Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is our mission and number one priority is to deliver the best customer service possible?

A

Treat all customers with respect, kindness, patience and consideration.

Deal with the customer’s situation as an urgent event, from the time we know about it until it is over.

Identify and act on opportunities for added value.

Provide exceptional customer service, whenever possible. Create and sustain a positive public image

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2
Q

Company Officers and Command Officers are responsible for the following

A
  1. Provide a work environment in which exceptional customer service and added value are the result of a
    refined system where members are empowered to operate between the lines to provide caring service with
    both quality and value.
  2. Basic organizational behavior must be customer oriented.
  3. Invest in human resources by keeping customer service a part of an ongoing development process.
  4. Take responsibility for themselves and their subordinates and expand authority in others.
  5. Sustain and enhance regional commitment and consistency in the execution of professional services and
    customer satisfaction.
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3
Q

Command Procedures are designed to:

A

• Fix the responsibility for Command on a certain individual through a standard identification
system, depending on the arrival sequence of members, companies, and Command officers.

• Ensure that a strong, direct, and visible Command will be established from the onset of the
incident.
• Establish an effective incident organization defining the activities and responsibilities assigned
to the Incident Commander (IC) and the other individuals operating within the Incident
Command System.
• Provide a system to process information to support incident management, planning, and
decision-making.
• Provide a system for the orderly transfer of Command to subsequent arriving officers.
• Ensure a seamless transition from a Type 5/4 incident to a Type 3/2/1 (NIMS).

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4
Q

Roles and Responsibilities within the Incident Command System:

Company Officers (Captains)

A
  • Occupy the position of IC when appropriate.
  • Occupy the position of Sector Officer when appropriate.
  • Manage task level activities and supervise firefighters.
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5
Q

The Tactical

Objectives (listed in order of priority) are:

A

A. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
B. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety.
C. Conserve property.
D. Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. This priority is ongoing throughout
the incident.

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6
Q

The Functions of Command include:

A
  1. Assume and announce Command and establish an effective initial command position
    (Command Post).
  2. Rapidly evaluate the situation (size up).
  3. Initiate, maintain, and control effective incident communications.
  4. Provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources.
  5. Identify the incident strategy, develop an Incident Action Plan (IAP), and assign companies and
    personnel consistent with plans and standard operating procedures.
  6. Develop an effective incident organization using Sectors/Divisions/Groups to decentralize and
    delegate geographic and functional responsibility.
  7. Review, and revise (as needed) the strategy to keep the IAP current.
  8. Provide for the continuity, transfer, and termination of Command.
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7
Q

What are your command options when you’re on scene?

A

Investigative
Fast Attack
Stationary command

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8
Q

What is the Transfer of Command process?

A

A. The first fire department member arriving on the scene will automatically assume Command.
This will normally be a Company Officer, but could be any fire department member up to and
including the Fire Chief.
B. The first arriving Company Officer will assume Command after the Transfer of Command
procedures have been completed (assuming an equal or higher ranking officer has not already
assumed Command). IC #1 is usually a Company Officer.
C. The first arriving Command Officer should assume Command of the incident following Transfer
of Command procedures and becomes IC #2.
D. Subsequent arriving Command Officers should report their location to the IC, and wait for an
assignment. The first arriving Shift Commander ( preferably from the appropriate city that the
incident is located in if available) will assume the roll of Senior Advisor and assist the IC. The
second arriving Shift Commander sets up the Command Van (CV) and manages the movement
of Command to the CV. The Senior Advisor, IC and Support Officer become the Command
Team (Incident Advisory Team). The Command Team may assign additional staff such as a
Safety Officer (relieves the Support Officer’s ISO responsibility) and a Staging Officer.
E. Assumption of Command is discretionary for Assistant Chiefs and the Fire Chief.

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9
Q

Within the chain of Command, the actual transfer of Command will be regulated by the following
procedure:

A

A. The officer assuming Command (IC #2) will communicate with the person being relieved (IC #1)
by radio or face-to-face. Face-to-face is the preferred method to transfer Command.
B. The person being relieved will brief the officer assuming Command indicating at least the
following:
1. General situation status:
a. Incident conditions (fire location and extent, Hazmat spill or release, number of
patients, etc.)
b. Incident Management Plan.
c. Completion of the Tactical Objectives.
d. Safety considerations.
2. Deployment and assignments of operating companies and personnel.
3. Appraisals of need for additional resources.
C. When an incident becomes so large that an Incident Management Team (IMT) is requested,
Command will not transfer to the IMT (Type I/III) unless a formal written Delegation of Authority has
been signed by both the JHA and the IMT.

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10
Q

Command Team (Incident Advisory Team) is comprised of who?

A

The Command Team consists of the Incident

Commander (IC), Support Officer, and Senior Advisor

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11
Q

Who are the first and second members of the command team?

A

The IC and the Support Officer are the first and second members of the Command Team

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12
Q

What are the Roles and Responsibilities of the Support Officer?

A
  • Define, evaluate, and recommend changes to the incident action plan.
  • Provide direction relating to tactical priorities and specific critical fireground factors.
  • Become the Incident Safety Officer
  • Evaluate the need for additional resources.
  • Assign logistics responsibilities.
  • Assist with the tactical worksheet for control and accountability.
  • Evaluate the fireground organization and span of control.
  • Other duties as necessary.
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13
Q

Who is the third member of the Command Team?

A

Senior Advisor

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14
Q

What are the Role and Responsibilities of the Senior Advisor?

A

• Review and evaluate the incident action plan, and initiate any needed changes.
• Provide on-going review of the overall incident (THE BIG PICTURE).
• Review the organizational structure, initiate change or expansion to meet incident needs.
• Initiate Section and Branch functions as required.
• Provide a liaison with other city agencies and officials, outside agencies, property owners and/or
tenants.
• Forecast and react to the effect this incident will have on surrounding neighborhoods, Public
Officials, and city staffing.
• Prepare to transition to long-term operations by establishing operational periods and advising
the Assistant Chief of Operations as to the need for an All Hazards Incident Management Team
(AHIMT), state or federal assistance.
• Provide a transitional briefing to the incoming IMT if one has been assigned to the incident.

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15
Q

What is done on the strategic level of an incident?

A

Strategic – This organizational level is designed around the IC and Command Team, operating in the
Command Mode, and working out of a stationary command post. The strategic level involves the
activities necessary for overall operational control, considering critical fireground factors and risk
management plan to determine the strategy and develop an IAP, establishing objectives, managing the
strategy, setting priorities, allocating resources, and thinking ahead. Strategic Level responsibilities
include:
• Determining the appropriate strategy: OFFENSIVE OR DEFENSIVE
• Establishing a strategic plan for the incident.
• Setting priorities.
• Obtaining and allocating resources.
• Predicting outcomes and planning.
• Assigning specific objectives to tactical level units.

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16
Q

What is done on the tactical level of an incident?

A

Tactical - The first management “subdivision” of incident scene organization is accomplished by
assigning Sector (Division or Group) responsibilities. Sector officers are responsible for the tactical
deployment of assigned resources, evaluation, and communication with the IC. They are assigned by
the IC and supervise directly at the site of the assigned activity in order to meet the operational
objectives given to them by the IC.

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17
Q

What is done on the task level of an incident?

A

Task – The level of the organization where the work is performed by assigned companies and other
resources. The Strategic and Tactical levels are in place to support the task level. Task level activities
are routinely supervised by Company Officers. The accumulated achievements of Task Level activities
accomplish Tactical Objectives.

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18
Q

When should the IC should assign a Battalion Chief and FIT to a sector?

A

Whenever there are three or

more companies operating in a sector.

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19
Q

What is the maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage?

A

The

span of control is usually five sectors and should never exceed seven sectors.

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20
Q

When the number of Sectors exceeds the span of control that the Incident Commander can effectively
manage, the Incident Organization should be divided into what?

A

Branches

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21
Q

Utilizing Sectors provides the following advantages:

A

• Reduces the IC’s span of control – divides the incident scene into more manageable units.
• Creates more effective incident scene communications – permits the IC to exchange
information with a limited number of individuals (Sector Officers) who directly supervise teams of
firefighters. This reduces overall radio traffic by allowing firefighters and sector officers to
communicate face to face instead of by radio.
• Provides a standard and logical system to divide large geographical incidents into
effectively sized units – allows the IC to concentrate on strategy from one standard command
post location.
• Provides an array major support functions – these are to be selected and assigned
according to the particular needs of each situation. The execution and details of these specific
operations becomes the responsibility of the sector officer, not command.
• Improves firefighter safety – allows each sector officer to maintain more direct control of the
position and function of the companies assigned to their sectors at all times. Sector officers
concentrate on their assigned areas and are in a position to move personnel based on incident
conditions and the IC’s decisions.

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22
Q

Command Should Assign Sectors Based on the Following Factors:

A

• When the number of assigned and operating companies threatens to overload the IC’s ability to
command. Direct tactical-level control should be delegated (earlier than later) to sector officers
before the IC’s ability to manage is exceeded.
• When the IC forecasts that the situation will become a major operation, soon exceeding his/her
span of control.
• When companies are involved in complex operations (Large interior or geographic area,
hazardous materials, technical rescues, etc.)
• When companies are operating from tactical positions which Command has little or no direct
control over (i.e. out of sight).
• When the situation presents specials hazards and close control is required over operating
companies (i.e., unstable structural conditions, hazardous materials, heavy fire load, marginal
offensive situations, etc.).
• Name the sector according to its function or geographical location.

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23
Q

When establishing a Sector, the IC will assign each Sector Officer:

A

A. Tactical Objectives.
B. A radio designation (Roof Sector, East Sector, etc.)
C. The identity of resources assigned to the Sector.

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24
Q

When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities, what does his FIT become?

A

Sector safety officer

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25
Q

The following types of incidents are

examples where Branch Officers should be utilized:

A

• A Haz mat incident that requires a major evacuation.
• A large-scale incident spread over a wide geographic area.
• An incident with mass casualties and a significant hazard (for example: fire, Haz mat, plane
crash, floods, etc.)
• Campaign high-rise fires
• Any incident where the number of Sectors exceed the span of control that can be effectively
managed by the incident commander.

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26
Q

The Fire Department’s involvement and needs at the incident scene
can be divided into four sections. They are:

A

LOGISTICS SECTION
PLANNING SECTION
OPERATIONS SECTION
ADMINISTRATIVE SECTION

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27
Q

The Logistics Section roles and responsibilities:

A

Roles and Responsibilities:
• Provide rehab.
• Manage staging
• Provide and manage any needed supplies or equipment.
• Forecast and obtain future resource needs (coordinate with the Planning Section).
• Provide any needed communications equipment.
• Provide fuel and needed repairs for equipment.
• Obtain specialized equipment or expertise per Command.
• Provide food and associated supplies.
• Secure any needed fixed or portable facilities.
• Provide any other logistical needs as requested by Command.
• Collect and provide information for an After Action Review.
• Supervise assigned personnel

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28
Q

The Planning Section is responsible for:

A

Roles and Responsibilities
• Evaluate current strategy and plan with the Incident Commander.
• Refine and recommend any needed changes to plan.
• Evaluate Incident Organization and span of control.
• Forecast possible outcome(s).
• Evaluate future resource requirements.
• Utilize technical assistance as needed.
• Evaluate tactical priorities, specific critical factors, and safety.
• Gather, update, improve, and manage information with a standard systematic approach.
• Facilitate an After Action Review and After Action Report.
• Liaison with any needed outside agencies for planning needs.

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29
Q

The Operations Section is responsible for:

A

Roles and Responsibilities:
• Coordinate activities with the Incident Commander.
• Implement the Incident Management Plan.
• Assign units to Sectors/Branches based on Tactical Objectives and priorities.
• Build an effective organizational structure through the use of Branches and Sectors.
• Provide Branches and Sectors Tactical Objectives.
• Manage Operation Section activities.
• Personnel Accountability.
• Provide for life safety.
• Determine needs and request additional resources.
• Consult with and inform other sections and the Incident Command Staff as needed.
• Collect and provide information for an After Action Review.

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30
Q

The Administration Section is responsible for:

A

Roles and Responsibilities:
• Procurement of services and/or supplies from sources within and outside the Fire Department or
City as requested by Command (coordinates with Logistics).
• Documenting all financial costs of the incident.
• Documenting for possible cost recovery for services and/or supplies.
• Analyzing and managing legal risk for incidents such as, hazardous materials clean up.
• Serves as the Incident Commander’s liaison with: City officials, Litigators (and other lawyer
types). Regulatory agencies (EPA, OSHA, DOT, FBI, etc.).
• Monitors and coordinates emergency service delivery to the rest of the community during major
incidents to ensure adequate coverage.

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31
Q

“In Transit” is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an
order. It often varies due to:

A
  • Distance between staging and the incident
  • Size of the incident perimeter
  • Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble
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32
Q

“On Deck” is defined as;

A

a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard
zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector. On Deck crews will be
supervised either by the Sector Officer or Company Officer and they will remain On Deck until
assigned by the IC or Sector Officer.

