Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five levels of critique?

A
  1. Individual
  2. Company level
  3. Battalion level
  4. Operations level
  5. Department level
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2
Q

What is an individual critique?

A

Conducted within the individual company by the company officer. May include other companies. Usually self initiated by the company officer. No documentation of the critique required.

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3
Q

What is a company level critique?

A

Post incident critique conducted on site, prior to departing the scene. Initiated by command or battalion chief. Informal and brief.

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4
Q

What is a battalion level critique?

A

Initiated and organized by the battalion chief. Scheduled assembly of the necessary companies as soon as possible after the incident. Structured critique format. Battalion chief completes critique analysis form and forwards to tactical services section.

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5
Q

What is an operations level critique?

A

 Conducted within the battalion by the battalion chief or shift commander. This may be a first alarm or multiple alarm incident that was uncomplicated and did not require a large number of resources or outside agencies. Standard critique packet will be filled out.

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6
Q

What is a department level critique?

A

Used for critiquing large scale or complex incidents that involved a large response of fire department resources and several outside agencies or incidents that were unusual or technically significant occurrences. Critique paperwork will be filled out

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7
Q

What is the turnaround time for submitting information for a critique preparation packet?

A

10 days

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8
Q

When does post incident preparation for a critique begin?

A

Immediately following a major incident.

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9
Q

How long should a critique presentation last?

A

1 to 1-1/2 hours maximum

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10
Q

What is crisis management?

A

Crisis management is often a situation that grows at a rate faster than the response rate to that situation.

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11
Q

What is the three deep deployment model for managing resources?

A

Working,
on deck,
recycled/staged

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the three deep deployment model?

A

To manage the strategic and tactical needs of an incident or sector, provide a reserve of resources to address fire fighter rescue if needed.

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13
Q

What is the easiest way to provide for automatic move ups and the support needs of resources for an expanding incident?

A

The greater alarm mechanism, piecemealing should be avoided

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14
Q

Size up is defined as?

A

An appraisal of the magnitude or dimensions of an event or incident

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15
Q

How many categories of fire ground factors are there?

A

Seven distinct categories

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16
Q

During an incident fire ground factor information is gathered utilizing what three forms of size up?

A

Visual, reconnaissance, preplanning and familiarity

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17
Q

What are the seven fire ground factors?

A
Building
Fire
Occupancy
Life hazard
Arrangement
Resources
Other
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18
Q

What are the three tactical objectives?

A

1 rescue
2 fire control
3 Property conservation

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19
Q

Rescue is defined as?

A

The activities required to protect occupants remove those who are threatened and to treat the injured.

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20
Q

Fire control is defined as?

A

The activities required to stop the forward progress of the fire and to bring the fire under control.

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21
Q

Property conservation is defined as?

A

The activities required to stop or reduce primary or secondary damage to property.

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22
Q

What is the benchmark for rescue/primary search?

A

All clear

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23
Q

What is the benchmark for fire control?

A

Under control

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24
Q

What is the benchmark for property conservation?

A

Loss stopped

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25
Q

The umbrella of service is made up of what three ongoing considerations?

A

Fire fighter safety, customer service, and loss control

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26
Q

Offensive or defensive strategies are based on the application of the risk management plan. What is the risk management plan?

A

1. We will risk our lives a lot, in a calculated manner, to save savable lives.

  1. We will risk our lives a little, in a calculated manner, to save savable property.
  2. We will not risk our lives at all for lives or property that are already lost.
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27
Q

Before making entry, when possible reset or darken down the fire using a straight stream applied to the ceiling of the fire compartment for how many seconds?

A

15 to 30 seconds of water applied in this manner will dramatically reduce temperatures and improve tenability throughout the occupancy.

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28
Q

When entering a Fire structure you want to be in What flow path?

A

Intake side of the flow path air, at your back as you make entry, do not get caught in the exhaust.

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29
Q

Command must consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus its speed, particularly as they affect?

A

Rescue activities
Level of risk to firefighters
Confinement efforts
Exposure protection

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30
Q

Fires cannot be considered under control until what are addressed?

A

The seven sides of the fire front, rear, both sides, top, bottom and interior.

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31
Q

The basic variables relating to attack operations involve?

A

Location/position of attack
Size of attack
Support functions

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32
Q

What is marginal strategy?

A

Marginal situation is defined as defensive conditions with a known rescue. A marginal situation has a very short window to affect a rescue or to discontinue the attempt and begin a defense of attack.

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33
Q

Command procedures are designed to?

A
  1. Fix responsibility on a certain individual.
  2. Ensure strong, direct, and visible command is established from onset.
  3. Establish effective incident organization defining activities and responsibilities.
  4. Process information for management, planning, and decision making.
  5. Orderly transfer of command to later arriving officers.
  6. Ensure a seamless transition from a type 5/4 incident to a type 3/2/1 (Nims)
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34
Q

 What is a company officers roles and responsibilities within the incident command system?

A

1. Occupy the position of IC

  1. Occupy the position of sector officer
  2. Manage task level activities and supervise firefighters
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35
Q

 The incident commander is responsible for the completion of tactical objectives. The tactical objectives are?

A

Rescue.
Fire control.
Property conservation.

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36
Q

What are the 8 functions of command?

A
  1. Assume and announce command
  2. Rapid eval-(size up)
  3.  initiate, maintain, control effective communications
  4. Steady, adequate, timely appropriate resources
  5. Incident strategy, IAP, assign companies
  6. Organize using sectors/divisions/groups to delegate geographic and function responsibility
  7. Review and revise strategy and IAP
  8. Continuity, transfer, and termination of command
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37
Q

The first six functions of command must be addressed when from the initial assumption of command?

A

Immediately

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38
Q

Use of what model greatly increases effectiveness of the command team?

A

The strategic decision making model or SDM

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39
Q

Who shall assume command on a multiple unit response incident?

A

The first fire department member or unit to arrive at the scene.

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40
Q

What is included in a follow up report?

A
  1. Any immediate safety concerns
  2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location)
  3. Disposition of resources, hold, add, return,
  4. Disposition of IRIC (only required if IRIC will not be present)
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41
Q

At most incidents , who will be the initial incident commander?

A

The first arriving company officer

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42
Q

What are the three command modes?

A
  1. Investigative mode - nothing showing
  2. Fast attack
  3. Command mode-stationary command post
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43
Q

What is investigative mode?

A

This is a mobile IC on a portable radio, moving around and evaluating conditions while looking for the incident problem. The company officer should go with the company to investigate while utilizing a portable radio to command the incident.

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44
Q

What is fast attack mode?

A

Visible working fires in houses or commercial occupancies. IC #1 arrives and his or her participation in the attack will make a positive difference in the outcome of search and rescue, fire control, and crew safety. They give an initial radio report and quickly assign an attack team coming in behind them.

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45
Q

Fast attack mobile command mode should not last more than a few minutes and end with one of the following?

A

1 Situation is stabilized
2 Command is transferred from the fast attack company officer to a later arriving command officer
3 If the situation is not stabilized the fast attack company officer must move to an exterior stationary command position and is now in the command mode.

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46
Q

What is command mode – stationary command post?

A

The first arriving incident commander will assume command and, from the very beginning stay out of the hazard zone in a stationary exterior command position. A tactical worksheet shall be initiated.

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47
Q

In command mode /stationary command post What can a company officer do with the rest of his crew?

