happens if electrical current between 100 and 200 milliamperes is absorbed by the body?
    a. Skin burns.
    b. Muscles relax.
    c. Contacted areas blister.
    d. Instant death from heart failure.
A

d. Instant death from heart failure.

CDC 3E052D Volume 2. Contingency Operations (1 decks)

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