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33
Q

The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are:

A
  • Reinforce a position within an assigned sector
  • Crew relief within an assigned sector
  • Any other tactical position assigned by the IC
  • Rapid intervention crew

REINFORCE
RELIEVE
RIC
ANYTHING ELSE COMMAND WANTS

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34
Q

On

deck crews must also size up the area that they are assigned to, this size up should include:

A
  • Locating the structures entrance/exit points in their assigned area
  • Interior and exterior conditions
  • Unit ID of crews operating inside the structure
  • Approximate location of interior crews
  • Identify which crews are operating each hose line
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35
Q

When an on deck crew is used as a relief crew, the Company Officer should do a face to face and
transfer information with the officer exiting the structure. The information transferred should include:

A
  • Interior conditions
  • Routing instructions to the work area
  • Interior obstructions
  • Additional tools/resources required
  • Sector objectives
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36
Q

Recycling is defined as:

A

a timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration of
companies while maintaining their sector assignment. If conditions permit, a companies work cycle
could be up to 2 to 3 air cylinders.

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37
Q

Definition of a Mayday Situation:

A

Any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event that cannot be resolved by
that individual within 30 seconds

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38
Q

A Mayday is initiated by any member communicating:

A

“Mayday, Mayday, Mayday” via portable radio

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39
Q

Additionally, the NFPA 1500 Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to

A

“don,

doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves.”

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40
Q

In order to establish effective Mayday readiness, it is necessary to recognize that Mayday readiness has 2
components.

A

These components are Prevention and Response.

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41
Q

Company Officer responsibility for Mayday preventions include:

A

 Integrating a daily SCBA check into the crew routine
 Practicing crew communication in the hazard zone
 Rover integration into crew
o Individual rovers are responsible to ask if not explicitly discussed at the beginning of a shift
 Maintaining knowledge of portable radios and practicing their use
 Ensuring Company Officer responsibilities and expectations are clear to the entire crew
 Practicing and maintaining crew integrity/accountability
 Instilling the standard that firefighters should always stay on a hoseline

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42
Q

Once the Mayday situation is recognized and reported, each firefighter should remember BOA:

A

B.O.A. = Breath, Organize and Act

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43
Q

GRAB LIVES stands for:

A
 G = Check Air Gauge
 R = Radio for Assistance
 A = Activate PASS Device
 B = Control Breathing, Conserve Air
 L = Stay Low
 I = Illuminate, Turn Flashlight On
 V = Make Loud Noises (Volume)
 E = Find An Exit
 S = Shield Your Airway (last ditch effort)
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44
Q

In the event of a Mayday situation, who will take responsibility of the resolution of the Mayday
situation?

A

The sector officer

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45
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility for actively and continually providing for the
prevention and response to a Mayday situation

A

The incident command team.

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46
Q

Does the Incident and Mayday always remain on the same tactical channel?

A

Yes. (as long as the mayday wasn’t done on a different channel)

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47
Q

What is The tactical benchmark for the end point of a Mayday?

A

Mayday resolved

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48
Q

The critical points that have to be

confirmed prior to giving the benchmark of “Mayday resolved” is:

A

 The individual(s) that are experiencing the Mayday situation are removed from the hazard zone
 All members involved in the rescue are accounted for and are out of the hazard zone
 All members working in all other sectors are accounted for
 The Incident Commander can give a PAR for the entire hazard zone

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49
Q

Upon initiation of a Mayday, the tactical radio operator shall:

A

o Transmit the emergency traffic tone
o Voice on the tactical channel: “We have a Mayday on the scene, all units hold your traffic”
o Repeats the Mayday message using the standard radio order model
o Allows for the Incident Commander to speak to the Mayday initiator

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50
Q

All members, at all levels of the incident involving a Mayday should remember B.O.A.

A

Breathe, Organize and Act!

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51
Q

all members are expected to operate under the following Risk Management System.

A
  • We Will risk our lives a lot, in a calculated manner, to save SAVABLE lives.
  • We Will risk our lives a Little, in a calculated manner, to save SAVABLE property.
  • We Will Not risk our lives at all for lives or property that are already Lost.
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52
Q

“Actions in a calculated manner” require the following:

A
  • Incident Command established
  • Proper personal protective equipment
  • Accountability system established
  • Safety procedures in place
  • Continuous risk assessment by all members
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53
Q

The hot zone will be defined as:

A

any area

that requires the use of an SCBA.

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54
Q

Company Officer / Task level responsibilities of accountability include:

A

Company Officer / Task - address the task level of accountability and must know where
each firefighter is located, and what each firefighter is doing.
• Company officers shall maintain a current PASSPORT of personnel responding on the
apparatus at all times.
• Company officers shall maintain a current MCT roster of personnel responding on the
apparatus at all times.
• Company officers must ensure that all crewmembers have proper helmet company ID and
nametags on scba face piece and helmet.
• Company officers must obtain PARs for their crews, which is a confirmation that all
members assigned to his/her crew are accounted for and have an adequate exit air supply.
• Company officers must keep crew intact and maintain an awareness of the crews exit air
supply.
• Company officer must ensure that passport is delivered to their accountability location prior
to entering the hot zone and retrieved upon exiting the hot zone.

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55
Q

Engineer responsibilities of accountability:

A

• Engineer – accountability officer who tracks crews and crewmembers who take
handlines from his/her apparatus.
• Collects passports from crews prior to entering the hot zone
• Places passport/pouch on discharge gate when hoseline is charged.
• Places hoseline ID tags on each hoseline.

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56
Q

FF responsibilities of accountability:

A
  • Firefighter – must have proper company ID on his/her helmet.
  • Ensure that nametag is placed on passport and roster is updated.
  • Stay with his/her crew at all times.
  • Maintain a constant awareness of his/her exit air supply.
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57
Q

Accountability responsibilities of all members include:

A

• All members – immediately update the company passport as they arrive for duty.
• Ensure that helmet IDs are accurate.
• Ensure that nametags are on scba face piece and helmet.
• All crews work for command or sectors/division/groups no free lancing.
• Crews arriving on the scene should remain intact. A minimum crew size will be considered
two or more members.
• Each member must have a radio.
• All crews entering the hot zone must have a supervisor.
• All crews will go in together, stay together, and come out together.
• Reduced visibility and increased risk will require close supervision by the company officer.
• The entire crew will exit if a scba, radio, or any equipment that could compromise safety fails
while in the hot zone.

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58
Q

Accountability

equipment for each piece of apparatus and shift consists of:

A

a passport with a pouch, small
company id tag, helmet ID stickers, and hose ID tag. Passports are bright yellow tags, which
measure approximately 3 by 4 inches that are marked with company identification and shift.

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59
Q

When entering the hot zone with a partial crew, such as

when an engineer remains at the engine to pump lines, the Company officer must:

A

remove the
nametags of those members not entering the hot zone. The nametags of these members may be
returned to the member, placed on the Company officer’s helmet Velcro strip or placed in his/her
coat pocket.

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60
Q

Implementation of the passport system will occur at any incident:

A

that requires the use of an SCBA.

The use of the accountability system will commence as the first unit arrives on the scene.

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61
Q

What do ladder companies do with their passports?

A

Ladder crews will leave their passport on the apparatus dash when going to the roof to perform
ventilation. When going to the interior of the structure, each ladder crew will deliver their passport to
the engine closest to their point of entry.

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62
Q

Who is responsible for retrieving the passport once the company has exited the hot zone?

A

Upon exit, the Company Officer must
retrieve their passport. Both the Company Officer and Accountability Officer will be responsible to
see the passports are retrieved. Crews exiting at a different location other than the original point of
entry must immediately notify their original Sector Officer Division/Group Supervisor and/or
Accountability Officer of their changed status. The passport must be retrieved.

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63
Q

Each back up kit is kept in a blue nylon bag that contains the following equipment:

A

• One passport pouch
• One blank passport – to mark crew member IDs with grease pencil
• One blank passport with Velcro – to attach crew member nametags from underside of
helmet
• One grease pencil

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64
Q

If a sector officer takes over accountability from the pump engineer, where do the passports and tags go?

A

The Battalion Chief and FIT would collect the passports/pouches from the initial engine
accountability locations. The small company ID tag is removed from the back of the passport pouch
and replaces the passport/pouch on the discharge gate at the pump panel. Accountability is now
established and tracked closer to the building. IE, Mayday situation.

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65
Q

What are some PASSPORT RULES?

A

• Passports will be delivered to the assigned accountability location prior to entering the hot
zone.
• Passports will be maintained at the point of entry to the hot zone.
• Passports never enter the hot zone.
• Passports will be retrieved by crews upon exiting the hot zone.
• Passport accountability location is the engine where crew deployed hoseline.

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66
Q

A personnel accountability report will be required for the following situations:

A
  • Any report of a missing or trapped fire fighter
  • Any change from offensive to defensive
  • Any sudden hazardous event at the incident - flash over, back draft, collapse, May Day, etc.
  • As companies report an all clear.
  • As companies report under control.
  • At every 30 minutes of elapsed time.
  • Any time Command feels it is necessary.
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67
Q

How do passports and the accountability system work in high-rise fires?

A

All crews
reporting to the building will deliver their passports to the building lobby. The hoseline ID tag will be
taken by each crew to mark their hose line in the stairwell at the standpipe. Lobby
Sector/Division/Group will utilize the passports to track all crews and crewmembers in the building.
Crews will leave their passports with fire personnel in the fire control room if Lobby/Sector
Officer/Division/Group has not been established. The lobby sector/division/group will be responsible
for collecting the passports of the initial companies as soon as possible.

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68
Q

The 2 in / 2 out procedure should be used when

A

when the initial arriving Company Officer is operating in the fast attack
mode as the Incident Commander on an interior attack with another crew member. The plug person assumes the
primary 2 in / 2 out position and the engineer assumes the secondary 2 in / 2 out position.

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69
Q

What are the Standard Exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out Requirement at Structure Fires?

A
  1. When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
  2. When the fire is in an incipient stage as defined above.
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70
Q

When does the 2 in / 2 out rule apply on fires?

A

The 2 in / 2 out procedure will be established anytime firefighters are on air inside a structure and no other units
have arrived onscene. In the event the initial company arrives onscene of a fire in the incipient stages the 2 in / 2
out procedure is not required. OSHA further defines an incipient stage fire in 29 CFR 1910.155(c)(26) as a “fire
which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire
extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing
apparatus.”

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71
Q

What is the incident safety system?

A

The incident safety function begins with the first arriving unit, typically the company officer/IC
as part of the initial size up and continues until the incident is terminated.

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72
Q

For incidents such as a still assignment or car fire, and one or two company response to an EMS call, who maintains the role of IC and ISO?

A

The company officer

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73
Q
Companies assigned to On-Deck must prepare themselves to
function as rescue crews by performing the following tasks/actions:
A
  • Monitor tactical radio channel;
  • Retrieve RIC Bag and confirm contents;
  • Confirm TIC is in a ready state;
  • Determine which line each interior company is on—(hose tags);
  • Coordinate the opening of doors and windows;
  • Illuminate entrance/exits;
  • Develop and discuss a possible search and rescue plan.
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74
Q

On-Deck Company Actions for Rescue include:

A
  • Confirm May-Day information;
  • Determine resource and equipment needs based upon May-Day report;
  • Determine last known location of firefighter/crew in trouble;
  • Communicate plan with crew;
  • Implement Plan;
  • Utilize information and technology (radio reports, TIC, flashlights, etc.);
  • Monitor air supply;
  • Provide C.A.N. report to Command.
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75
Q

What are the 3 safety intervention approaches?

A

First Approach- life threatening conditions:
Any LIFE THREATENING conditions will be corrected immediately and directly. Where time permits,
Command must be notified. Corrective action will be initiated by Command immediately.
Second approach- non life threatening conditions:
The second approach is for non-life threatening situations and involves a more “one on one” correction
of safety problems with individual firefighters, company officers, and/or sector officers (i.e. require
SCBA, correct ladder position) and often does not affect incident strategy. This approach is the most
frequent type of interaction.
Third approach- on going incident planning:
The third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process. Upon the implementation of the
Safety Sector/Section, Command must provide the Safety Sector/Section an overview of the incident
action plan and specific details of the safety plan

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76
Q

The Resource Sector is a part of our Incident Command System and may be assigned under what section officer?

A

Logistics section officer

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77
Q

What is the Lobby sector officer responsible for?

A
  1. Identified all entrance/exit points
  2. Control all access points when alternate entrances are present
  3. Identify suitable entrance/exit point or location
  4. Maintain full accountability
  5. Record names, times and assignment of personnel
  6. Collect all accountability tags
  7. For High-rise buildings, normally Lobby Sector is the ground floor lobby area
  8. Special Ops Incident: Define perimeter with HAZARD ZONE tape
    * Limit entry to authorized personnel with appropriate PPE*
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78
Q

Where is lobby sector located in a high-rise incident?

A

Usually the ground floor

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79
Q

In the case of a technical operation, e.g., hazardous materials incident, trench rescue, or confined space, the
perimeter shall be defined by:

A

Hazard Zone tape with an entrance and exit point id’d

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80
Q

What does lobby sector have to record?

A

The Lobby Sector will record the names, times, and assignments of all personnel entering and exiting the
controlled area. Accountability tags will be collected from all personnel entering and should be retrieved on
departure.

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81
Q

How should lobby sector be established in a high-rise incident?

A

When beginning operations at these incidents, at least one firefighter from the initial
arriving companies should be left to establish a Lobby Sector. A company should be assigned to establish Lobby
Sector as quickly as possible and additional resources may be needed in major situations.