A
  1. Move up an acting officer within the company
  2. Assign crew members to perform staff functions-assist command
  3. Assign company personnel to another company
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48
Q

If a chief officer and a company officer arrive at the same time who should assume command?

A

The chief officer

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49
Q

When should command be transferred to a unit that is not on scene?

A

Never

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50
Q

What if a later arriving company or command officer cannot locate or communicate with command?

A

After several radio attempts they will assume and announce their assumption of command and initiate whatever actions are necessary to confirm the safety of the missing crew

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51
Q

Command should consider adding a command officer to any sector with how many operating companies?

A

Three or more

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52
Q

Why do we add command officers to sector positions with three or more companies assigned?

A
  1. Improve safety
  2. Decrease span of control
  3. Improve communication
  4. Improve accountability
  5. Improve management and supervision of the sector
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53
Q

Who outranks the command officer on scene?

A

No one does they must follow the transfer of command procedure to assume command

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54
Q

What does a command team or incident advisory team consist of?

A

Incident commander, support Officer, senior advisor

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55
Q

The basic configuration of command includes what three levels?

A
  1. Strategic level
  2. Tactical level
  3. Task level
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56
Q

What is strategic level?

A

designed around the IC and command team, operating in the command mode, and working out of a stationary command post. The strategic level involves the activities necessary for the overall operational control and completion of the tactical objectives, regardless of the size or complexity of the incident.

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57
Q

What is tactical level?

A

Subdivision of the incident scene organization, a sector, division or a group responsibility. Sector officers are responsible for the tactical deployment of assigned resources, evaluation, and communication with the IC.

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58
Q

What is task level?

A

The level of the organization where the work is performed by assigned companies and other resources. Supervised by company officers. Task level activities accomplish tactical objectives.

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59
Q

Incident organization is the function of command that IC Uses to?

A

Track, communicate with, and account for resources in order to meet the tactical objectives. For fires this is rescue, fire control, property conservation, customer stabilization.

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60
Q

What is the maximum number of sectors that an IC can effectively manage? Span of control

A

The span of control is usually five sectors and should never exceed seven.

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61
Q

Sectors are assigned by their?

A

Geographic location or function

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62
Q

Divisions are assigned by their?

A

Geographic location

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63
Q

Groups are assigned by their?

A

Function

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64
Q

Branches are responsible for supervising?

A

Sectors, And should be given a separate radio channel

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65
Q

When establishing a sector, the IC will assign each sector officer?

A
  1. Tactical objectives
  2. A radio designation, (roof sector, east sector,)
  3. The identity of resources assigned to the sector
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66
Q

Span of control for offensive and defensive fires?

A

5 offensive

7 defensive

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67
Q

In multi story occupancies sectors will usually be indicated by?

A

Floor number, in some cases also divided by geographic area and floor number

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68
Q

When a command officer is assigned sector Responsibilities the fit/ISO becomes?

A

The sector safety officer

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69
Q

The primary function of a company officer working within a sector is to?

A

Direct the operations of their individual crews in performing assigned tasks

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70
Q

When working below grade on a multi story building what should the sector be named?

A

Subsector one, subsector two,

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71
Q

The branch level of the organization is designed to provide what between the sectors and command?

A

Coordination

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72
Q

Branch officers will normally be utilized at?

A

Very large scale incidents that involve two or more major components

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73
Q

Branch officers can be designated by?

A

Geographic location and or function

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74
Q

Sector officers will use what radio designation when contacting their branch officer?

A

They will call their branch officer command

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75
Q

When expanding into a major incident what are the four sections command can create?

A

Logistics section
Planning section
Operations section
Administrative section

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76
Q

What is (in transit) and what are some variables?

A

In transit is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order. Variables are distance between staging and the incident, size of incident perimeter, amount of equipment the company needs to assemble.

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77
Q

What is on deck?

A

A tactical function within a sector for layering of resources in forward positions.

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78
Q

Where should on deck companies be located?

A

Just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/sector.

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79
Q

What are the most likely assignments for an on deck company?

A
  1. RIC
  2. Reinforce a position
  3. Crew relief in a sector
  4. Any tactical position assigned by the IC
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80
Q

What is company recycling?

A

The timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignment.

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81
Q

If conditions permit a company work cycle could be how many air cylinders?

A

2-3 Air cylinders

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82
Q

Who is responsible for companies that are recycling?

A

The sector officer they are assigned to

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83
Q

What is the definition of a mayday?

A

Any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event that cannot be resolved by that individual within 30 seconds

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84
Q

What is the definition of mayday readiness for NFPA 1500 standard?

A

The ability to Don and doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing fire fighting gloves

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85
Q

What are the two components of Mayday readiness?

A

Prevention and response

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86
Q

What is the tactical benchmark for the endpoint of a May Day?

A

Mayday resolved

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87
Q

What must you have before declaring Mayday resolved?

A

The individual experiencing the mayday is removed from the hot zone and a PAR on all crews on the fire ground

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88
Q

What is the risk management plan?

A
  1. We will risk our lives a lot, in a calculated manner, to save savable lives.
  2. We will risk our lives a little, in a calculated manner, to save savable property.
  3. We will not risk our lives at all for lives or property that are already lost.
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89
Q

Company Officer task level accountability responsibilities.

A
  1. know location of crew
  2. Maintain current passport
  3. MCT roster
  4. Crew helmet ID tags
  5. Obtain PARS for crew and exit air supply
  6. Deliver and retrieve passport to accountability loc. in hot zone
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90
Q

Implementation of the passport system will occur at any incident that requires?

A

The use of an SCBA

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91
Q

Where will Ladder crews leave their passports?

A

When going to roof on their dash

When going interior closest engine to their point of entry

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92
Q

What is a personal accountability report (PAR)?

A

A rollcall for all personnel Working in the hot zone, all personnel are accounted for and have adequate exit air supply.

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93
Q

When are personal accountability reports required?

A
  • missing or trapped fire fighter
  • offensive to defensive strategy
  • Any sudden hazardous event
  • all clear
  • fire under control
  • 30 min elapsed time notification
  • Anytime command feels necessary
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94
Q

OSHA states that once firefighters begin the interior attack on an interior structural fire, the atmosphere is assumed to be IDLH and what applies?

A

Two in/2 out applies

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95
Q

What is the objective of 2 in 2 out?

A

To have fully equipped firefighters in position during the initial fire attack to react in the event of a mayday situation.

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96
Q

When will 2 in/ 2 out be established?

A

Anytime firefighters are on air inside a structure and no other units have arrived on scene.

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97
Q

When is 2 in/ 2 out not required?

A
  1. When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
  2. When the fire is in and incipient stage.
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98
Q

OSHA further defines and incipient stage fire as?

A

A fire which is in the initial or beginning stage in which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, class 2 stand pipe or small hose system without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus.

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99
Q

When are radio communications necessary in regards to 2/in 2 out?

A

Only when the standard is not met

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100
Q

 when is 2 in/ 2 out met , Other than the first unit on scene?

A

When the second arriving fire company arrives and is position on scene or in level one staging.

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101
Q

Operational definition of 2 in/ 2 out?

A

Temporary two person tactical reserve assigned at the outset of an incident to allow teams to enter an IDLH, or potential IDLH atmosphere.

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102
Q

One primary member of the 2in/2 out pair must be solely dedicated to?

A

Tracking interior personnel. This position requires appropriate PPE, a radio with the appropriate hazard zone capabilities and to work within the incident manage system. Their function is to react in a safe and effective manner based on their capabilities and ability to communicate in the event of a Mayday by firefighters making the initial fire attack.

