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CDC 3DX5X Edit Code 01 > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?

A

Physical

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2
Q

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

A

Logical Link Control and Media Access Control

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3
Q

At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?

A

Data Link

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4
Q

At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?

A

Network

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5
Q

At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

A

Presentation

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6
Q

What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user?

A

Application

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7
Q

What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?

A

Protocol

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8
Q

What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

A

Physical

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9
Q

What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?

A

Logical

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10
Q

What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

A

Bus

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11
Q

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

A

Star

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12
Q

What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

A

Hybrid

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13
Q

Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?

A

Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

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14
Q

What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

A

Address Resolution Protocol

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15
Q

What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?

A

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

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16
Q

What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol

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17
Q

What TCP/IP transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

A

Transmission Control Protocol

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18
Q

What application within TCP/IP is used to send and receive files via TCP?

A

File Transfer Protocol

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19
Q

What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?

A

Wide Area Network

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20
Q

What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public internet?

A

Virtual Private Network

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21
Q

Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies?

A

Port 8080

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22
Q

How many bits are in an IPv4 adddress?

A

32 bits

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23
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A

Dotted Decimal Notation

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24
Q

Using a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

A

Class A

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25
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

A

Class C

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26
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

A

Class D

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27
Q

What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

A

127.0.0.1

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28
Q

What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

A

Subnet Mask

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29
Q

What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

A

255.255.0.0

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30
Q

What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing

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31
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be mroe user-friendly?

A

Colon Hexadecimal Format

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32
Q 
What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
A.1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234
B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 127.0.0.1
A

A.1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234

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33
Q 
What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
A.1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234
B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 127.0.0.1
A

B. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678

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34
Q

What Unicast address scope oeprates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

A

Link-Local

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35
Q

What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

A

Site-Local

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36
Q

What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?

A

Aggregatable Global

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37
Q

The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

A

microprocessor

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38
Q

What two main components make up the central processing unit?

A

control unit and arithmetic logic unit

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39
Q

What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

A

nonvolatile

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40
Q

Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

A

twisted pair cable

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41
Q

An optical communications system is comprised of a

A

transmitter, cable and receiver

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42
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
A. Ease of installation
B. Lower cost
C. Safety
D. Mobility
A

C. Safety

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43
Q

The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

A

mobility

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44
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?

A

Direct Connections

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45
Q

Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside aprties gain access to a network?

A

Employee

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46
Q

What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?

A

Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers

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47
Q

How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once?

A

127

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48
Q

How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

A

63

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49
Q

What do you apply acress Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

A

Voltage

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50
Q

What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

A

Bridge

51
Q

What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?

A

80/20 rule

52
Q

This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

A

Translational

53
Q

What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

A

Store-and-forward

54
Q

What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

A

fragment-free

55
Q

What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

A

Layer 3

56
Q

What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

A

Routing tables

57
Q

Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

A

Border Gateway Protocol

58
Q

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

A

3

59
Q

What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

A

TSEC/KIV-7

60
Q

What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?

A

TSEC/KIV-19

61
Q

What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

A

AN/CYZ-10/DTD

62
Q

The classification of a fill device is

A

classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.

63
Q

A modem is a device that modulates

A

digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium

64
Q

Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

A

20 Hz to 20 kHz

65
Q

The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

A

adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment.

66
Q

Software is generally divided into

A

operating systems software and systems software

67
Q

Which one is not a category of the operating system’s task categories?

A

Troubleshoot interface

68
Q

The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer’s motherboard goes through a special program called a

A

driver

69
Q

The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the

A

kernel

70
Q

Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?

A

specific

71
Q

What are two anty-virus programs that the Air Force uses?

A

Norton and McAfee

72
Q

Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

A

workgroup

73
Q

Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

A

Enterprise Edition

74
Q

One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it?

A

Datacenter Edition

75
Q

What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

A

UNIX

76
Q

What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

A

Bourne Shell

77
Q

What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the “a” partition?

A

root

78
Q

Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

A

Relative

79
Q

This component of the Global Informatioin Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network

A

Warrior

80
Q

This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

A

Common policy and standards

81
Q

Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

A

The service that owns the installation

82
Q

Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fexed location thousands of miles from combat?

A

Deployed warfighter

83
Q

What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?

A

Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network

84
Q

How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?

A

Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET

85
Q

Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

A

KG-84

86
Q

What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?

A

DISN backbone

87
Q

What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?

A

Security and reliability

88
Q

What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network with in the Air Force?

A

Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems

89
Q

Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?

A

Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs.

90
Q

Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

A

Defense Information Systems Agency

91
Q

How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?

A

The DSN offers precedence access thresholding.

92
Q

What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

A

Flash Override

93
Q

What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

A

19.2 Kbps

94
Q

While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

A

liquid crystal display

95
Q

What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

A

to provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders

96
Q

The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

A

1 microsecond

97
Q

Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701?

A

OPSEC

98
Q

Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

A

OPSEC

99
Q

Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

A

Routine Use

100
Q

What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

A

AF Form 3227

101
Q

Guidance for posting information on Air Force websites is outlined in

A

AFI 33-129

102
Q

Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

A

AFI 31-501

103
Q

Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized acccess that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

A

sensitive but unclassified

104
Q

What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

A

Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

105
Q

What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

A

AFI 33-119

106
Q

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

A

SF 153

107
Q

Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

A

AF Form 1109

108
Q

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

A

incident

109
Q

Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

A

Air Force Communications Agency

110
Q

Final reports of a communication security incident are due

A

30 days after the initial report is issued

111
Q

The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

A

AFI 33-200

112
Q

Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

A

COMPUSEC

113
Q

What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

A

Emanation

114
Q

An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

A

Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions (TEMPEST)

115
Q

Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

A

INFOCON 5

116
Q

Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

A

INFOCON 4

117
Q

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

A

INFOCON 3

118
Q

Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

A

INFOCON 2

119
Q

At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

A

Tier 1

120
Q

At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

A

Tier 2

121
Q

An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

A

a full accreditation

122
Q

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

A

“B”

123
Q

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

A

“C”

124
Q

Which form would you use to properly label removable sorage media containing “confidential” information?

A

SF 708

CDC 3DX5X Edit Code 01 (2 decks)

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