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82
Q

A plan for evacuation should address the following factors:

A
  1. A Command structure
  2. Determine the need for evacuation versus in-place sheltering
  3. Early notification of the Police Department
  4. Identification of an area to be evacuated, perimeters, etc.
  5. Required resources
  6. Evacuation time frame
  7. Identification of shelter sites and preparation of these sites
  8. Duration of the evacuation
  9. Re-entry of those evacuated
  10. Information about the hazard and evacuation presented to evacuees (multi-lingual)
  11. Follow-up with evacuees upon re-entry
  12. Security of the area evacuated
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83
Q

Who defines the area of evacuation?

A

The area of initial evacuation should be identified by the Incident Commander. The Planning Section will re-evaluate the evacuation area and recommend any necessary adjustments. The evacuation boundaries should follow streets and established roadways. A map should be utilized and distributed to all officers and agencies involved. Maps need to be provided to the Evacuation Branch and the Police Department.

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84
Q

When can in place sheltering be utilized?

A
  1. The hazardous material has been identified as having a low or moderate level of health risk
  2. The material has been released from its container and is now dissipating
  3. Leaks can be controlled rapidly and before evacuation can be completed
  4. Exposure to the product is expected to be short-term and of low health risk
  5. The public can be adequately protected by staying indoors
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85
Q

What are the 3 levels of evacuation?

A
  1. SITE EVACUATION
    Site evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes workers at the site and people from adjacent occupancies or areas.
  2. INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EVACUATION
    The Intermediate Level involves larger numbers of citizens and/or affects a larger area. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 people. People may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more.
  3. LARGE-SCALE EVACUATION
    A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large scale evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Rapid initiation of the evacuation process may be required. Evacuees may be out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days.
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86
Q

Who is responsible for planning an evacuation, and who manages the evacuation itself?

A

The Planning Section is responsible for all planning associated with the evacuation. The evacuation plan is communicated to the Incident Commander for approval or modification. The actual evacuation process would normally be managed in the Operations Section as an Evacuation Branch or Sector.

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87
Q

If you need to make an evacuation branch, should a separate radio channel be used?

A

A separate radio frequency should be used for the Evacuation Branch. This should be assigned as early in the incident as possible.

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88
Q

In what order do you evacuate people?

A
  1. those at greatest risk

2. Greatest concentrated areas

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89
Q

When doing door to door evacuations, what should you do?

A
When making door-to-door evacuations:
1. Be in uniform
2. Wear your helmet
Face-to-face notification should include the following instructions:
1. There is an emergency
2. You are in danger
3. Leave immediately
4. Go to shelter (location)
5. Take ( ) route out of area
6. Do you need transportation?
7. Consider multi-lingual needs
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90
Q

In other situations, where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method:

A
  1. Use three (3) five-second blasts of the siren while on the “YELP” setting
  2. Follow with the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above)
  3. Use maximum volume on PA system
  4. Proceed slowly to maximize notification
  5. Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that
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91
Q

If citizens are refusing to leave when an evacuation is in progress, what should you do?

A

Write the address down (or if radio traffic permits, radio the address to the Evacuation Branch). A few methods of persuasion include:

  1. Be in uniform
  2. Wear your helmet
  3. Wear SCBA and facepiece (air hose may not need to be connected) when advising the citizen to leave
  4. Ask for next of kin and a phone number
  5. Write the next of kin information down
  6. Refusals should be noted and reported to the Branch Officer by radio
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92
Q

What additional sector may need to be established within evacuation sector to help get people out of the evacuation zone?

A

TRANSPORTATION BRANCH/SECTOR

  1. Obtain buses (start with a minimum of two) and other vehicles that can be used for transportation
  2. Stage all transportation resources
  3. Put one firefighter (or police officer) on each vehicle equipped with a fire or police department radio
  4. Coordinate the Evacuation Sector (or Evacuation Branch) pick-up points or addresses of those citizens needing transportation
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93
Q

Who determines the level of critique for an incident?

A

The Assistant Chief of Operations, or

designee, will determine the level at which the incident will be critiqued

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94
Q

What are the 5 levels of critique?

A

Individual -Conducted within the individual company by the company officer. May include other
companies. Usually self initiated by the company officer. No documentation of the critique
required.
Company level- Level–Post-incident critique conducted on site, prior to departing the scene. Initiated
by Command or battalion chief. Informal and brief.
Battalion level-Initiated and organized by the battalion chief. Scheduled assembly of the
necessary companies as soon as possible after the incident. Structured critique format.
Operations level-Level–Conducted within the battalion by the battalion chief or Shift Commander.
This may be a first alarm or multiple-alarm incident, or other significant incident whose site
operations were uncomplicated, and generally did not involve a large response of fire
department resource or outside agencies
Department level-Utilized for critiquing large-scale or complex incidents that involved a large
response of fire department resources and several outside agencies or incidents that were
unusual or tactically significant occurrences

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95
Q

How many days do you have to submit needed information for a critique?

A

10 calendar days

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96
Q

When should you summon additional resources?

A

An actual or potential fire situation exists and the life hazard exceeds the rescue EMS capabilities of initial alarm companies.
The number, location and condition of actual victims exceeds the rescue/removal/treatment capabilities of companies.
An actual or potential fire situation exists and the property protection demand (both internal and external) exceeds the fire control capabilities of initial alarm companies.
Fire conditions become more severe or the situation deteriorates significantly.
All companies have been committed and the fire is not controlled.

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97
Q

What departments have the ability to put brush fighting helicopters in service?

A

Phoenix can put 2 bambi bucket in service, and Mesa can put 1 in service

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98
Q

How much water can a bambi bucket hold

A

67-96 gallons

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99
Q

How much water can a buoy wall tank hold?

A

3,000 or 4,000 gal

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100
Q

Where can helicopters carrying water NOT fly?

A

Helicopters with full buckets are prohibited from flying over occupied structures or traffic.
Roadways must be closed or structures evacuated if no other flight path can be used.

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101
Q

How is a buoy wall tank set up?

A

Set up in a large flat area, free of overhead obstructions.
Place one or two salvage covers underneath for protection.
Tanks fill from the bottom

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102
Q

How far away do apparatus need to be from helos dipping into tanks?

A

150’

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103
Q

What is the average fuel running time for a helo?

A

1.5-2 hours

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104
Q

How do you approach a helo?

A

From 45 degrees from the front and make sure you make eye contact with pilot.

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105
Q

What are special use helo operations?

A
  1. External load (slingloads, longlines, water bucket, etc.)
  2. Hover sites (low-level hovering)
  3. Helicopter rappelling (insertions and extraction’s)
  4. Flights conducted below 500 feet above ground level (AGL)
  5. Helicopter operations around a fire perimeter
  6. Single skid landings
  7. Any takeoff or landing requiring special pilot technique due to terrain, obstacles, or surface
    condition.
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106
Q

How big does a helo LZ need to be?

A

100’ x 100’ with 60 x 60 touch down area in the center

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107
Q

What safety person must be put into place once a helo has landed, whether it’s running or not.

A

Tail guard, 50-100’ from the tail rotor.

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108
Q

How far away are PTs to be staged from a helo?

A

150’

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109
Q

All fire personnel and crew members will wear the following PPE when operating in or on the helicopter:

A

The assigned personnel shall
have a portable radio, eye protection, ear protection, high-visibility safety vests. All personnel assigned
to the landing zone operation shall be on the designated landing zone radio frequency. Engine
companies are more suitable for this assignment.

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110
Q

How far should the LZ be from other activities?

A

100 yards

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111
Q

What is the order for the best surface for an LZ?

A
  1. Concrete
  2. Asphalt
  3. Grass
  4. Compacted dirt (lightly moistened to control dust)
  5. Dry, loose dirt/sand (heavily moistened to control dust)
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112
Q

Engine Company Functions:

A
  1. Search, rescue, and treatment
  2. Stretch hoselines
  3. Operate nozzles
  4. Pump hoselines
  5. Loss control
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113
Q

Ladder Company/Tender Functions:

A
  1. Search, rescue, and treatment
  2. Ventilate
  3. Forcible entry
  4. Raise ladders
  5. Provide access/check fire extension
  6. Utility control
  7. Provide lighting
  8. Operate ladder pipes (aerials and platforms only)
  9. Perform overhaul
  10. Extrication
  11. Loss control
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114
Q

Rescue Company Functions:

A
  1. Transportation of sick and injured to hospitals
  2. Search, rescue, and treatment–Rescue companies should communicate commitment and location to Command and maintain a retrievable status for victim treatment and transportation
  3. General firefighting duties as assigned by Command
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115
Q

In the absence (or delay) of Ladder company response, who should Command should assign ladder functions?

A

Engines

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116
Q

What is the basic “checklist” of the items that are involved in size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision on the fireground?

A

Fireground factors

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117
Q

Are all the fireground factors are not critical in any one tactical situation?

A

NO

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118
Q

What are the 3 basic information factors command uses along with the fireground factors?

A

Visual factors
Reconnaissance factors
Pre plan factors

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119
Q

What are the 7 fireground factors?

A

Building
Arrangement
Resources

Fire
Occupancy
Other factors/conditions
Life hazards

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120
Q

What are your tactical priorities?

A

Rescue
Fire Control
Property Conservation

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121
Q

What are your tactical priorities benchmarks?

A
#1 - Rescue - primary search (all clear)
#2 - Fire Control - under control
#3 - Property Conservation - loss stopped
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122
Q

What is the umbrella of service made up of?

A

fire fighter safety, customer service, and Loss Control.

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123
Q

The fireground strategy can change with conditions or because certain benchmark (i.e., ALL CLEAR) are obtained.
The fireground strategy is also based on:

A
  1. The building (type of construction, condition, age, etc)
  2. Structural integrity of the building (contents vs. structural involvement)
  3. The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and what’s left to burn)
  4. The fire and/or smoke conditions (extent, location, etc.)
  5. The rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile)
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124
Q

By controlling the fireground strategy, who is

providing overall incident scene safety?

A

The IC

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125
Q

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate fireground strategy?

A

The Incident Commander

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126
Q

What is an offensive fire attack centered around?

A

Rescue

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127
Q

The following are

guidelines for offensive fire attacks:

A
  1. Address 2 in / 2 out decision prior to entry.
  2. Initial attack efforts must be directed toward supporting a primary search – the first attack line must go
    between the victims and the fire to protect avenues of rescue and escape.
  3. Determine fire conditions and extent before starting fire operations (as far as possible).
  4. Offensive fires should be fought from the INTERIOR-UNBURNED SIDE (interior capability is the principal
    offensive strategy factor).
  5. Avoid exterior application of water during offensive operation, this is usually the very worst application
    point.
  6. Avoid fire attack from the burning side of the building.
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128
Q

What must command consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus its speed, particularly as
they affect:

A

· Rescue activities
· Level of risk to firefighters
· Confinement efforts
· Exposure protection

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129
Q

Fires cannot be considered under control until what has been addressed?

A
seven sides (or sectors) of the fire: front, rear, both sides, top, bottom, and
interior.
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130
Q

What are the basic variables relating to attack operations?

A

· Location/position of attack
· Size of attack
· Support functions

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131
Q

What is THE ONLY REASON TO OPERATE IN MARGINAL SITUATIONS?

A

Rescue

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132
Q

Command should abandon marginal attacks when:

A
  1. A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal.
  2. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed
    attic spaces.
  3. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the
    fire.
  4. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
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133
Q

It is imperative that Command assign a Roof Sector when?

A

As early as possible

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134
Q

What needs to happen when the strategy changes from offensive to defensive?

A

Emergency traffic
All personnel withdraw
Stay a safe distance from the structure
PARs will be obtained

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135
Q

What are the priorities in defensive operations?

A

personnel safety; the second is exposure protection; the third is knocking down the fire

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136
Q

What is the standard guideline for master stream GPM on defensive fires?

A

750 GPM

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137
Q

When the exposure is severe and water is limited, what is the most effective tactic?

A

most effective tactic is to put water on the exposure and,

if need be, from the interior of the exposure.

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138
Q

What does fire under control mean?

A

It means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped, and the remaining fire can be put out with units onscene. A PAR must be given from all sectors and crews

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139
Q

If defensive operations are conducted from the onset of the incident, Command will notify Alarm that, what?

A

there will

not be a primary search completed for the affected structure(s).

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140
Q

The Incident Commander shall direct a primary search in what areas?

A

all involved and exposed occupancies which can be entered.

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141
Q

The Incident Commander must consider the following factors in developing a basic rescue size-up:

A
  • Number, location and condition of victims
  • Affect the fire has on the victims
  • Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire
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142
Q

Command must make the basic rescue decision:

A
  • Do we remove the victims from the fire? OR

* Do we remove the fire from the victims?

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143
Q

Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order:

A
  • Most severely threatened
  • The largest number (groups)
  • The remainder of the fire area
  • The exposed areas
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144
Q

What is the critical factor in the primary search process?

A

Time

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145
Q

What is the critical factor in a secondary search?

A

Thoroughness; rather than time

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146
Q

What mode is the FG operation in until a primary search is completed?

A

Rescue

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147
Q

When primary search companies encounter and remove victims, Command must assign other companies to, what?

A

continue to cover the interior positions vacated by those companies.

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148
Q

When might it be necessary to operate in a manner that writes off the structure?

A

in order to buy rescue time.

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149
Q

What is the most urgent reason for calling additional alarms?