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103
Q

Who are the members of 2 in /2 out on a four person crew?

A

Engineer and plug person

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104
Q

What is the purpose of the incident safety officer system?

A

To assign the responsibility for firefighters safety to an individual beginning with the first arriving company officer and the process by which this responsibility is transferred, expanded and continued as the incident grows up to and including termination of command.

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105
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to ensure all members of the crew are operating in a safe manner?

A

Company officer

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106
Q

What is an incident described as?

A

Any emergency situation that threatens life, safety, or property. Timely response and effective management of EMS, rescue, hazardous material release and fire control situations represent the most immediate priorities of the fire department.

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107
Q

IRIC definition Initial rapid intervention crew

A

temporary two person team assigned at the outset of a working fire to allow a two person team to enter the structure to perform primary search and rescue when information indicates a potential life hazard situation that can be resolved by rapid search and rescue. It

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108
Q

Rapid intervention crew RIC

A

Four person crew fully equipped on site, in a ready state, to immediately react and respond to rescue firefighters.

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109
Q

What is lobby sector used for?

A

To control access to a building or area during fires, hazardous materials incidents, rescue operations or any other situation where it is necessary to control and maintain accountability for the entry and exit of personnel.

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110
Q

What is the lobby sector officer responsible for?

A
  1. Identify entrance/exit
  2. Control all access points
  3. Identify suitable entrance/exit
  4. Maintain full accountability
  5. Record names, times and assignment of personnel
  6. Collect all accountability tags
  7. For high-rise lobby sector is the ground floor lobby
  8. Special ops define perimeter with hazard zone tape
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111
Q

What will lobby sector record?

A

Names, times, and assignments of all personnel entering and exiting the controlled area

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112
Q

Sheltering in place can be considered over evacuation under the following circumstances?

A
  1. Hazardous material identified as having low or moderate level of health risk
  2. The material has been released from its container and is dissipating
  3. Leaks can be controlled rapidly before evacuation can be completed
  4. Exposure to the product is expected to be short term and low health risk
  5. The public can be protected staying indoors
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113
Q

What are the three levels of evacuation?

A
  1. Site evacuation
  2. Intermediate evacuation
  3. Large scale evacuation
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114
Q

What is site evacuation?

A

A small number of citizens, workers at the site, people from adjacent occupancies, easily evacuated, evacuation time is short less than an hour or two

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115
Q

What is intermediate level evacuation?

A

Larger number of citizens and or area, affects offsite homes and businesses, fewer than 100 people, evacuation time is 2 to 4 hours or more,

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116
Q

What is large scale evacuation?

A

A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance, thousands of citizens could need evacuated, evacuees may be out of homes or businesses for many hours if not days,

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117
Q

What are engine company functions?

A
  1. Size up
  2. Assume command
  3. 360
  4. Search, rescue, treatment
  5. Forcible entry
  6. Stretch hose lines
  7. Operate nozzles
  8. Pump hose lines
  9. Loss control
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118
Q

What are ladder functions?

A
  1. Size up
  2. Assume command
  3. 360
  4. Search rescue treatment
  5. Coordinated horiz. and vert. vent
  6. Forcible entry
  7. Raise ground ladders
  8. Provide access/check extension
  9. Utility control
  10. Provide lighting
  11. Operate ladder pipes aerial
  12. Overhaul
  13. Extrication
  14. Loss control
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119
Q

In absence or delay of ladder company response command should assign who ladder functions?

A

Heavy rescue or engine on scene ex salvage and overhaul

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120
Q

structural fire ground operations will fall in one of two strategies?

A

Offensive or defensive

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121
Q

The Offensive or defensive strategies are based on the application of?

A

The risk management plan

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122
Q

Initial fire attack efforts should’ve directed towards a ?

A

Primary search

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123
Q

The Elements of an effective defensive strategy always include?

A
  1. Identify what is lost
  2. Write it off
  3. Protect exposures
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124
Q

Master streams are generally the most effective tactic to be Employed in defense operations what is a good starting GPM for master streams?

A

At least 750 GPM

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125
Q

When the exposure is severe, and water is limited, I’m the most effective tactic is to put water on?

A

The exposure

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126
Q

Basic rescue size up

A
  1. Number and location of victims
  2. Affect fire has on victims
  3. Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire
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127
Q

Command must make the basic rescue decision?

A

Do we remove the victims from the fire? Or do we remove the fire from the victims?

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128
Q

Rescue effort should be extended in the following order?

A
  1. Most severely threatened
  2. The largest number (groups)
  3. The remainder of the fire area
  4. The exposed areas
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129
Q

A primary search means companies have quickly gone through?

A

All affected areas and verify the removal and/or safety of all occupants

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130
Q

The incident commander shall direct a primary search in?

A

All involved and exposed occupancies which can be entered. The incident commander must structure initial operations around the completion of the primary search.

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131
Q

What is the critical factor in a primary search progress?

A

Time. Successful primary search operations must be extended quickly during initial fire stages

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132
Q

What is Critical factor in a secondary search?

A

Thoroughness rather than time, secondary search should be preferably completed by a different company than the primary search

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133
Q

Offensive strategy definition?

A

Interior attack and related support directed toward quickly conducting a search for victims and bringing the fire under control.

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134
Q

Defensive strategy definition

A

Exterior attack directed to first reduce fire extension and then bring the fire under control.

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135
Q

Command will consider the following when fire control is the principal objective?

A
  1. Fire extent
  2. Structural conditions
  3. Entry capability
  4. Ventilation profile
  5. Rescue profile of occupants
  6. Resources profile
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136
Q

Command must declare which strategy is being used as part of their on-scene report and at?

A

Elapsed time notifications

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137
Q

Caution must be used if exterior handline application is flowing water into a compartment where interior crews are operating because?

A

To prevent injuries to firefighters and structural collapse

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138
Q

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend?

A

2’ to 3’ Above the roof line for a visible means of egress

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139
Q

When laddering a building under fire conditions place ladders near?

A

Building corners, or firewalls as these are generally more stable in the event of a structural failure

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140
Q

When Operating either above or below ground level, establish?

A

At least two separate escape routes/preferably at opposite ends or diagonal corners of the building or separated by considerable distance

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141
Q

The hot zone will be defined as any areas that?

A

Requires an SCBA , charged hoseline, special Protective clothing, or in which personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure

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142
Q

All firefighters working in the hot zone shall be?

A

In crews of a minimum of two personnel, wearing appropriate PPE, with a radio on the correct tactical channel and must have an assigned task or function. The accountability system will be in place

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143
Q

What are examples of situation’s inside the hot zone?

A
  1. Entering a structure reported to be on fire
  2. Operating in close proximity to and involved structure during exterior operations
  3. Confined space
  4. Trench rescue
  5. Operating close to crane operations or close to swift water operations
  6. Building collapse
  7. Operating close to helicopter operations
  8. Extrication
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144
Q

The warm zone will be defined as?

A

The area just outside of the hot zone where firefighters start their operations on the fire ground. This is zone is where a fire fighter is not at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

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145
Q

Examples of warm zones

A
  1. Forward fire apparatus working on the incident, engines, ladders
  2. Laying lines
  3. Hazmat and TRT developing strategies and tactics
  4. Utility trucks
  5. Special equipment needs
  6. Accountability officer
  7. Fire investigations
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146
Q

The cold zone is defined as?

A

Outside of the warm zone where no one is at risk because of the incident.