A

for the purpose of covering life safety

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150
Q

Command must define Offensive/Defensive Strategy based upon the Risk Management System. In addition,
Command will consider the following when Fire Control is the principle objective:

A
  1. Fire extent
  2. Structural conditions
  3. Entry capability
  4. Ventilation profile
  5. Rescue profile of occupants
  6. Resources profile
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151
Q

Personnel must use caution when placed in the following positions:

A
  • Above the fire (floors/roof)
  • Where fire can move in behind them
  • Where sector cannot control position/retreat
  • When involved with opposing fire streams
  • Combining interior and exterior attack
  • With limited access–one way in/out
  • Operating under involved roof structures
  • In areas containing hazardous materials
  • Below ground fires (basements, etc.)
  • In areas where a backdraft potential exists
  • Above/below ground rescue
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152
Q

When operating in a defensive strategy, where should operating positions be?

A

as far from the involved area as

possible while still remaining effective.

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153
Q

Due to the inherent hazards of the fire or incident scene, efforts must be made by Command to limit the
number of personnel on the fireground to:

A

those assigned to a necessary function.

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154
Q

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend how far above the roof line?

A

2-3 feet

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155
Q

If possible, when laddering buildings under fire conditions, place ladders near:

A

building corners or fire

walls as these areas are generally more stable in the event of structural failure.

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156
Q

What is the hot zone defined as?

A

The Hot Zone will be defined as any area that requires an SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective
clothing, or in which Fire fighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the
environment or structure.

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157
Q

What is the warm zone defined as?

A

The Warm Zone will be defined as just outside of the Hot Zone where the fire fighters start their
operations on the fireground. This zone is where the fire fighter is not at risk of becoming lost, trapped,
or injured by the environment or structure.

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158
Q

What goes on in the hot zone?

A
  • Entering a structure reported to be on fire
  • Operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations
  • Confined Space
  • Trench Rescues
  • Operating close to crane operations or close to swift water operations
  • Building collapse
  • Operating close to helicopter operations
  • Extrication
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159
Q

What goes on in the warm zone?

A
  • Forward fire apparatus working the incident (i.e.; engines, ladders)
  • Laying lines
  • HMRT and TRT developing strategies & tactics
  • Utility trucks
  • Special equipment needs
  • Accountability Officer
  • FIRE Investigations
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160
Q

What is the cold zone defined as?

A

The Cold Zone will be defined as outside of the Warm Zone where no one is at risk because of the
incident.

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161
Q

What goes on in the cold zone?

A
  • Command
  • Level I & Level II staging
  • Support and Staff personnel
  • Canteen
  • Rehab
  • Media
  • P.D. Liaison
  • INTERVIEWING THE RESPONSIBLE PARTY
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162
Q

ALL PERSONNEL ENTERING THE HOT ZONE SHALL:

A

• WEAR FULL TURNOUTS
• HAVE CREW INTACT
• BE ASSIGNED TO A SECTOR
ALL OTHERS STAY OUTSIDE.

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163
Q

What is a major reason for FG sectorization?

A

The safety of FF personnel

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164
Q

Who has the responsibility to recognize situations involving a high risk to personnel and to initiate
appropriate safety measures?

A

Command

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165
Q

Command shall establish a Safety Sector at incidents involving:

A

an inordinate danger to personnel.

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166
Q

A 100’ length of steel will expand how much when heated to 100 degrees?

A

9”

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167
Q

In the typical fire involved building, what is the most likely candidate for failure?

A

The roof, however failure of the

roof may very likely trigger a collapse of one or more wall sections.

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168
Q

Signs of building collapse may include:

A
  • Cracks in exterior walls.
  • Bulges in exterior walls.
  • Sounds of structural movement–creaking, groaning, snapping, etc.
  • Smoke or water leaking through walls.
  • Flexible movement of any floor or roof where fire fighters walk.
  • Interior or exterior bearing walls or columns–leaning, twisting or flexing.
  • Sagging or otherwise distorted rooflines.
  • Time of fire involvement.
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169
Q

The following construction features or conditions have been known to fail prematurely or to contribute
to early structural failure when affected by fire.

A

• Parapet walls.
• Large open (unsupported) areas–supermarkets, warehouses, etc.
• Large signs or marquees–which may pull away from weakened walls.
• Cantilevered canopies–which usually depend on the roof for support and may collapse as the
roof fails.
• Ornamental or secondary front or sidewalls–which may pull away and collapse.
• Buildings with light weight truss, bar joist, or bow string truss, roofs.
• Buildings supported by unprotected metal–beams, columns, etc.

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170
Q

After how many minutes of interior operations and heavy fire conditions, should command consider a change in strategy?

A

10-15 min

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171
Q

If a working fire is suspected in a high-rise building, what rules should be adhered to as far as stairs and elevators go?

A

Utilize the stairs

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172
Q

If you are going to use the elevators during a high-rise fire, what precautions have to be taken?

A

A. The elevator shaft must be checked to insure that heat/fire have not damaged the hoist mechanism,
etc. This can be done by checking the space between the door frame and the elevator car and
shining a light up the shaft. If smoke or fire are visible in the shaft, DO NOT USE THE ELEVATOR.
B. Before using an elevator, the nearest enclosed stairway should be identified. Should the elevator
stop at a floor with heavy SMOKE or intense heat, fire fighters can then head directly for the stairs
without losing time searching for them.
C. You must verify that the floor you are going to is uninvolved.

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173
Q

What are the steps for using an elevator during a high-rise fire?

A

• Engage the Emergency Operations.
• Take elevator to the floor two floors below the suspected fire floor.
• Be prepared to close the elevator door immediately, usually by removing your finger from the
door control button, if fire or smoke are visible on the floor.
Elevators without the Emergency Operations shall not be used if a working fire is indicated.

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174
Q

What is the perimeter that should be enforced during a HR fire?

A

200’

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175
Q

What does using a TIC do for you?

A

may enhance the visibility in a visibly diminished atmosphere, thus increasing fire fighter safety and survival, as well as improving the survival potential of our customers.

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176
Q

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus shall be used by all personnel operating:

A

• in a contaminated atmosphere
• in an atmosphere which may suddenly become contaminated
• in an atmosphere which is oxygen deficient
• in an atmosphere which is suspected of being contaminated or oxygen deficient
This includes all personnel operating:
• in an active fire area.
• directly above an active fire area.
• in a potential explosion or fire area, including gas leaks and fuel spills.

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177
Q

What is the max distance a crew is to go into a structure?

A

150’

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178
Q

What is the first 75% of your SCBA bottle for?

A

Working and exiting air

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179
Q

What is the last 25% of your SCBA air for?

A

Emergency reserve only to be used during an emergency encountered while exiting the structure.

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180
Q

Who is responsible for managing their air supply on the fire ground?

A

Each individual

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181
Q

An air emergency is defined as:

A

“anytime the breathing apparatus being used cannot
deliver air to the user as designed; whether by mechanical failure or if the individual has
consumed the air supply beyond the designed work cycle, or an individual becomes lost
or trapped within an IDHL environment regardless of air supply”.

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182
Q

If a member’s remaining air supply in the SCBA cylinder reaches the 18%
to 15% range and they cannot exit within 5 minutes, what needs to be done?

A

A may-day needs to be called

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183
Q

Roof sector companies must enter the roof from an established safe area, and have what in place to exit?

A

must have a secondary means to escape the roof, or to a safe refuge on an unexposed and structurally sound roof surface.

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184
Q

The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions:

A

a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.)
b. Structural conditions
c. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof
d. Locations of fire walls
e. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions
f. Ventilation plan

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185
Q

The objectives for Roof Sector operations include:

A

a. Determining a safe working surface.
b. Complete adequate size ventilation hole(s) and achieve effective ventilation.
c. Coordinate roof ventilation with interior crews.
d. Coordinate roof fire control operations as directed by Command.
e. Maintain roof-top monitoring of roof structure and fire conditions.
f. Communicate with Interior Sector
g. Provide progress reports to Command.

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186
Q

What amount of the roof surface should be ventilated as a rule of thumb?

A

10%

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187
Q

If more than one hole is needed to be cut on a roof, what is working against you?

A

Time and changing fire conditions

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188
Q

For high-rise operations, the Resource Sector is normally established how many floors below the on-deck floor or any other safe, uncontaminated environment below the fire?

A

5

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189
Q

Who is responsible for the accountability of crews assigned to Rehab Sector?

A

The rehab sector officer

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190
Q

A Rehab Team concept will be used wherever possible to establish and manage the Rehab Sector. This team
shall consist of:

A
  1. Rehab Truck
  2. Utility Truck
  3. Rescue
  4. ALS Company
  5. Designated Sector Officer
  6. C959, as needed
  7. Health Center officer, as needed
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191
Q

When will a rehab truck be dispatched?

A

A Rehab truck will be dispatched on all First Alarm and greater incidents, or when heat stress advisory is in
effect

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192
Q

Rehab sector will have only one entry point and be divided into what 4 functions?

A
Assessment
Hydration and replenishment
Medical treatment and xport
Documentation 
Reassignment
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193
Q

What must your vital signs be below in order to be reassigned to the FG?

A

Heart rate below 100, not irregular
BP below 160/100
Respirations 12-20
Pulse Ox above 92%

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194
Q

We lose most often because of a lack of _____, not a lack of _____.

A

Support, water

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195
Q

What are the two reasons you vent a building?

A
  • To prevent mushrooming

* To gain (and maintain) entry

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196
Q

If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, what should Command should consider?

A

A marginal situation

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197
Q

For bowstring/arched roofs the policy is:

A
  1. When fire is in the attic/truss space, and it is safe to do so, quickly search the building and implement a defensive strategy.
  2. When crews are unable to locate the fire, and it is safe to do so, quickly search the building and implement a defensive strategy.
  3. When fire involves a room and contents with no evidence of extension to the attic/truss space—implement a quick, aggressive, offensive strategy.
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198
Q

What is an attack team made up of? What “positions” do these trucks fill?

A

2 engines and 1 ladder.

Elevated stream, forward pumper, key pumper.

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199
Q

What is a high-rise defined as?

A

6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater.

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200
Q

High rise plans: Will PFD ever use elevators as a means of rescue in smoke or fire
conditions?

A

NO

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201
Q

What are the two kinds of stairwells you need to secure during a high-rise incident?

A

· Evacuation stairwell = stairwell dedicated to the removal of
occupants from the building
· Fire attack stairwell = stairwell dedicated to the fire attack
operations ideally with roof access with no evacuation traffic to
impede the fire attack operations

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202
Q

What should the first arriving engine company do on a high-rise fire?

A

Spot apparatus as close to interior access as possible
Proceed directly to the building lobby and gain access to the Fire Control
Room or building alarm panel if a dedicated control room does not exist
Establish Building Systems Sector with 1 member from the initial Engine
Company
Crew should initiate a lobby level size up

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203
Q

What should the first arriving ladder company do on a high-rise fire?

A

Spot in position to utilize aerial device for rescue or defensive firefight if
necessary
Proceed directly to the building lobby
Captain should proceed to the Fire Control Room or alarm panel and
meet with first arriving Engine Company Captain
Crew should begin elevator assessment for possible use

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204
Q

What should the second arriving engine company do on a high-rise fire?

A

Company should establish water connection to building standpipe system
Engineer should remain with the pumper
Captain should proceed to the Fire Control Room or alarm panel to meet
with first arriving Engine Company and Ladder Company Captains

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205
Q

What should all first and second alarm companies do on a high-rise fire?

A

After a declaration of a “working fire”, once on scene, all 1st and 2nd Alarm
companies should proceed directly to the building and report to Lobby
Sector
Purpose of this is to decrease transit time once assignment is made
Lobby Sector will be operating on the Staging radio channel as per the
standard Phoenix Fire Department staging procedures (See Lobby
Sector, Phoenix Fire Department High-rise Firefighting Manual)

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206
Q

What is building system sector responsible for during a high-rise fire?

A

· Manage distribution of building keys, fire phones and floor maps
· Necessary for managing all building systems including personnel to
access all remote building systems
o Fire pump
o Ventilation and pressurization systems
o Emergency generators
· Elevator operator reports to Building Systems Sector

207
Q

What are the responsibilities of lobby sector during a high-rise fire?

A

· Works directly with Staging Sector on the staging radio channel to
direct fire companies in Lobby Sector to tactical assignments
· All companies on first 2 alarms should proceed directly to Lobby.
Limit staging from outside of building. Need resources immediately
available from lobby.
· Crew accountability tracked based on assignment
o All crews ultimately should be tracked by Command
· Create lobby staging area for crews
· Manage lobby level elevator access
· Assist with safe egress of evacuating occupants
· Work with PD to prevent re-entry of evacuated occupants

208
Q

What is resource sector responsible for during a high-rise fire?

A

Resource
· Establish equipment pool in building
· Needs to be well below the “on-deck” floor
o Decrease likelihood of becoming contaminated with smoke

209
Q

What are your Battalion Chief assignment priorities during a high-rise fire?

A
Depend on conditions and actions in the building
· Fire Floor
· Building Systems
· Ventilation
· Lobby
210
Q

When ascending to the fire floor during a high-rise fire, how often do you need to check your air?

A

every 5 floors, managed by the captain

211
Q

Skills like forcible entry and ventilation should be done with what in mind?

A

Loss control

212
Q

What should be used to prevent further damage to carpeting and flooring?

A

Hall runner and carry alls

213
Q

What is the preferred size hole to check for extension in the celing?

A

6”x6”

214
Q

What may have to be suspended due to fire investigation needs?

A

Loss control measures

215
Q

Salvage objectives are:

A
  • Stop or reduce the source of damage

* Protect or remove contents

216
Q

The following items should be considered when addressing salvage:

A
  • Type, value and location of contents
  • The extent and location of the fire
  • Recognition of existing and potential damage sources
  • Estimate of required resource
217
Q

Where should salvage efforts begin?