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147
Q

What is located in the cold zone?

A
1 command
2 level one and two staging
3 support and staff personnel
4 canteen
5 Rehab
6 Media
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148
Q

The no entry zone is defined as?

A

The area at an incident that no person shall be permitted to enter due to an imminent hazard, dangerous condition, or the need to protect evidence.

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149
Q

When possible control zones should be identified with colored hazard tape NFPA 1521

A

Hot zone: red tape
Warm zone: yellow tape
Cold zone : Green tape
No entry zone: Red and white diagonal striped or Chevron

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150
Q

A 100’ Length of unprotected steel will expand?

A

9” When heated to 1100°F

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151
Q

In a typical fire involve building, what is the most likely candidate for failure

A

The roof

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152
Q

Signs of building collapse may include?

A
  1. Cracks in exterior walls
  2. Bulges in exterior walls
  3. Sounds of structural movement, creaking, groaning, snapping
  4. Smoke or water leaking through walls
  5. Water accumulation on a roof
  6. Windows, doors, floors and stairs out of level
  7. Flexible movement of any floor or roof where firefighters walk
    8, interior or exterior bearing walls or columns leaning, twisting or flexing
  8. Sagging or otherwise distorted rooflines
  9. Time of fire involvement
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153
Q

What construction features or conditions have been known to fail prematurely or contribute to early structural failure when affected by fire?

A
  1. Parapet walls
  2. Large open and supported areas, supermarkets, warehouses
  3. Large signs or marquees which may pull away from weakened walls
  4. Cantilevered canopies which usually depend on the roof for support and may collapse as the roof fails
  5. Ornamental or secondary front or side walls which may pull away and collapse
    6, Buildings with lightweight truss, bar joist or bow string truss roofs
  6. Building supported by unprotected metal beams or columns
  7. Buildings that are under construction, renovation or are otherwise not completed
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154
Q

After how many minutes of interior operations with heavy fire should structural conditions be evaluated and ready to evacuate.

A

10 to 15 minutes and should be fully prepared to withdraw interior crews and change to defensive strategy

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155
Q

When should interior fire fighting operations be abandoned?

A

When the extent of fire prohibits control, or the structure becomes unsafe to operate in

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156
Q

Emergency traffic should be initiated only when?

A

The hazard appears to be imminent or has just occurred

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157
Q

Who has the authority to utilize emergency traffic?

A

Any member when it is felt that a notable danger to personnel is apparent

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158
Q

The most survivable space in any structure or compartment is at?

A

The floor level

159
Q

Fire victims are typically killed through?

A

Thermal or toxic exposure

160
Q

Difference between search and rescue in residential versus commercial involving hose line?

A

Residential you can search off the hose line, commercial -firefighters should not be operating off the hose line

161
Q

Whenever a search is conducted that exposes search crews to fire conditions search team should?

A

Be protected with a charged hose line particularly above the fire floor

162
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to Rapidly deploy the TIC in a visibly diminished atmosphere or in an atmosphere that may suddenly become visibly diminished

A

Company officer/command

163
Q

The primary use of the TIC for the fire department is?

A

Conducting search/rescue and crew accountability tasks.

164
Q

Members should check the condition of their SCBA at?

A

The beginning of each shift, after each use, and at any other time it may be necessary to render the equipment in a ready state of condition.

165
Q

SCBA shall be used by all personnel operating?

A
  1. In a contaminated atmosphere
  2. In an atmosphere which may suddenly become contaminated
  3. In an atmosphere which is oxygen deficient
  4. In an atmosphere which is suspected of being contaminated or
    Oxygen deficient
166
Q

SCBA environments include personal operating in?

A
  1. Active fire area
  2. Directly above an active fire area
  3. In a potential explosion or fire area, including gas leaks and fuel spills
  4. Where products of combustion are visible in the atmosphere, including vehicle fires and dumpster fires
  5. Where invisible contaminants and or carcinogens are present, suspected to be present, or may be released without warning
  6. In any confined space which has not been tested to establish respiratory safety
  7. Engineers or apparatus operators in a contaminated atmosphere or one that may become contaminated
167
Q

How far can a firefighter travel in good conditions when the low air alarm activates?

A

Less than 150 feet until the air supply is exhausted

168
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to be aware of the amount in his or her SCBA and the rate of Air consumption?

A

The individual firefighters responsibility to manage their own air in order to leave the hazard zone before the low air alarm activates

169
Q

It is critical for firefighters to understand that the last 33% of the air supply in an SCBA is the?

A

Emergency reserve

170
Q

The initial 66% of air supply is the?

A

Working an exit air supply. This includes gaining access, working toward the tactical objectives and leaving the hazard zone.

171
Q

Emergency reserve remaining 33% air supply is to?

A

Be used to exit or survive until Assistance can arrive

172
Q

Firefighters are expected to know the air level of their SCBA prior to entering the hazard zone, during fire fighting activities, and upon leaving the hazard zone. The standard has been known as a?

A

Round trip ticket

173
Q

Data obtained from training exercises after the southwest supermarket fire indicates that it takes how many rescuers to remove one fire fighter in a Mayday situation?

A

12 Rescuers, the data also demonstrated that one out of every five rescuers will end up having a mayday situation

174
Q

One requirement for a fire fighter to be Mayday ready is that they are able to?

A

Effectively don, doff and manipulate the pass device and the emergency bypass on their SCBA valve with gloved hands per NFPA 1500

175
Q

The maximum distance a fire crew will enter any building is?

A

150 feet without additional support mechanisms put in place by command.

176
Q

When can a fire fighter not operate on a bow strung roof?

A

If there is any evidence that the fire has penetrated the attic, involves the trusses or structure in anyway.

177
Q

What must the initial roof sector officer report to command?

A
  1. Roof design and construction
  2. Decking material
  3. Structural conditions effects of fire
  4. Smoke/fire conditions
  5. Locations of firewalls and presence of skylight
  6. Location of heavy objects that are affected by fire
  7. Ventilation plan
178
Q

After a ventilation hole Is cut roof sector must advise command that holes are complete and conditions in the structure below the vent hole. This report should include?

A
  1. Presence or absence of fire in the attic
  2. If no fire then smoke conditions
  3. Any change in the roof conditions and/or structural stability
179
Q

Where should Resource sector be established?

A

Close proximity to the scene of operations, but outside of the defined fire ground/medical incident perimeter in a safe location.

180
Q

For high-rise operations, the Resource sector is normally established?

A

Five floors below the on deck floor or any other safe and contaminated environment below the fire.

181
Q

Rehab sector will provide a specific area where personnel will assemble to have?

A
  1. Assessment of vital signs
  2. Revitalization, rest, hydration, refreshments, and temperature regulation
  3. Medical evaluation and treatment of injuries, if needed
  4. Transportation for those requiring treatment at medical facilities
  5. Reassignment as needed
182
Q

The Rehab area boundaries will be defined and will have only one entry point. It will be divided into the following four functions?

A
  1. Assessment
  2. Hydration and replenishment
  3. Medical treatment and transport
  4. Documentation
  5. Reassignment
183
Q

Any member that has a pulse rate greater than _____will be tracked and recorded through rehab sector?

184
Q

If a members pulse in rehab is greater than 120 bpm after how many minutes of rest will they then be given ALS treatment?

A

20 minutes to get there heart rate below 120 BPM

185
Q

To be reassigned after rehab sector what must a members vital signs be?