A

in areas most severely threatened by damage

218
Q

The key to successful salvage is:

A

to distinguish between excessive damage, and damage that is required to reduce potential fire damage.

219
Q

The goal of _______ is to
reduce the incidence of secondary fires, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene while providing
for firefighter safety in doing so.

A

Overhaul

220
Q

Preventing secondary fires and finding hidden fires is done during this process.

A

Overhaul

221
Q

As well as preventing secondary fires, what are two additional objectives of overhaul?

A

Preserving evidence

Securing the fire scene

222
Q

When are overhaul activities done on a defensive fire?

A

They are not done traditionally from the interior. Water will only be applied from the exterior.

223
Q

Securing the fire scene is a function of what?

A

Overhaul

224
Q

What organization is typically used after a fire to help find people shelter?

A

American Red Cross

225
Q

What are some benefits to PPV?

A
  1. PPV rapidly removes heat and smoke from the building, thus reducing the fires ability to
    propagate and advance.
  2. PPV causes an improving atmosphere–thus improving patient survivability profiles.
  3. Rapid removal of smoke improves fire fighters ability to conduct search and rescue
    operations as well as effective loss control operations.
  4. The improved atmosphere and visibility increases the fire fighters ability to conduct the
    attack/extinguishment operations.
  5. The improved atmosphere reduces fire fighter heat stress.
  6. PPV reduces loss caused by smoke and fire damage to the structure.
  7. PPV can reduce the need and risk of roof ventilation at many fires.
226
Q

Where are fans placed when using them for PPV?

A

Positive pressure fans should be placed at the point of entry(s) from the unburned side of the fire.
Fans should be positioned 12-15 feet back from the entry point. The objective is to create a pressure
“cone” effect around the door. This position will also allow access for crews to enter the building.
Where additional fans are required, placing two or more fans in “tandem”–one behind the other is more
effective than side by side.

227
Q

What two major items are required for PPV to be effective?

Whos responsibility is it to make sure these two requirements are met?

A
  1. An “exit” for the pressurized air must be provided and must be located in the fire area. This
    is generally a window, door or other opening.
  2. Positive pressure ventilation must be injected from the unburned side of the fire.

Ladder company officer

228
Q

Can PPV be used on attic fires?

A

Yes. Still must have an exit in place

229
Q

How is PPV used for exposure control?

A

By over pressurizing the exposure, forcing the fire away from it.

230
Q

First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay
their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include:

A
  • Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew
  • Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex
  • Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire
231
Q

Staging key pumpers on

hydrants enhances fire ground safety in several ways:

A

• Ensures an uninterrupted water supply
• Provides volume when needed (extremely long supply lines i.e.: Apartments re-cycle facilities,
junk yards or limited water mains & hydrants).
• Ability to pump water through the forward pumper in the event of mechanical failure

232
Q

A non-pumped 500 foot 4” supply line can flow how many GPM?

A

800

233
Q

When does the need for pumped water occur?

A

Late in the 1st alarm, or early in the 2nd.

234
Q

When provided an adequate water supply how much water can a ladder pipe flow?

A

2000 GPM with two guns

235
Q

What is the objective of the attack hose line?

A

The objective of the attack hose line choice is to provide enough GPM flow to overcome the volume of
fire being produced, or an adequate flow to effectively cool and protect exposures.

236
Q

Where should the first hose line be placed?

A

• The first stream should be placed between the fire and persons endangered by it.
• When no life is endangered, the first stream should be placed between the fire and the most
severe exposure or unburned areas.

237
Q

Where should a second hose line be placed?

A

• A second hose line should be deployed to protect a secondary means of egress (always bear in
mind the presence of Fire personnel operating in opposing positions).
• Additional hose lines should cover other critical areas or when covered, back up in place hose
lines.
• Whenever possible, crews should position hose lines in a manner and direction that supports
rescue activities, begins confinement, protects exposures, and controls loss.

238
Q

What kind of stream pattern should not be used in a basement fire?

A

Fog Stream. The steam production will be extensive

239
Q

What is the exception to using master streams on structures while crews are still interior?

A

When crews interior are protecting exposures

240
Q

When is a fire investigator dispatched?

A
  • Fire deaths or serious fire injuries
  • All working first alarm or greater structure fires
  • Fires for which the cause cannot be determined by Command on the scene
  • Explosions and bombings
  • Requested by Phoenix Police Department to respond to known arson fires
  • Car, field, or dumpster fires that have an identified lead or suspect in custody
  • Attempted arsons
241
Q

A Fire Investigator is not needed for the following situations. The company officer is responsible
for completing an accurate Field Incident Report to document the fire cause:

A

• Minor fires where cause is determined to be accidental
• Scalding burns, electrical accidents, and minor accidental burn injuries
• Car fires originating in the engine area during vehicle operation, abandoned autos, or
vehicle arsons with no identified suspects
• Minor grass, fence, or trash fires with no witnesses or suspects
• Traffic accident fatalities involving fire subsequent to collision (investigated by Phoenix
Police Department)
• To hold the scene until another agency or service responds
• When requested to make contact with homeowner for the purpose of insurance matters
• Minor fires caused by juveniles playing with fire, matches, etc. These incidents are
referred to the Youth Firesetter Program.

242
Q

When a fire investigator is responding to the scene, what should fire crews do?

A

Companies will delay non-essential

overhaul and secure the fire scene until the Fire Investigator arrives

243
Q

Does the Fire

Department have the legal authority to close the scene entirely, even to the property owner?

A

Yes, for the purpose of investigation.

244
Q

What NFPA standard is associated with training fires?

A

1403

245
Q

Any WORKING FIRST ALARM BRUSH assignment or greater will be deemed a ______________ and
receive appropriate additional resources.

A

Wildland fire

246
Q

What resources do you get on a still brush assignment?

A

Engine

Brush

247
Q

What resources do you get on a brush assignment

A
  • 2 – Engines
  • 2 – Brush Trucks
  • 1 – Water tender
  • 1 – Command Officer
248
Q

What resources do you get on a 1st alarm brush?

A
  • 5 - Engines
  • 4 - Brush Trucks
  • 2 - Water tenders
  • 3 – Command Officers
  • 1 – Shift Commander
  • 1 – Command Van
  • 1 – Safety Officer
  • Rehab Unit
  • Canteen Unit
249
Q

What resources do you get on a greater alarm brush?

A
  • 5 – Engines
  • 4 - Brush Trucks
  • 2 - Water tenders
  • Staff and Command Officer Response
  • Port-A-Potties
  • Refueling Truck
  • Mechanics
  • Radio Technician
  • Multiple Spare Radios
  • Weather Reports
250
Q

What does a proper brush/wildland fire protective ensemble will consist of?

A

A helmet, fire resistive brush
shirt/jacket, fire resistive brush pants, eye and hearing protection, work gloves and leather ankle high
boots. Nylon hiking boots are inappropriate because of the melting and sticking potential of nylon.

251
Q

Durring brush fires, Captains must maintain LCES:

A

(Lookouts, Communication, Escape Routes, and Safety

Zones)

252
Q

What factors effect wildfires?

A

WEATHER, FUEL, and TOPOGRAPHY.

253
Q

What is the objective of mop up during a brush fire?

A

The objective of

mop up is to put out all fire embers or sparks to prevent them from crossing the fire line.

254
Q

What is the minimum hose line used for car fires?

A

1.5”

255
Q

Where should the apparatus be placed on car fires?

A

uphill and upwind

256
Q

There are two kinds of aircraft crashes:

A

High impact

Low impact

257
Q

Fatalities in survivable aircraft

crashes are usually due to:

A

Smoke inhelation

258
Q

High piled outside combustible storage fires are defined as outside fire
incidents including but not limited to:

A
  • Pallet Storage
  • Metal Recycling
  • Tire Storage (See Tire Fires MP 202.18A)
  • Paper Stock
  • Mulching Operations
  • Wrecking Yards
  • Lumber Yards
  • Large unfinished construction projects (stick cities)
  • Any other fires incident involving outside combustible storage
259
Q

For high piled outside combustible storage fires the tactical objectives are:

A
  1. Firefighter Safety
  2. Exposure Protection
  3. Environmental Protection (including public health)
  4. Fire Control
260
Q

First alarm resources during high piled outside combustible storage fires will cover how many geographical sectors?

A

2, so consider more resources

261
Q

Critical factors of high piled outside combustible storage fires are:

A
  • Incident location
  • Type and amount of material burning
  • Fire growth potential
  • Exposures
  • Water supply (hydrants, drafting, tankers)
  • Fire apparatus access
  • Hazards (hazardous materials storage tanks, power lines, underground gas, railroad tracks, rail cars, etc)
  • Environmental impact
  • Resources required for incident mitigation
262
Q

The average car tire contains how many gallons of oil?

A

2.5 gal

263
Q

What are the 3 strategies for tire fires?

A

Burn it
Bury it
Drown it

264
Q

What is the best practice to extinguish mulch/compost fires?

A

Isolate the burning material by removing the

surrounding uninvolved material, spread out the burning material and then apply water to only that material.

265
Q

What are the two ways mulch/compost fires start?

A

Internal combustion

External ignition

266
Q

What is a multi patient incident considered?
Mass casualty?
Disaster?

A

Fewer than 25 pts
25-100
more than 100

267
Q

What are the general tactical objectives of an EMS incident?

A
  1. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
  2. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety.
  3. Ensure the functions of triage, extrication, treatment and transportation are established as needed
    and performed appropriately.
  4. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of rescue personnel and victims.
  5. Conserve property.
268
Q

What are the two tactical benchmarks for an EMS incident?

A
  1. Completion of a “Triage Report”

2. Declaration of “All IMMEDIATES Transported”

269
Q

When possible, patients should be treated and transported in the following priority order:

A
  1. IMMEDIATE
  2. DELAYED patients upgraded to IMMEDIATE
  3. DELAYED
  4. MINOR
270
Q

When should triage tags be used?

A

Triage tags should be used any time there are three (3) or more IMMEDIATE patients
or more than ten (10) patients.

271
Q

Most multiple-patient incidents require what basic sectors?

A

patient triage, extrication, treatment, and transportation

272
Q

MINOR patients who were directed earlier in the incident by triage teams to an
Assembly Area will be assessed by __________.

A

Extrication and delivered to the treatment area if further medical
care is warranted

273
Q

The purpose of _________ is to determine, in close coordination with Extrication, the location,
number and condition of patients and whether triage should be performed before or after patients are
extricated from the site.

A

Triage sector

274
Q

The purpose of __________ is to determine, in conjunction with Triage, the location, number and
condition of patients and whether triage will be performed before or after patients are extricated from
the impact area.

A

Extrication sector

275
Q

Command should assign Safety Sector as soon as __________.

A

the basic sectors have been established.

276
Q

What sector will treatment typically absorb, once their job is complete?

A

Extrication

277
Q

What are some Triage Sector Responsibilities?

A
  1. Determine the location, number and condition of patients.
  2. Determine, in close coordination with Extrication Sector, if triage will be performed in place or at the entrance to the treatment area.
  3. Determine resources.
  4. Assign and supervise triage teams.
278
Q

How is triage handled at an incident with less than 10 patients?
More than 10 Patients?

A

Less than 10, triage can be handled by first arriving company.
More than 10, first company takes command, and assigns next company triage sector.

279
Q

What are some extrication sector responsibilities?

A
  1. Determine the location, number and condition of all patients (coordinate with Triage).
  2. Determine if triage will be performed in place or at the entrance to the treatment area (see “Triage
    Sector”).
  3. Determine resources.
  4. Assign and supervise extrication teams.
  5. Extricate and deliver patients to the treatment area(s) or to a casualty collection point.
280
Q

During extrication activities, a

reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ___ victims.

A

5

281
Q

The objective

of the treatment sector is to ____________.

A

rapidly treat and transport all patients.

282
Q

What are some Treatment Sector Responsibilities?

A
  1. Identify whether patient treatment will occur “in place” or in a designated treatment area. Coordinate
    with Triage and Extrication Sectors.
  2. Determine resources.
  3. Identify and establish a large treatment area. If incident is large, establish separate “Immediate” and
    “Delayed” treatment areas.
  4. Assign and supervise treatment teams.
  5. Ensure that all patients have been triaged, assessed and re-triaged as needed.
  6. Aggressive treatment and rapid packaging of patients.
283
Q

Of all the sectors, the _________ Sector typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel.

A

Treatment

284
Q

During

major incidents, one company per _____ patients should be the initial objective

A

4

285
Q

Once a treatment area is established, what “team” should be placed at the treatment area entrance in case of more patients walking up?

A

A triage team

286
Q

The Treatment Sector must cause aggressive treatment and packaging of patients with an emphasis on:

A

Rapid transport

287
Q

The only time extended treatment should be

considered is when:

A

immediate transportation is not available

288
Q

When transportation is immediately available, __________ of the patient becomes a priority over extended on-site treatment

A

transportation

289
Q

What are some Transportation Sector Responsibilities?

A
  1. Determine/request resources.
  2. Determine (with Command) the rescue loading area and helicopter landing zone as needed.
  3. Determine hospital availability status by contacting Dispatch on Med-9.
  4. Coordinate patient allocation and destination with Treatment Sector.
  5. Aggressively supervise the movement of patients from the treatment area to the ambulance loading
    area or helicopter landing zone.
  6. Maintain an accounting of all patients and patient destinations.
  7. Provide progress reports, allocations, ETA’s, to receiving hospitals.
290
Q

When all IMMEDIATE patients have been transported from the scene, who should notify
Command?

A

Transportation

291
Q

When will a medical supply sector be established?

A

During all 3 alarm or greater medical incidents. Mass casualty incidents (MCI)

292
Q

When you’re the first arriving unit on a haz mat call, what could you consider doing with your incoming companies?

A

Establish level 2 staging

293
Q

The action plan for a haz mat incident must provide for:

A
  1. Safety of all fire personnel
  2. Evacuation of endangered area, if necessary
  3. Control of situation
  4. Stabilization of hazardous materials, and/or
  5. Disposal or removal of hazardous material
294
Q

As a general policy, will the Hazardous Materials Team respond to a situation where a private contractor is required to clean-up hazardous materials?

A

Yes

295
Q

What are the two initial zones associated with a haz mat call?

A

Limited access zone

Evacuation zone

296
Q

The __________ is the area in which personnel are potentially in immediate danger from the hazardous
condition. This is established by Command and controlled by the Fire Department. Access to this
area will be rigidly controlled and only personnel with proper protective equipment and an
assigned activity will enter.

A

Limited access zone

297
Q

The __________ is the larger area surrounding the LAZ in which a lesser degree of risk to personnel exists.
All civilians would be removed from this area. The limits of this zone will be enforced by the
Police Department based on distances and directions established in consultation with Command.

A

Evacuation zone

298
Q

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SAFETY OF ALL PERSONNEL

INVOLVED IN ANY INCIDENT?

A

Command

299
Q

What are the 3 levels of haz mat evacuation?

A

Site
Intermediate
Large scale

300
Q

What is site evacuation?

A

Site evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes the workers at the site, and persons from adjacent occupancies or areas. The citizens are easily evacuated and collected upwind at the perimeter area. Evacuation holding times are typically short, generally less than an hour or two, and citizens are permitted to return to their businesses or homes.

301
Q

What is intermediate level evacuation?

A

Intermediate level involves larger numbers of citizens and/or affects a larger area. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 persons. Persons may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more.

302
Q

What is large scale evacuation?

A

A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large off-site evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Rapid initiation of the evacuation process may be required. Evacuees may be out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days.

303
Q

where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method:

A
  • Use 3 five-second blasts of the siren while on the “YELP” setting.
  • Followed by the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above)
  • Use maximum volume on PA system.
  • Proceed slowly to maximize notification.
  • Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that.
304
Q

The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the _________.

A

IC

305
Q

Who is responsible for determining the most appropriate decontamination procedures and managing the decontamination process?

A

Decon sector officer

306
Q

The Decontamination Area should be established within the:

A

Hot Zone perimeter adjacent to the Entrance/Exit (Lobby Control). Personnel, equipment, and apparatus shall not be permitted to leave the Hot Zone without approval from the Decontamination Sector Officer.

307
Q

Should the Transporting of Level I patients be delayed for complete decontamination?

A

NO

308
Q

D.O.T. hazardous materials marking systems are inadequate because
some hazardous materials in quantities up to _____ lbs., do not require a placard

A

1,000

309
Q

Do you apply water to chlorine containers that are leaking?

A

No, it will make the leak worse.

310
Q

What are the 3 types of mercury?

A

Elemental mercury: Used in BP cuffs and thermometers
Inorganic mercury: Scientific equipment and electrical equipment.
Organic mercury: Mining and smelting

311
Q

What kind of symptoms will show from toxic exposure to mercury?

A

Symptoms of initial toxic exposure to elemental mercury include fever, chills, dyspnea, and headache within several hours. Emergency care is supportive with transport to a hospital.

312
Q

What are FD responsibilities at a mercury release at a commercial area?

A

A. Contact the on-site responsible party;
B. Determine the amount of mercury released;
C. Determine the mercury source and, if possible, secure the source to prevent further mercury loss.
D. Determine the size of affected area;

A. EVACUATE the affected area;
B. ISOLATE the affected area utilizing hazard line tape;
C. DENY ENTRY.
D. Request, through Dispatch, that the Fire Prevention Haz Mat specialist and the on-duty Special
Operations personnel respond.

313
Q

During a mercury spill FD members shall not:

A

A. SHALL NOT ENTER THE REPORTED SPILL AREA, UNLESS FOR RESCUE OR
TREATMENT.
Shoes, carpet, etc., are easily contaminated. Not entering the reported spill area will reduce
the potential spreading of the mercury.
B. SHALL NOT ATTEMPT TO CLEAN UP EVEN THE SMALLEST AMOUNT OF MERCURY
RELEASED OR ANY OTHER HAZARDOUS MATERIALS RELEASE.

314
Q

When can a FD member take possession of mercury?

A
  1. When a resident brings mercury to the fire station, personnel may take possession of the
    mercury.
  2. Fire Department members shall not take possession of mercury generated from a
    commercial business.
    D. SHALL NOT TRANSPORT ANY QUANTITY OF MERCURY, OR ANY OTHER HAZARDOUS
    MATERIALS.
315
Q

A mercury release in a residence is considered what?

A

A household hazardous waste.

316
Q

A mercury release in common public areas such as pool-side or exit corridors at apartment complexes, condominiums, etc. would require:

A

compliance with the commercial facility section of this management procedure.

317
Q

On radiological incidents Hazard Zone tape shall be stretched to define an area where readings of ______ are detectable.

A

2MR/hr

318
Q

During a radiological incident, should the field treatment of injured patients be delayed?

A

No, Radiological contamination, itself, is not a medical emergency.

319
Q

When treating radiological contaminated patients, what kind of PPE should be used?

A
  • All treatment personnel should use SCBA or dust-filtering type masks, long sleeve shirts or coats, gloves and nomex hoods.
  • A mask or other airway filtering means should be used on the patient to limit Inhalation/ingestion of airborne contamination.
320
Q

What is the preferred agent for flammable liquid fire fighting?

A

AFFF/Class B Foam (Aqueous Film Forming

Foam).

321
Q
One 95 GPM class B foam line is needed for every \_\_\_\_ square feet of
spill area.
A

600

322
Q

If you don’t have enough Class B foam on site to begin an attack, is it better to begin the attack or wait until you have enough foam on scene?

A

Wait until you have enough on scene.

323
Q

How long will the foam seal last on flammable liquids?

A

10-15 minutes

324
Q

What are the flammable limits of natural gas?

A

approximately 4% to 15% in air.

325
Q

Is natural gas toxic?

A

No, however, it

displaces oxygen and can result in asphyxiation if in a confined space.

326
Q

If gas company personnel must excavate to shut off a leak, provide stand-by protection
with ___________

A

a charged 1-1/2-inch line and two firefighters in full protective equipment and SCBA.

327
Q

What kind of atmospheres must be monitored?

A
  • contaminated atmospheres
  • atmospheres which may suddenly become contaminated
  • atmospheres where there is suspected oxygen deficiency
  • atmospheres which are suspected of being contaminated or oxygen deficient
328
Q

Will FD members participate in entry operations into clandestine drug labs?

A

No

329
Q

A confined space is defined as:

A
  • A space large enough for personnel to physically enter.
  • A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
  • An area with limited entry and egress.
330
Q

On a TRT call the First arriving TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT Company Officer should be
assigned __________.

A

Rescue sector

331
Q

Rescue Sector responsibilities include:

A

Assuming technical rescue operations control.
• Identifying hazards and critical factors.
• Developing a rescue plan and back-up plan.
• Communicating with and directing TRT resources assigned to Rescue Sector.
• Informing Command of conditions, actions, and needs during all phases of the
rescue operation.

332
Q

On a TRT call, a _________ should be established prior to the implementation of any rescue plan proposed by rescue sector. Conciderations for this position include:

A

Safety officer

  • One of the Regional Special Operations qualified Safety Officers.
  • A Special Operations qualified Battalion Chief and/or FIT.
  • Any experienced TRT Company Officer assigned to the incident.
333
Q

What two positions within the Command Team should be filled prior to
the implementation of any rescue plan proposed by Rescue Sector?

A

Safety officer

Technical advisor

334
Q

What is done during the size up of a TRT incident?

A

A. Secure a witness or responsible party to assist in gathering information to determine
exactly what happened. If no witnesses are present, Command may have to look for
clues on the scene to determine what happened.
B. Assess the immediate and potential hazards to the rescuers.
C. Isolate immediate hazard area, secure the scene, and deny entry for all non-rescue
personnel.
D. Establish communications with victim(s) and determine if non-entry retrieval can be
made.
E. Assess on-scene capabilities and determine the need for additional resources.

335
Q

What is done during the secondary assessment on a TRT call?

A

A. Secure the entry permit and any other information about the confined space
including diagrams showing entry and egress locations.
B. Determine what products may be stored in the confined space and conduct a
HazMat assessment.
C. Determine known hazards present in the confined space; atmospheric, mechanical,
electrical, etc.
D. Assess the structural stability of the confined space.

336
Q

During which phase of a TRT call is it determined whether the operation will be a rescue or a recovery?

A

Pre-entry operations

337
Q

A confined space permit is required if the space has one or more of the following
hazards:

A

Atmospheric hazards Configuration hazard

Engulfment Hazard Any other recognized hazard

338
Q

Pre-entry operations shall be conducted under the direction of _________.

A

Rescue sector

339
Q

Entry operations shall be conducted under the direction of _________.

A

Rescue sector

340
Q

During a confined space call, Atmospheric monitoring shall be done continuously and readings shall be
communicated to Rescue Sector at least every _____ minutes.

A

5

341
Q

What is the breathing apparatus of choice during a confined space call?

A

Supplied Air Breathing Apparatus (SABA)

SCBA is second best

342
Q

Rescuers __________
administer pure oxygen to a victim(s) in a confined space that has a potentially
flammable atmosphere

A

shall not

343
Q

Rescuers should not allow the victim between the rescuer and the point of egress
except in situations where ____________________.

A

it is necessary for one rescuer to pull the victim while

another rescuer pushes the victim.

344
Q

At a TRT call, A Command Team shall be assembled to include, at a minimum, a

A

Chief Officer and a Technical Advisor.

345
Q

Rescue teams, Lobby, Ventilation, Air monitoring, Shoring,
Cut teams, and any other such functional team operating in the hazard zone shall be
under the direction of ____________.

A

Rescue sector

346
Q

It shall be the policy of the Phoenix Fire Department

that ___________ shall be allowed into an unsafe trench or excavation

A

NO personnel

347
Q

For the purpose of emergency response, an excavation shall be defined by:

A

any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, of four feet or greater.

348
Q

Trench collapses generally occur due to

A

unstable soil conditions combined with improper or

inadequate shoring.

349
Q

During a trench rescue call, command shall begin an immediate sizeup
of the situation while ensuring that apparatus remains at least _______ from the
location of the trench failure.

A

50’

350
Q

Command shall announce that Level 1 staging should

take place at least __________ from the trench failure.

A

150 feet

351
Q

How far away is your hazard zone perimeter on a trench rescue call?

A

50’

352
Q

On a trench rescue call, all non essential civilian personnel shal be at least ________ from the collapse area

A

150’

353
Q

On a trench rescue call, all apparatus shall be staged ________ away.

A

150’

354
Q

On a trench rescue call, all non essential traffic and heavy equipment within ___________ shall be shut down.

A

300’

355
Q

When approaching a trench on a TRT call, how should you approach the trench?

A

From the ends

356
Q

During a trench rescue call, how many ladders should be placed into the trench and how far appart?

A

2 ladders

no more than 50’ appart

357
Q

What is considered a non-technical rescue?

A

rescues with angles of inclination less than 40º

358
Q

What is considered a technical rescue?

A

rescues with angles of inclination from 40º to 90º

359
Q

What is the NFPA Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Search & Rescue Incidents?

A

NFPA 1670

360
Q

What shall the First arriving company officer do on a mountain rescue call?

A

Assume Command and begin an immediate sizeup
of the situation while ascending the mountain with medical equipment to provide
treatment for any victim(s) in need of medical care.

361
Q

The __________ will have the final say on if and how the helicopter will be used
in the rescue operation.

A

Pilot in command

362
Q

When using a helo for a mountain rescue, in addition to the responsibilities described for rope rescue, Rescue Sector shall also be
responsible for the following:

A

A. Establish a Base LZ in an appropriate location.
• Assign this function to a TRT response unit.
B. Establish a Mountain LZ in designated mountain locations.
• Assign this function to TRT personnel on the mountain. Call for additional
resources if necessary.

363
Q

Rescue teams, Base LZ, Mountain LZ, and any other such

functional team operating on the mountain shall be under the direction of:

A

Rescue sector

364
Q

During a mountain rescue, rescuers shall be ______ and ______ when operating near an edge.

A

On rope

Tied in

365
Q

What is the minimum PPE for all personnel operating at or near a water rescue?

A

PFD, approved water rescue helmet and footwear.

366
Q

Hazards present at a water rescue call include, but are not limited to:

A
  • The volume of water.
  • The velocity of the water.
  • Debris in the water.
  • Hydraulics.
  • Depth of the water – rising / falling.
367
Q

Why should personnel be assigned upstream at a water rescue incident?

A

To advise of any debris coming their way

368
Q

Why should personnel be assigned downstream at a water rescue incident?

A

To use throw bags to capture rescue personnel or victoms

369
Q

What is the order of rescue operations that should be used in a water rescue?

A
Talk
Reach
Throw
Row 
Go 
Helo
370
Q

Rescue teams, Upstream, Downstream, and any other

such functional team operating near the water shall be under the direction of ___________.