A
  1. Heart rate below 100 BPM and no irregular beats
  2. Systolic BP below 160
  3. Diastolic BP below 100
  4. Respirations 12 to 20 per minute
  5. No abnormal neurological findings no complaints
186
Q

Pulse ox symmetry in rehab must be above what percentage to return to duty?

187
Q

Body temperature in Rehab must be below what temperature to return to duty?

A

99.5 Fahrenheit

188
Q

You ventilate a building principally for two reasons?

A
  1. To prevent mushrooming

2. To gain and maintain entry

189
Q

Where should you vertically ventilate?

A

As close to directly over the fire as possible

190
Q

What is the best operating position to determine if a building requires ventilation?

A

Interior sector

191
Q

Operate roof hand lines only for the purpose of?

A

Protecting personnel and external exposures unless command orders a coordinated roof attack

192
Q

If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, command should consider this a?

A

Marginal situation

193
Q

What does an attack team consist of?

A

Two engines and one ladder

194
Q

In the Phoenix region, a high-rise building is defined as?

A

Six elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or higher

195
Q

We can expect that are working high-rise fire will Necessitate the deployment of over how many firefighters?

A

100 firefighters

196
Q

Consider what as a minimum assignment in a working high-rise fire?

A

Third alarm

197
Q

In a high-rise fire with visible smoke and or fire will elevators be used for rescue?

A

No not with visible smoke or fire

198
Q

Evacuation stairwell definition

A

Stairwell dedicated to the removal of occupants from the building

199
Q

Fire attack stairwell definition

A

Stairwell dedicated to the fire attack operations with stand pipe connections and roof access, *stairwells with stand pipe connections without roof access that are closest to the fire may be preferable, but require special attention to ventilation techniques

200
Q

The fire floor of a high-rise building will have a minimum of how many companies?

A

Three companies

201
Q

On a high rise fire where will on deck or staging area for companies be?

A

Two floors below the actual fire floor (to allow the floor directly below the fire to be used to layout attack lines)

202
Q

Where should companies on the first 2 alarms proceed directly to in a high-rise fire

A

They should proceed directly to the lobby sector

203
Q

In a Working high-rise fire a minimum of how many companies should be maintained in the lobby sector?

A

A first alarm should be staged in the lobby sector in a working high-rise fire

204
Q

Where is Resource sector located on a high-rise fire?

A

Well below the on deck floor to decrease the likelihood of becoming contaminated with smoke

205
Q

Elevators are typically not initially used on a high-rise if the fire floor is____ or less

A

10th floor

206
Q

In a high-rise fire what size should the backup line be as well as stairwell protection line?

A

2 1/2 smoothbore, fire attack can be done with inch and three-quarter or 2 1/2

207
Q

In high-rise fires what is the minimum amount of spare air cylinders each fire fighter should bring?

A

At least one spare per crewmember initially

208
Q

When using stairs to ascend in a high-rise fire air should be checked at every___ Floors?

A

Every five floors, managed by the captain

209
Q

The determination of fire origin and cause is necessary for all?

A

Fire incidents

210
Q

When is a fire investigation conducted?

A

After fire control and salvage but before overhaul begins.

211
Q

What document is a company officer responsible for completing if a fire investigator is not needed?

A

A FIR or Field Incident Report

212
Q

What is the minimum number of people for a RIC crew at a Training Fire?

A

At least three members one being a company officer

213
Q

Are fire department members allowed to operate on the roof During active fire conditions in the fire building in a Training Fire?

214
Q

In a Training Fire a company will consist of no more than how many individuals?

A

No more than four individuals and supervised by a company officer

215
Q

Can personnel act as a victim during a live training fire?

216
Q

What is the required fire equipment and companies at a training fire?

A
  1. Two separate sources of hydrant water supply, two engine companies minimum
  2. Water supply shall be test flowed for a minimum of 500 GPM
  3. All fire attack hose lines shall be supplied by one pumper, the RIC unit back up hose lines shall be supplied by a second pumper, hose lines minimum of 95 GPM
217
Q

What is the minimum number of points of egress at training fires?

A

At least two

218
Q

Wild land air attack definition

A

Aerial reconnaissance aircraft which can provide information from above the fire by an observer

219
Q

What is an air tanker wildland

A

Fixed wing aircraft capable of transport and delivery of fire retardant solutions

220
Q

What is a VLAT

A

Very large air tanker DC 10, 737

221
Q

What is a buoy wall tank

A

Large 1500 to 4000 gallon collapsible water tank carried on some water tenders

222
Q

What is a Bambi bucket

A

Small 65 to 95 gallon bucket externally attached to helicopters for water drops on brushfires

223
Q

In wildland what is a division

A

Similar to a sector a geographic work assignment example East division

224
Q

In wildland what is a group

A

Similar to a sector, a functional work assignment example water supply group

225
Q

What does LCES stand for in wild land

A

Lookouts, communications, escape routes, safety zones, a basic safety measure that must be in place at all times for fire fighter safety

226
Q

What is a red flag warning?

A

When fire danger is very high or extreme. Sustained winds greater than 20 mph and relative humidity less than 20%, thunderstorms, after April long drive., Abrupt change in wind speed and direction

227
Q

What is a SEAT in Wildland

A

Single engine air tanker similar to a crop duster about 800 gallons of fire retardant

228
Q

What three factors have a critical effect on fire behavior of a wild land fire?

A

Weather, fuel, and topography

229
Q

During a normal day, local winds will change 180° near midday and usually become gusty during the afternoon. Morning winds are normally?

A

East to west and afternoon winds are usually west to east. Fire spread will usually slow down in the evening as humidity increases 25% and increase during the mid morning hours as the humidity decreases 15%

230
Q

Does Fire burn faster uphill or downhill in relation to topography at a wildland fire?

A

Fire burns faster uphill than downhill

231
Q

What should be considered for a dip site/LZ/Heli spots location

A
  1. Approach and departure routes must be clear 300 feet in all directions
  2. Terrain should be flat and paved if possible
  3. Dust control must be in place
  4. Water supply location is there a hydrant close by or is the water tender going to be utilized for a shuttle operation or to supply a buoy wall
  5. Travel time to and from the fire line along with travel routes
  6. Wind direction in a plan for potential wind shifts affecting approach and departure
232
Q

What is the minimum PPE on a car fire

A

Full PPE breathing air from an SCBA, Captain’s must wear full PPE in order to directly supervise crews

233
Q

What is the minimum size hose line on a car fire

A

1 1/2 inch hand line

234
Q

Where should apparatus be placed on a car fire

A

Upwind an uphill of the incident if possible to afford protection from hazardous liquids and vapors and reduces smoke in the work area

235
Q

What should one member of an attack team on a car fire carry with them

A

Forcible entry tools

236
Q

During a car fire bumper assembly’s have been known to travel?

237
Q

When disconnecting a battery cable from a car which should you disconnect first?

A

Ground cable first

238
Q

What are the two types of aircraft crashes

A
  1. High impact

2. Low impact

239
Q

Protect the aircraft fuselage From direct flame impingement sense fire can burn through a fuselage within?

A

60 seconds

240
Q

Deploy an attack line to the aircraft interior, without inhibiting passenger egress. Fire intensity will require the use of what hand lines utilizing fog patterns?

A

1 and 3/4 or 2 inch hand lines

241
Q

Provide interior ventilation as soon as possible inside the aircraft. Fatalities in survivable aircraft crashes are usually due to?

A

Smoke inhalation

242
Q

Aircraft Use caution when cutting around high-pressure hydraulic lines that operate at what psi?

A

Around 3000 psi

243
Q

To gain access into a fuselage, use a wing area or a platform ladder truck to work from. So optimum place to cut is around?

A

Windows and roof area. Hydraulic powered tools and pry bars do not work well on aircraft metals due to lack of solid supports to work against

244
Q

Examples of high piled outside combustible storage fires?

A

Pallet storage, metal recycling, tire storage, paper stock, mulching operations, wrecking yards, lumberyards, large unfinished construction projects, stick cities, any other fire incident involving outside combustible storage

245
Q

At a high piled outside combustible storage fire the tactical objectives are?

A
  1. Fire fighter safety
  2. Exposure protection
  3. Environmental protection including public health
  4. Fire control
246
Q

On a high piled outside combustible storage fire actions in a calculated manner require the following?

A
  1. Command established
  2. Proper PPE
  3. Accountability system established
  4. Safety procedures in place
  5. Continuous risk assessment by all members
247
Q

Offensive hi piled outside combustible storage fire incident action plan:

A

Quick aggressive rescue, quick aggressive fire attack to stop the fire spread early, providing for firefighters safety, and a continuous water supply throughout. Once rescue operations are completed, pessimistic evaluation and forecasting of risk versus gain will be applied to offensive operations to save property.

248
Q

Defensive hi piled outside combustible storage fire incident action plan:

A

Provide for firefighters safety, identify main body of fire and paths for extension through pessimistic forecasting, address exposures including public health, address environmental protection, and extinguish fire using master streams, if appropriate.

249
Q

The average passenger car tire holds how many gallons of oil?

A

2.5 gallons of oil

250
Q

When exposed to extreme heat, the tires reach a state of combustion where volumes of what oil can be produced?

A

Pyrolytic oil, this could turn the tire pile into a running oil fire

251
Q

Exposure hazards associated with the smoke plume, water runoff, and soil includes what for tire fires?

A

Volatile organic chemicals
Polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons
Carbon monoxide
Heavy metals

252
Q

What will be dispatched if it is determined that a tire pile is on fire?

A

A hazardous three and one assignment

253
Q

What are the three stages of combustion for a tire fire?

A
  1. Incipient
  2. Free burning
  3. Smoldering
254
Q

Incipient stage tire fire looks like?

A

Immediately separating the burning tire from the rest of the pile and or applying water and foam would eliminate the threat to the remaining tires

255
Q

What is the free burning stage during tire fires

A

Fire spreads quickly and there is a dramatic increase in smoke and heat. Use of water in this stage of a tire fire could increase the products of incomplete combustion like carbon monoxide and particulate matter. The cooled tires may continue to pyrolyze, producing large quantities of oil.

256
Q

What is the smoldering stage during tire fires

A

A crust may form over the pile while internal temperatures reach about 2000°F. The smoldering stage has begun.

257
Q

Initial size up for a tire fire

A
  1. Personnel safety
  2. Public health
  3. Environmental impact
  4. Threatened exposures
  5. Extent of fire
  6. Need for additional resources
258
Q

Successful options for fighting a tire fire are?

A
  1. Burn it
  2. Bury it
  3. Drown it
259
Q

When should multi person mass casualty procedures be implemented?

A

EMS incidence requiring the commitment of a two and one medical or greater

260
Q

A multi patient incident is defined as any incident with fewer than?

A

25 Patients

261
Q

A mass casualty incident is defined as any incident involving?

A

25 to 100 Patients

262
Q

A disaster is defined as any incidents involving more than

A

100 patients 

263
Q

The EMS tactical objectives to be completed during any multi patient/mass casualty incident include?

A
  1. Completion of a triage report

2. All immediates transported

264
Q

When possible, patient should be treated and transported in the following priority order

A
  1. Immediate
  2. Delayed patients upgraded to immediate
  3. Delayed
  4. Minor
265
Q

Triage tags should be used anytime there are?

A

Three or more immediate patients or more than 10 patients,

266
Q

Treatment sectors can be clearly identified using colored salvage covers what colors

A

Red for immediate, yellow for delayed, green for minor

267
Q

Level 2 staging should be implemented for _______ or greater medical incidents?

A

First alarm medical or greater

268
Q

What are the basic sectors on multi patient incidents?

A

Triage, extrication, treatment, and transportation also possibly staging sector on larger incidents

269
Q

When should medical supply sector be established?

A

On third alarm medical or greater incidents

270
Q

What two branches may be required at a mass casualty incident?

A

Medical branch and transportation branch

271
Q

The purpose of triage is to?

A

Categorize patients based on the severity of their injuries, prioritize their need for treatment and transportation and stabilize life-threatening injuries before additional resources arrive on scene.

272
Q

At smaller incidents up to 10 patients triage may be handled by?

A

The first arriving company officer and his or her crew

273
Q

At larger incidents more than 10 patients the first arriving company officer should?

A

Assume command and assign triage to the next arriving fire company

274
Q

As a general rule patients should be triage and tagged before?

A

Movement to a treatment area. Immediates are moved first followed by delayed

275
Q

Triage should be completed using the?

A

Arizona triage system

276
Q

Extrication is responsible for?

A

Removing and delivering patients to the treatment area. Extrication will assist triage with any patient treatment that is necessary prior to disentanglement

277
Q

All non-ambulatory patient should be moved on?

A

Backboards, with cervical spine precautions if indicated.

278
Q

A reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per______ Victims?

279
Q

Companies may be assigned as______ to assist in movement of patients on backboards

A

Litter bearers

280
Q

The objective of the treatment sector is to?

A

Rapidly treat and transport all patients

281
Q

In treatment sector one salvage cover provides ample working room for up to how many patients?

A

Three patients

282
Q

Of all the sectors, the treatment sector requires the heaviest commitment of personnel what is the ratio of companies per patient?

A

During major incidents, one company per four patients should be the initial objective one rescuer per patient.

283
Q

What team should be located at the entry point of treatment sector?

A

A triage team should be located at the entrance as new patients are tagged, the treatment sector officer should forward a “triage update “to command to include these newly discovered patients.

284
Q

The treatment sector must cause ______ And packaging of patients with an emphasis on rapid transport.

A

Aggressive treatment

285
Q

When transportation is immediately available___________ Of the patient becomes a priority over extended on-site treatment.

A

Transportation

286
Q

The only time extended treatment should be considered is?

A

When immediate transportation is not available

287
Q

Transportation sector is responsible for?

A

Arranging all of the transportation needs for a multiple patient incident and for allocating those patients to appropriate medical facilities

288
Q

In transportation sector rescues should be staged offsite and brought into the loading area as needed, no more than?

A

Two at a time

289
Q

In transportation sector rescues should have a separate entry and exit points into the loading area to eliminate the need to?

A

Back ambulances

290
Q

Transportation sector should advise hospitals of?

A

The location and type of incident, along with the triage report including the number of patients, nature and severity of their injuries

291
Q

In general, it is preferred to leapfrog minor patients to?

A

Distant hospitals to minimize transport times for delayed patients to closer facilities

292
Q

How many ambulances should treatment sector have in the loading area at all times?

A

Two rescues ready

293
Q

What should transportation sector report to dispatch?

A

Transportation should advise the dispatch center on the estimated time of arrival and patient status, the dispatch center will relay this information to the appropriate medical facility As patients leave the scene

294
Q

When making door to door evacuations:

A

Be in uniform

Wear your helmet

295
Q

What is added to natural gas to help indicate its presence And will result in an order like rotten eggs?