A

Rescue sector

371
Q

On a structural collapse rescue operation it is important to spot apparatus outside of any __________.

A

potential secondary collapse zone.

372
Q

Hazards associated

with structural collapse include:

A
  • Secondary collapse.
  • Explosion and fire.
  • Broken gas and water lines.
  • Energized electrical lines.
  • Falling debris.
373
Q

During a structural collapse call, you shall remove all non essential civilian personnel at least ______ away from the _________.

A

150’

hazard zone parimeter

374
Q

A _____________ team should be established on structural collapse calls to assess the building and should consist of Technical Rescue Technician trained and knowledgeable in structural collapse shoring techniques, a structural engineer, and a
Hazardous Materials Technician.

A

Building triage team

375
Q

Who is in charge of looking for victims during a structural collapse?

A

A search team, directed by rescue sector

376
Q

During a structural collapse call _________ should be assigned to remove surface victims and the “walking wounded” from the surface of the collapse area.

A

First responders

377
Q

Once surface victims and the “walking wounded” have been removed from the surface of the collapse area, who takes over the rescue operation?

A

TRT units under rescue sector

378
Q

How large is the hazard zone around a tree rescue operation?

A

50’

379
Q

How far are you to keep all non-essential civilian personnel from the tree on a tree rescue call?

A

150’

380
Q

What are the 3 best options for a tree rescue?

A
  1. Self rescue
  2. Aerial platform ladder
  3. Ground ladders
  4. Climb the tree
381
Q

When using ground ladders in a tree rescue operation what is to be done with the ladders?

A

The first ladder should go under the victim; the second ladder should go along side and slightly above the victim. Both
ladders should be secured to the tree. A piece of webbing or small piece of rope works well for securing the ladder to the tree.

382
Q

What personnel are to climb the tree during a tree rescue operation?

A

Tree climbing with
approved equipment shall only be performed by trained TRT members. Rescue Sector shall assign two rescuers the task of climbing the tree and affecting the rescue. Consider that it may be necessary to remove fronds or branches from the tree to reach the victim and that tree climbing is a high-risk operation.

383
Q

PFDRDC has one (1) way Automatic Aid onto Luke Air Force Base (LAFB). CAD has been programmed to
select LAFB units for any calls that fall within a _________ radius of the base.

A

5 mile

384
Q

When formulating a recommendation for a Greater Alarm, ________________ is given to the units already
assigned to the incident

A

No consideration

385
Q

Can you go directly from a still assignment to a second alarm fire?

A

No, you have to first get the balance of a working 1st alarm fire, then strike out a second alarm.

386
Q

What are the codes for greater alarms?

A
BRUSH BRUSH ASSIGNMENT
 HAZMAT HAZARDOUS MATERIALS ASSIGNMENT
 HIRISE HIRISE ASSIGNMENT
 MED MEDICAL ASSIGNMENT
 REHAB REHAB ASSIGNMENT
 RESCUE RESCUE ASSIGNMENT
 STRUCT STRUCTURAL ASSIGNMENT
 STRMED STRUCTURAL/MED
387
Q

How many greater alarms does our system go to?

A

9

388
Q

Deployment will sound the ALL CALL tone and make a general announcement over Dispatch Channel 1 of the
following incidents:

A
  • Working First Alarm fires
  • Greater Alarms
  • At the discretion of the on-duty Deployment BC and/or Supervisor
389
Q

The need for move-up companies will be evaluated whenever:

A
  • A working fire is declared.
  • Three (3) or more units are committed to an incident in an outlying area.
  • Greater Alarms are dispatched.
  • Simultaneous working incidents occur in one area of the City.
  • Coverage in an area is compromised.
  • Two (2) or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 minutes.
390
Q

How long will dispatch wait for you to respond before sending a cover unit?

A

2 min

391
Q

After being on an AOI call for how long will dispatch put you on the incident?

A

10 min

392
Q

What is included in a follow up report?

A
  1. Any immediate safety concerns
  2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location)
  3. Disposition of resources (hold/add/return)
  4. IRIC - in place and identify
393
Q

What does the term working fire mean?

A

The term Working Fire indicates a situation that will require the commitment of all responding companies.

394
Q

When should your first progress report be given?

A

The first progress
report should be given after initial action has been implemented and should include the correct address and an
improved description of the building and fire conditions if the arrival report was incomplete

395
Q

When notified of a Working 3-1, Deployment will:

A
  1. Dispatch a Working Fire assignment (WF)
  2. Address the need for a Fire Investigator.
  3. Dispatch PD for traffic and crowd control.
  4. Dispatch appropriate gas and electric companies.
  5. Change the status to a Working Fire, which starts elapsed time notifications.
  6. Make move-ups to affected area
  7. Document progress reports, sectors, assignments, emergency traffic, and elapsed time notifications
    and append additional information provided from Deployment members in the Incident History.
396
Q

When notified of a Working First Alarm, Deployment will:

A
  1. Dispatch a Working Fire assignment (WF1A)
  2. Isolate tactical channel
  3. Dispatch a Fire Investigator
  4. Dispatch PD for traffic and crowd control
  5. Dispatch gas and electric companies
  6. Make move-ups to affected area
  7. Document progress reports, Sectors/Divisions/Groups, assignments, emergency traffic, and elapsed
    time notifications and append additional information provided from Deployment members in the Incident
    History.
  8. Be prepared to assign a TRO to monitor/work Staging and Safety Sectors/Divisions channels.
  9. Be prepared to dispatch further assistance.
  10. Be prepared to dispatch any special agencies or equipment when the need is indicated.
  11. Make notifications to pertinent personnel.
397
Q

What needs to happen at any fire at a school?

A

Any fire at a school facility requires the State Fire Marshall to be contacted. The on-duty State Fire Marshall
will use his/her discretion as to response.

398
Q

When 2nd alarm companies are responding, where does their radio traffic go to?

A

Staging sector, on the staging radio channel

399
Q

The following are the different incident status changes that need to be indicated:

A

Working Fire (WF), Working Haz Mat (WHZ), Working Technical Rescue (WTR), Code (CO), or Major Medical (MM). When one (1) of these incidents are identified by command, the TRO will enter a specific command.

400
Q

When the TRO enters the WF code or WHZ code, what now gets attached to the incident?

A

ETN every 5 minutes until the incident is placed under control

401
Q

Who is the only person that can release companies assigned to an incident?

A

Command

402
Q

The term _____________ will be utilized by any unit encountering an immediately perilous situation and will
receive the highest communications priority from Deployment, Command and all operating units.

A

‘Emergency Traffic’

403
Q

What is the code for ‘Need PD assistance immediately’ and ‘rape’?

A

906

261

404
Q

How will the activation of a Type 1 Emergency Deployment model through the alarm room change dispatches?

A
  1. All 3-1 response assignments will be modified to 2-1-1 (ENG/LAD/BC) response assignments.
  2. All First Alarm response assignments will be modified to 3-1-1 (ENG/LAD/BC) response assignments.
  3. All TRT2 response assignments will be modified to TRT1 response assignments.
  4. All HAZ2 response assignment will be modified to HAZ1 response assignments.
405
Q

What does activation of a type 2 emergency deployment model in the alarm room do?

A

Activation of a Type 2 Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief to call off-duty
personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus.

406
Q

What does activation of a type 3 emergency deployment model in the alarm room do?

A

Activation of a Type 3 Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief or designee to
call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.

407
Q

The objective of _____________ is to provide a standard system of initial placement for responding
apparatus, personnel, and equipment prior to assignment at tactical incidents.

A

Staging procedures

408
Q

Effective utilization of staging procedures will:

A

• Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene.
• Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies.
• Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to facilitate more
effective assignment by Command.
• Reduces radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident.
• Allow Command to formulate and implement a plan without undue confusion and pressure.
• Provides a resource pool from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure.

409
Q

Who shall announce their

approach to the scene so that Command may commit them to an assignment?

A

The first arriving ladder co

410
Q

How shall units stage that are responding to a fire or HM scene?

A

All other units will stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the scene until assigned by Command.

411
Q

Do utility trucks stage the same as everyone else?

A

All utility trucks will assume Level I staging. If Level II staging has been implemented, utility trucks will go to the Level II staging location.

412
Q

Does the first rescue on scene of a fire go directly to the scene? EMS scene?

A

No they go to level one staging on a fire.

On an EMS scene the first one goes directly to the scene.

413
Q

How far away should companies stage from an incident?

A

In there direction of travel, one block

414
Q

If staged companies observe critical tactical needs, what should they do?

A

advise Command of such critical conditions and their actions.

415
Q

When Command desires to maintain a reserve of resources on-scene, and
when the need to centralize resources is required, what should command implement?

A

Level 2 staging

416
Q

Who becomes the staging sector officer?

A

The first arriving CO or chief. Unless that CO is a ladder company, they will transfer it to an engine or BC

417
Q

The staging officer will also be responsible for the following functions:

A
  1. Locate an area of adequate size for all apparatus, including apparatus that may respond with
    additional alarms.
  2. Transmit the staging area location to Command and Dispatch, indicating access and routing as
    needed.
  3. Coordinate with the Police Department to block streets, intersections, and other access required for
    the staging area.
  4. Ensure that all apparatus is parked in an appropriate manner for quick exit.
  5. Maintain a log of companies available in the staging area and inventory all specialized equipment
    that might be required at the scene.
  6. Maintain crews in a ready state with their apparatus.
  7. Provide progress reports to Command indicating number and type of units available.
  8. Assume a position that is visible and accessible to incoming and staged companies. This will be
    accomplished by leaving the red lights operating on the staging officers apparatus and by wearing a sector vest.
  9. Assign staged companies to incident duty per Command’s direction.
418
Q

When assigned from staging, what does the CO need to do on their MCT?

A

Press On Scene

419
Q

What kind of dialogue needs to happen over the radio when companies are assigned from staging to the incident?

A

When directed by Command, the Staging Officer will verbally assign companies to report to specific sectors, telling them where and to whom to report. Staging will then advise Command of the specific unit assigned. Command will advise each sector officer the companies being assigned to the sector. The receiving Sector Officer may then communicate directly with the company by radio.

420
Q

During major incidents where a “Logistics” Section is implemented, the Staging Sector will be working
under the direction of the _____________.

A

Logistics Officer

421
Q

What kind of placement to you want to avoid on the FG?

A

Belly to butt

422
Q

The officer must regard apparatus on the fireground in two categories:

A

Apparatus that is working

Apparatus that is parked

423
Q

How far away should apparatus be placed from involved buildings, even with nothing showing?

A

30’

424
Q

How should ladder trucks be spotted on the FG?

A

When the aerial apparatus is not needed for upper level access or Rescue, spot apparatus in a position that would provide an effective position for elevated stream operation if the fire goes to a defensive mode

425
Q

IT SHALL BE THE POLICY OF THE REGIONAL FIRE DEPARTMENT TO POSITION APPARATUS
AT THE SCENE OF EMERGENCIES IN A MANNER THAT:

A

BEST PROTECTS THE WORK AREA AND PERSONNEL FROM VEHICLE TRAFFIC AND OTHER HAZARDS.

426
Q

How should apparatus be parked on MVA scenes?

A

Where possible, angle apparatus at 45 degrees away from curbside. This
will direct motorist around the scene

427
Q

For first arriving engine companies where a charged hoseline may be needed, angle the engine
so that the pump panel is:

A

“down stream,” on the opposite side of on-coming traffic

428
Q

When your apparatus is parked on a emergency scene at night, what needs to be done with your headlights?

A

For NIGHTTIME operations, turn OFF fire apparatus headlights. This will help reduce the
blinding effect to approaching vehicle traffic.

429
Q

What must be established for rescues responding to incidents on the freeway?

A

A safe loading area

430
Q

What is the max speed we can go when responding code 3?

A

10 MPH. Only with light traffic, good roads, good visibility and dry pavement.

431
Q

When going into oncoming traffic, how fast can we drive?

A

Max 20 MPH

432
Q

How fast can we drive code 3 through intersections?

A

Only as fast as the posted speed limit.

433
Q

Where you don’t have a backer available, what should be done?

A

the driver shall dismount and walk completely around apparatus to determine
if obstructions are present before backing.

434
Q

Are you allowed to pass slower responding emergency vehicles?

A

fire vehicles should avoid passing other emergency vehicles. If passing is necessary, permission must be obtained through radio communications, using the
communications order model.

435
Q

Where is the primary spotter located when backing a truck?

A

Off the left rear corner

436
Q

Who is responsible for compliance with safe backing procedures?

A

The CO

437
Q

When PD uses the term code 4, what do you need to do before committing your crew?

A

Verify the

parameters of PD’s “code 4” prior to commitment of personnel.

438
Q

“Actions in a calculated manner” on violent incidents, require the following:

A
  1. Incident Command established (where applicable, refer to M.P. 201.01)
  2. Scene secured or safe zones in place and confirmed by law enforcement
  3. Accountability system established (where applicable, refer to M.P. 201.03)
  4. Safety procedures in place
  5. Continuous risk assessment by all members
439
Q

Where should units stage on violent incidents?

A

The first-in company/unit should either stage in quarters or out of sight until the scene is confirmed safe

440
Q

If you are within 1 mile of a violent incident requiring staging, what can you do?

A

Stage in quarters, but on your truck ready to go

441
Q

When arriving on scene of a violent incident, who do you need to notify that you’re on scene?