296
Q

Natural gas methane is extremely flammable, it is ______ than air , Color less and odorless.

A

Natural gas is lighter than air

297
Q

The flammable range of natural gas is?

A

4% LEL lower explosive limit to 15% upper explosive limit UEL

298
Q

The presence of natural gas and it’s flammable range can be a valuated with the use of a?

A

Combustible gas indicator

299
Q

Some personnel safety measures for natural gas emergencies are

A
  1. Full PPE with SCBA face piece donned and breathing air,
  2. A hot zone shall be established and define by Fireline tape
  3. Personnel working in the hot zone shall be protected by a hose line
  4. Number of exposed personnel will be kept to a minimum while still assuring crew accountability minimum of two personnel
300
Q

For a natural gas leak in a single-family dwelling and the source of the leak can be identified it would be appropriate to?

A

Secure the gas to the appliance or meter if needed wait for the arrival of hazmat crews if a source of the leak cannot be located

301
Q

For natural gas leaks in a commercial occupancy or other large occupancy refrain from?

A

Refrain from attempting to secure the natural gas unless there is an immediate life hazard. Securing the gas main is often difficult to accomplish due to the size and complexity of the occupancy.

302
Q

For natural gas leaks in an apartment complex the best practice is to?

A

It is best to try and determine the source of the leak. If you can isolate the leak to an appliance, secure the source example incoming gas line at a dryer or stove.

303
Q

Gas leak situation’s within the building where the source of the leak is unknown or uncontrolled the gas supply should?

A

The gas supply should be shut off at the meter. This should only be done in coordination with on scene has met units

304
Q

For natural gas leaks the hot zone should include any areas where gas detection equipment identifies readings of?

A

10% of the LEL 0.4% gas or greater.

305
Q

Deployment will dispatch the appropriate assignment and upgrade the response as necessary based on information received up to a?

A

Up to a working first alarm until command is established upon the arrival of the first unit

306
Q

CAD has been programmed to select Luke Air Force Base units for any call that falls within?

A

5 mile radius of the base

307
Q

What does a balance of assignment take into consideration?

A

A balance of assignment takes into consideration the units already dispatch to meet the requirements of the balance

308
Q

What does a greater alarm not take into consideration?

A

A greater alarm does not take into consideration the units already dispatched or on scene

309
Q

All companies are either in and__________or___________ Status at all times?

A

Available or unavailable

310
Q

What is the exception to being available or unavailable In terms of unit status?

A

The exception is during AOI calls as you are dispatched on a call but also available

311
Q

Units changing their status to unavailable should report to deployment by?

A

Radio on tactical channel 2 or telephone the reason and length of time they will be unavailable. When becoming available again units are responsible to report the status change to deployment.

312
Q

Why is it important that company officers contact deployment prior to putting their unit unavailable?

A

Deployment will determine if any priority needs exist which may require the unit to stay in service

313
Q

The need for move up companies will be evaluated whenever?

A
  1. A working fire is declared
  2. Three or more units are committed to an incident in an outlying area
  3. Greater alarms are dispatched
  4. Simultaneous working incidents occur in one area of the city
  5. Coverage in an area is compromised
  6. Two or more adjacent first two areas will be uncovered for more than 30 minutes
314
Q

Acknowledgment, if deployment does not receive an acknowledgment within_____ The TRO will request acknowledgment by radio on all channels and via MCT

A

Units must acknowledge response within one minute

315
Q

What will happen if no acknowledgment is received on the MCT within two minutes of dispatch

A

Deployment will send a cover assignment and continue to attempt to make contact with the original company if unable they will be placed unavailable and the appropriate battalion chief notified

316
Q

If a unit is responding longer than______ Minutes on and AOI call, CAD will automatically place the unit in the unavailable on incident status

A

10 Minutes

317
Q

The initial incident commander shall remain in command until?

A
  1. Command is transferred
  2. Incident is stabilized
  3. Command is terminated
318
Q

A follow up report can include?

A
  1. any immediate safety concerns
  2. Accountability started initial location
  3. Disposition of resources hold/add/return
  4. IRIC in place and identify
319
Q

The term________ _________ Indicates a situation that will require the commitment of all responding companies. This report advises deployment that the companies will be engaged in tactical activities and will be held at the scene for an extended period of time.

A

Working fire

320
Q

Change in the status to a working fire, which starts______. _______ Notifications

A

Elapsed time notifications

321
Q

Units arriving in level one staging will report their_______ and __________ From the scene on the assigned tactical channel.

A

Identity and direction

322
Q

Typically staging will be assigned to channel?

323
Q

For working fire and working hazmat incidents, elapsed time notifications will be every?

A

Every five minutes Until the situation is placed under control

324
Q

If the level of carbon monoxide is below 50 ppm, units may operate without?

A

SCBA protection

325
Q

Level one staging is automatically in effect for all incidents with_______ Responding?

A

Three or more companies

326
Q

After the first engine and ladder are on scene all other units will stage?

A

In their direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the scene until assigned by command. A position providing a maximum of possible tactical options regarding access, direction of travel, water supply, should be selected

327
Q

Level 2 staging will be implemented for all?

A

(2nd alarm) Greater alarm incidents, level 2 staging should be considered for first alarm medical or hazardous materials incidents

328
Q

Due to limited number of ladder companies, a ladder officer will transfer responsibility for staging to?

A

The first arriving engine company officer

329
Q

Apparatus________ Should regulate placement

330
Q

Avoid_________ Placement on the fire ground

A

Belly to butt

331
Q

The officer must regard apparatus on the fire ground and two categories

A

Apparatus that is working

Apparatus that is parked

332
Q

Apparatus should be placed at least___ft Away from involve buildings, even with nothing showing

A

At least 30 feet

333
Q

Initial arriving pumpers should be placed in____ Positions

A

Key positions. These positions should offer maximum fire attack access to the fire area and be supplied with large diameter pumped supply lines as quickly as possible. Subsequent arriving companies can operate the hose lines from this apparatus. Place the key companies first before access is blocked by later Arriving units

334
Q

It shall be the policy of the Regional Fire Department to position apparatus at the scene of emergencies in a manner that?

A

Best protects the work area and personnel from vehicle traffic and other hazards

335
Q

All personnel should understand and appreciate the high-risk that firefighters are exposed to when operating in or near moving vehicle traffic. We should always operate from A?

A

Defensive posture

336
Q

What are the safety benchmarks for operating in or near vehicle traffic

A
  1. Never trust the traffic
  2. Engage in proper protective parking
  3. Always wear high visibility reflective vests
  4. Reduce motorist vision impairment
  5. Use traffic cones and flares
337
Q

When possible, angle apparatus at?

A

45° away from curbside

338
Q

For nighttime operations, turn off apparatus?

A

Headlights. this will help to reduce the blinding effect to approaching vehicle traffic leaving by code 3 lights on

339
Q

Always place and retrieve cones while_____ Traffic

A

Facing traffic

340
Q

What are the general recommendations for the start placement of traffic cones/flares.

A

25 mph - 65 feet
40mph - 105ft
60mph - 160 ft

341
Q

Under less than favorable conditions, the posted speed limit is?

A

The absolute maximum permissible

342
Q

When emergency vehicles must  Travel in center or oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible speed shall be?

343
Q

When approaching and crossing an intersection with the right of way, driver shall not exceed?

A

The posted speed limit

344
Q

When emergency vehicles must use center or oncoming lanes to approach controlled intersections, they must?

A

Come to a complete stop before proceeding the intersection, including occasions when the emergency vehicle has green traffic lights

345
Q

When the first unit reports on scene with nothing showing or an equivalent report, any additional unit shall continue?

A

Unit shall continue code 3, but not exceed the posted speed limit the first arrive in unit will advise additional units to respond code 2 whenever appropriate

346
Q

What is the maximum over the posted speed limit while driving code 3

A

10 mph over the posted speed limit in favorable conditions

347
Q

When spotting or backing a fire department apparatus at least one member should be placed at?

A

Left rear of the vehicle

348
Q

Rare spotters will remain a reasonably safe distance of?

A

10 to 15 feet behind the apparatus and be in a position to visualize the drivers eyes and the side mirror

349
Q

Who is responsible for compliance with backing procedures and safe backing of the apparatus

A

The company officer

350
Q

Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories?

A

Alert 1
Alert 2
Alert 3

351
Q

What is an alert 1 aircraft emergency

A

Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties example a minor oil leak one engine out on a three or four engine commercial aircraft or one engine out on a two engine general aviation aircraft, fire warning lights a safe landing is expected

352
Q

What is an alert 2 aircraft emergency

A

Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties, a positive indication of fire on board the aircraft, faulty landing gear, no hydraulic pressure, engine failure on a two engine large aircraft, a difficult or a crash landing may be expected

353
Q

What is an alert 3 aircraft emergency

A

Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability the aircraft will crash, or the pilot has indicated that the landing gear will not work, and therefore they will have to crash land on the airport

354
Q

An alert 1 aircraft emergency will consist of?

A

One engine company

355
Q

An alert 2 Aircraft emergency response will consist of?

A

2 Engine companies
1 ladder company
1 brush truck
1 Battalion chief

356
Q

what is an alert 3 Aircraft emergency response consist of?

A
2 engines
1 ladder
1 brush truck
1 utility truck
1 foam capability
1 Battalion chief
1 Shift commander
357
Q

Alert 1 & 2 Incidents all company shall respond to the Glendale control tower at gate?

A

Gate #9 and stage until the aircraft has landed

358
Q

For an Alert 3 Aircraft emergency Where should crews respond to?

A

Crews should respond directly to the crash site if traveling on the runway do so only after confirming with the Glendale control tower that the runway has been closed to all aircraft

359
Q

For aircraft emergencies companies responding should request through Phoenix fire dispatch center?

A

Number of passengers, amount of fuel on aircraft, type of aircraft if possible

360
Q

Emergency vehicles will respond how on the freeway

A

Code 2 Hazards and flashing headlights are optional

361
Q

For freeway emergencies when the first fire department is to arrive, the incident commander must announce?

A

The command vehicles identity and the command vehicles location to the accident

362
Q

On multiple unit freeway responses the first unit approaching or entering the freeway within a mile of the incident report its identity, location and direction. Other units approaching will then stage?

A

Level 1 preferably near an on-ramp to avoid premature commitment to the main line or access frontage.

363
Q

What is unified command

A

Command post consisting of more than one agency

364
Q

Who’s responsibility for power lines/energized electrical equipment is it to maintain a level of safety until relieved by another fire company police agency or utility company?

A

The company officer

365
Q

Electricity will travel any conductive path again as it seeks a?

366
Q

Step potential is more severe when the ground is?

367
Q

What is step potential And what are some indications?

A

Indications are tingling sensation in the feet, step potential is where there are areas of voltage difference from a downed powerline and you complete the circuit and are the source of the ground

368
Q

Powerlines tend to have_______ And want to curl back on themselves or roll up when down?

A

Reel memory

369
Q

Electrical equipment is classified as?

A

Energized
De-energized
Dead

370
Q

The standard decision making model includes?

A
  1. Size up an identification of critical factors
  2. Risk management
  3. Strategy
  4. Incident action plan
  5. Tactical objectives
  6. Review and revision
371
Q

For violent incidents the key tactical positions are?

A
  1. Triage
  2. Extrication
  3. Treatment
  4. Transportation
372
Q

What is the best form of information gathering for violent incidents?

A

Direct communications with PD. PD has the responsibility of hazard mitigation on these incidents fire/EMS resources are support resources

373
Q

In what perimeter or zones do fire and EMS resources operate on a violent incident?

A

Fire/EMS resources shall never operate within the inner perimeter or hot zone. The area between the inner and outer perimeter is defined as the warm zone. Fire/EMS can operate in the warm zone to triage, extricate, and treat patients within a well coordinated and communicated plan with PD

374
Q

And offensive strategy at violent incident means?

A

Entering a well defined warm zone to treat or extricate the injured based on the clearly communicated and coordinated information from PD as to the location of the injured.

375
Q

Add violent incidents police incident command will establish what perimeters

A

Inner and outer perimeter’s

376
Q

At violent incidents a defensive strategy is defined by?

A

Taking a posture outside of the hazard zone to stage until the scene is deemed safe or to establish a triage, treatment and transportation system ready to accept patients that have been removed from the hot zone

377
Q

The most effective actions when firefighters find themselves in an unpredicted, possibly violence situation is?

A

Run, hide, fight

378
Q

A less experienced fire fighter is defined as?

A
  1. Probationary firefighter

2. Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties

379
Q

How will a company officer determine the level of experience of the firefighters assigned to his company

A
  1. Interview
  2. Evaluate
  3. Training
  4. Follow up
380
Q

Those firefighters determined to be inexperienced will be?

A

Directly supervised by the company officer or a firefighter with greater than two years total firefighter experience

381
Q

Direct supervision of an inexperienced fire fighter will be required at the moment the fire fighter enters an area that exposes the fire fighter to potential injury or death examples include?

A
  1. Building with smoke or fire
  2. Potential collapse area
  3. Potential explosion or flash fire
  4. Approaching a hazmat incident
  5. Entering an area where hazard line tape is present
  6. Any other area that could cause injury or death to the fire fighter
382
Q

For Africanized honeybees how far should you stay from the colony

A

About 150 feet from the colony do not overcommit

383
Q

What is dispatched on AHB attack

A

1 ALS engine
1 ladder
1 BC

384
Q

Once on scene of an AHB attack how many crewmembers shell Don structural firefighting PPE including SCBA?

385
Q

For Africanized honeybee attacks white line should be polled and what pattern is used on the nozzle

A

Inch and three-quarter hose line fog pattern

386
Q

How far from an Africanized honey bee swarm should a patient be moved

387
Q

What form can be used for Africanized honeybee attacks

A

Class A foam may be used at the highest concentration possible, Class B foams should not be used

388
Q

When is heat Stress management implemented?

A

June 1 to September 30 or at the discretion of the on duty shift commander

389
Q

What will dispatch and deployment provide in addition during heat stress management

A

An additional ALS engine company to any working fire, a rehab unit will be dispatched on all first alarm and greater incidents

390
Q

During heat stress management cardiovascular activity shall be limited to

A

A maximum of 30 minutes

391
Q

During heat stress management a minimum of how much fluid should be consumed during a 24 hour shift

A

64 ounces or two quarts

392
Q

During heat stress management work/rest cycles Should be considered after how many air bottles

A

After two air bottles have been consumed crew should be assigned to rehab

393
Q

How long shall companies remain in rehab during heat stress management

A

They should remain for a minimum of 20 minutes, utilize the practice of first company and first company out