A

Announce arrival on both FD and PD tactical channels

442
Q

Fire personnel _________ become directly involved in law enforcement assault operations. Fire personnel
_________ enter an area that is not secure and/or safe to enter.

A

will not

443
Q

What are the 3 aircraft emergencies?

A

Alert 1: Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties
Alert 2: Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties
Alert 3: Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability

444
Q

What do the 3 responses to the airport consist of?

A

Alert 1: Response consists of one (1) Engine Company.
Alert 2: Response consists of two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.), one (1) ladder company, and one (1)
brush truck and one (1) Battalion Chief.
Alert 3: Response consists of two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.), one (1) ladder company, one (1)
brush truck, one (1) utility truck, one (1) foam capability (1) Battalion Chief, and a Glendale shift
commander. Should the incident involve a larger aircraft, Command should request additional
resources.

445
Q

Where do companies stage at for alert 1 & 2 emergencies at the airport?

A

Alert 1 and Alert 2 incidents all companies shall respond to the Glendale Control Tower at gate #9 and
stage until the aircraft has landed. Gate #9 has preemption / opticom light and a Knox box lock is located
on the fence. The Glendale Control Tower has a Fire Department radio and can communicate with fire
department personnel on all hazard channels

446
Q

If you have to travel on the runway at the airport, what has to be done first?

A

If traveling on the runway is necessary, do so only after confirming with the Glendale Control Tower
that the runway has been closed to all aircraft.

447
Q

Where do companies respond to for Alert 3 incidents at the airport?

A

For Alert 3 incidents, all companies shall respond directly to the crash site.
If traveling on the runway is necessary, do so only after confirming with the Glendale Control Tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft.

448
Q

If you are canceled en-rout to an accident on the freeway, should you continue to the scene anyways?

A

If fire units are canceled en-route, they should not proceed into the scene unless re-dispatched. This creates unnecessary congestion and other traffic problems at the scene.

449
Q

Are fire units to travel code 3 on freeways?

A

Units responding to calls on the Freeway will respond Code 2 while on the Freeway mainline. However, alternating headlights and rear flashers may be used. Units should attempt to reach the scene in the direction of the reported incident unless otherwise instructed by D.P.S.

450
Q

What is the minimum response to a mutual aid request?

A

Minimum dispatch to a mutual aid request will be a 3-1 assignment, plus a rescue. The assignment will
include a battalion chief and one utility company, shift commander, safety officer, and a rehab
company.

451
Q

On mutual aid calls, who is to refill our SCBAs and transport sick or injured FFs?

A

Only automatic aid partners

452
Q

What do you always consider downed power lines?

A

Energized

453
Q

Power line tends to have _________ and may curl back or roll on itself when down.

A

“Reel Memory”

454
Q

Do we operate hose streams onto power lines?

A

Use caution when spraying water on or around energized electrical equipment. Hose streams
conduct current!

455
Q

Durring a transformer fire on a pole, do we spray water on the pole?

A

No, Use a fog spray at the base of the pole.
Your primary responsibility is to protect the surrounding area. Short bursts of water are preferred
methods to avoid being grounded. Never spray water onto electrical equipment until a utility rep has
confirmed that the equipment is de-energized or “dead.”

456
Q

What is electrical equipment classified as?

A
  • Energized
  • De-energized (cannot be 100% guaranteed)
  • Dead (confirmed by utility representatives after grounding the lines(s).
457
Q

Can you tell l the voltage of a power line by the size of the conductor?

A

No

458
Q

What are the hazards involved with PBCs in transformers?

A

PCB hazards: Smoke potentially fatal; avoid and contain pools of oil around transformers.

459
Q

In the event of multiple lines/poles down over a large area, what should be done?

A

Request additional resources

460
Q

What do we do when power lines are down on a vehicle?

A

• Request utility company to respond.
• Do not touch vehicle
• Have occupants remain inside the vehicle
• Place apparatus a safe distance away from down lines.
• If occupants must leave the vehicle (fire or other threat to life) instruct them to open the door, not
step-out! They should jump free of the vehicle without touching vehicle and ground at the same
time; they should walk away from the vehicle with very small steps.

461
Q

What do we do on SUB-STATION, TRANSFORMER, ELECTRICAL VAULT AND MANHOLE FIRES?

A

• Request utility company to respond.
• Clear the area.
• Be aware of explosion potential.
• Place apparatus in a safe location away from overhead power lines.
• Protect exposures.
• Do not make entry until the utility representative has verified that the above electrical equipment
has been de-energized. The utility representative may have to make entry to uninvolved sections to
safely de-energize the equipment.

462
Q

Do FFs gain experience at different rates?

A

Yes. Experience levels
depend upon time on the job, number, type and intensity of past incidents, and the quality of supervision and training that the fire fighter has gained.

463
Q

A “less experienced” fire fighter is defined as:

A

Probationary fire fighter.

B. Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties.

464
Q

What are the methods for determining a “newer” FFs experience?

A

Interview
Evaluate
Train
Follow-up

465
Q

Those fire fighters determined to be inexperienced will be directly supervised by:

A

the company officer or

a fire fighter with greater than two years total fire fighting experience.

466
Q

Can an experienced FF operate without direct supervision from the CO?

A
The experienced fire fighter, however, may be permitted, under appropriate and safe circumstances, to
function at an incident without direct supervision of a company officer.
467
Q

Where should heavy objects around the station be stored?

A

Around waist level, to prevent unnecessary lifting

468
Q

What shall be worn when using power saws?

A

Full protective clothing shall be worn by those members operating, and by those members in close proximity to the operation of power saws.
The face shield shall be in position to provide eye protection.

469
Q

How should rescue saws be carried?

A

Carry the rescue saw with the engine stopped, the blade frontward and muffler away from your body.

470
Q

How should the chainsaw be carried?

A

Always carry the chain saw with the engine stopped, the guide bar and saw chain to the rear and the
muffler away from your body.

471
Q

Power saw operations are safest when cutting on horizontal surfaces near ________ or on vertical surfaces near ______ level.

A

ground level

waist

472
Q

Operating a power saw above_______ height is extremely hazardous and should not be attempted as a
normal course of action.

A

chest

473
Q

Where is the Tank Farm located?

A

The Tank Farm, located southwest of the intersection of 51st Avenue and Van Buren Street and
Swissport Fueling at 4200 E. Airlane

474
Q

Where is the central manifold located at the Tank Farm?

A

The central manifold is located on 53rd Avenue in the Kinder Morgan Pipelines yard
in the middle of the Tank Farm area.

475
Q

What are the 3 different kind of storage tanks at the tank farm?

A

Floating Roof
Cone Roof
Cone / Floating Roof

476
Q

What is the greatest concern with a tank at the Tank Farm?

A

An overflow spill

477
Q

At the Tank Farm, what should be controlled first, the tank surface fire or spill fire?

A

Spill fire

478
Q

A floating roof that is more than 5 feet below the top of the tank shell constitutes a:

A

confined space

479
Q

The first unit arriving at the scene of an incident at the Tank Farm shall provide the following
information in the initial report:

A
  • Specific location - name of shipper involved
  • Type of incident - leak, spill, fire or no fire
  • Extent of spill, leak or fire
480
Q

Initial actions at the Tank Farm should be directed toward the tactical priorities listed below:.

A
  • Action should proceed cautiously
  • High level of safety
  • Avoid committing personnel to dangerous situations
481
Q

Fire Department will accept household hazardous waste

from private citizens when:

A

A private citizen brings unsolicited hazardous waste to the fire station; and the safety hazard is of such concern that the private citizen should not be turned away
Its not from a business
Its not recyclable

482
Q

What do we do when a citizen brings a hazardous waste to the station?

A

The material is not to be brought into the station or the bay, and it will be treated like a HazMat incident.

483
Q

What kind of household hazardous waste do we not accept?

A

We do not want to accept

hazardous wastes which come from commercial/business operations, or materials which do not pose a safety hazard.

484
Q

Who gets dispatched on an Africanized HB attack?

A

One engine, one ladder and a BC

485
Q

What is considered a safe distance from a swarm of bees?

A

150’

486
Q

What should be done to protect people being attacked by bees?

A

A quick attack 1-1/2” hose line shall be pulled and hooked to the apparatus AFFF foam system. 1-1/2
“ line shall be pumped at 200 psi at 95 gpm. The hose line shall be pulled by the firefighter at a quick pace towards the affected patient, with a full fog pattern on the nozzle – sweeping the air surrounding the firefighters and patient.

487
Q

What dates are Heat Stress Management directives implemented?

A

June 1st to September 30th of each year or at the discretion of the on-duty Shift Commander.

488
Q

During Heat Stress Management, Dispatch and Deployment shall provide an additional __________ and __________ to any working fire incidents.

A

ALS Engine Company

Rehab Unit

489
Q

Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing what during Heat Stress Management?

A

a. Cardiovascular activity (i.e., tennis, racquetball, running, etc.) shall be limited to a maximum of 30 minutes
b. A minimum of 64 ounces (2 quarts) of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift
c. Work/rest cycles, request a relief company and assignment to rehab after crew has consumed two bottles of air
d. Company activity and request additional resources as necessary

490
Q

During emergency operations the Incident Commander is responsible for the following during Heat Stress Management:

A

a. Consider the establishment of a Rehab Sector/Division/Group on all working fires
b. Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain in rehab for a minimum of 20 minutes)
c. Utilize the practice of first company in, first company out routine
d. Request additional resources as necessary

491
Q
What are the following Light Rail terms:
LRV:
OCS:
PTSS:
ETS:
OCC:
Pantograph:
A

light rail vehicle

overhead contact system

traction powered substation

emergency trip switch (located at TPSS)

operations control center

big mechanical arm that connects the LRV to the overhead wires

492
Q

What is the aproxomate stoping distance for the Light Rail at 35 MPH?

A

190 Ft

493
Q

What is the normal height of the OCS on the Light Rail system?

A

18’

494
Q

What must be done when responding to an accident with the Light Rail?

A
  • LVR operator will coordinate next stop location with OCC and alarm room
  • The alarm room will provide the address and location during dispatch
  • Have operator show you the key is out. This engages the brake and disables the throttle ensuring
    the LRV won’t move
  • As long as LRV is functioning normally and on the track there is no need to shut down power. This
    will allow the AC and light to continue functioning
  • Traffic safety as always
495
Q

If the LRV is derailed and the pantograph is still in contact with the OCS, or if the OCS has been compromised and is damaged and lines are down then crews ___________ approach the LRV or track.

A

should not

496
Q

When responding to a fire at a Light Rail TPPS, you should:

A

¾ Treat it like electrical substation/vault.
¾ Do Not Enter or put water on it until absolutely confirmed de-energized by APS or SRP.
¾ Beware of OCS.
¾ Consider pushing the ETS if it is safe to do so
¾ Call for hazmat if smoke is coming from within TPSS
¾ Be aware of the risk of hazardous smoke inhalation.

497
Q

A WMD / terrorist incident is concidered a _________.

A

Crime scene

498
Q

If fire is present and radiological agent suspected, evacuate to _______ feet. Check
downwind areas for contamination

A

2000

499
Q

IN THE CASE OF LETTER OR PACKAGE CONTAINING UNKNOWN SUBSTANCE:

A

¾ Quarantine persons in the immediate area of exposure (office or room) and
place them in a safe refuge area.
¾ Isolate the area that the substance or package is located; hold for Hazmat
Team to double bag and secure.
¾ Control Heating and Air Conditioning (HVAC) Systems by shutting down to
prevent spread of contamination.
DO NOT USE SPECIFIC NAME OF SUSPECTED AGENT OVER THE
RADIO; USE ONLY A BIOLOGICAL AGENT@ OR A UNKNOWN AGENT@.

500
Q

During a HAZARDOUS MATERIALS WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION event, the hot zone entry point should be a minimum of ________ Feet away from the source

A

300

501
Q

Emergency decon at HAZARDOUS MATERIALS WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION scenes serve these 3 functions:

A

¾ Marks victims for easy identification
¾ Removes product/particles from victims
¾ Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety

502
Q

Radioactive particles are easily removed from skin and clothing by:

A

Going through decon with water

503
Q

Treatment areas in HAZARDOUS MATERIALS WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION incidents will occur where?

A

Cold zones

504
Q

What are the 5 stations of decon when dealing with WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION
CHEMICAL, BIOLOGICAL, RADIOLOGICAL
PERSONNEL AND EQUIPMENT DECONTAMINATION?

A

Station #1 - Personal Belongings Drop/Victim Accountability

Station # 2 - Clothing Removal

Station # 3 - Shower

Station # 4 - Monitoring

Station # 5- Clothing issue/Redress

505
Q

Animals are treated as what, when evaluation the risk/gain profile?

A

Property

506
Q

When there is an animal that is threatening human safety, who do we contact?

A

Animal control

507
Q

Who are the two agencies we can call to deal with animals?

A

Humane Society
AZ Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
(both numbers are in CAD under “MDTINFO ANIMALS”)

508
Q

Can we transport injured animals to the vet hospital?

A

Yes. Locations in the MCT

509
Q

What is the NFPA standard for training fires?

A

1403

510
Q

What is the ratio of RIC teams to Fire attack teams on training fires?

A

1:1

511
Q

What is the span of control for interior operations on training fires?

A

1 CO / 2 recruits

512
Q

How many water sources do you need on a training fire?

A

two. minimum 95gpm

513
Q

What is the staging distance for FD companies on police EOD or SWAT ops?

A

1/4 mile