Volume 1 Unit 1,2,3,4 (CDC) Flashcards
1
Q
What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36-2101, classifying Military Personnel (Officers and enlisted)
A
Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty
2
Q
Materiel management specialists are NOT responsible for…
A
directing policy and guidance for career field
3
Q
The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and?
A
Perspectives
4
Q
To be eligible for the logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a Technical Sergeant or Master Sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service?
A
15
5
Q
What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)
A
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)
6
Q
Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
A
Effect One: Enterprise View
7
Q
In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) Integrated Processes, which is NOT a resource?
A
Technology
8
Q
Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies?
A
General Services Administration (GSA)
9
Q
Local manufacture is a term that describes an item?
A
Fabricated by a maintenance activity on base
10
Q
Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?
A
Centralized repair facility (CRF)
11
Q
Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?
A
Decentralized materiel support personnel (DMS)
12
Q
Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back ordered parts in accordance with AFI 21-101?
A
Decentralized materiel support (DMS) personnel
13
Q
Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process?
A
AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118
14
Q
What best describes supply class 1 items?
A
Subsistence
15
Q
Which class of supply includes weapons?
A
Class II (2)
16
Q
Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
A
Class V (5)
17
Q
What best describes class 3 items?
A
Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL)
18
Q
What best describes class VI items?
A
Personal demand items
19
Q
Which class of supply consists of major end items?
A
Class VII (7)
20
Q
Which class of supply consists of medical materiel?
A
Class VIII (8)
21
Q
What best describes supply Class X (10) items?
A
Materiel to support nonmilitary programs
22
Q
What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?
A
Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR)
23
Q
Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities?
A
Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC)
24
Q
The Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission is to?
A
Sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America
25
How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force installation and Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)
Six
26
Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
Miscellaneous file maintenance
27
Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply system?
Daily
28
Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements and procedures for materiel managers and others who work within the supply system?
4140.01, DOD supply Chain Materiel Management Procedures
29
The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management Standards, does not pertain to which functional area?
Safety
30
What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices?
Defense Logistics Management Standards
31
Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase using the find tool for research?
Enter
32
What two entities make up the national stock number (NSN)
Federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN
33
How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system?
Four
34
Which code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information?
Record Retrieval
35
Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?
Four
36
What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry?
Data element names
37
What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
R
38
Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as?
One year or more
39
Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the national stock number (NSN) and transaction date?
Stock Number
40
Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?
Flight Chief
41
Which chapter in the Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23-123, Materiel Management Handbook, Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system's rejects created during processing?
Chapter Seven
42
what letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily identifies management notices?
MGT
43
Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
D818
44
What listing shows all forced-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program?
D20
45
Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reasons only?
Flight Chief
46
Who, in coordinate with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
Terminal security monitors
47
Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to process a controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC)?
Logistics manager
48
The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?
15th
49
The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the?
Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)
50
When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer's funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, which type of fund is created?
Revolving fund
51
Which is NOT a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)?
Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF)
52
Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group-Supply (CSAG-S)
Wholesale-managed items
53
The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and system that is NOT compliant with?
Standards
54
Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program?
Quality assurance (QA)
55
Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits?
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership
56
When the materiel management system does NOT process or update transactions as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem?
AF form 1815, Difficulty Report (DIREP) worksheet
57
Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management-retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports?
Quality assurance (QA)
58
A category III (3) difficulty report does NOT stop computer system processing and is corrected?
In the next scheduled release
59
Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?
Trend analysis
60
Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?
Special studies
61
Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management?
Training
62
What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account's effectiveness?
Quality assurance (QA)
63
What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts?
Analysis program
64
Which is NOT an example of a source document?
Reports
65
Which is NOT required when comparing information between the document control record (DCR) and source document?
Nomenclature
66
How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for classified property?
Semiannually
67
What type of material management source documents are NOT placed in a permanent document file?
Source documents with file indicator D
68
How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel management automated tracking system?
75 months
69
When does a documents become delinquent after processing the information from the document control record (DCR) document?
6th calendar day
70
How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss delinquent status?
Daily
71
Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)?
Consolidated Transaction (M19)
72
Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
Daily Document Control (D04)
73
The consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?
D04 and D06
74
What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?
Ensure an item has been shipped
75
All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail?
Shipment-suspense or shipped not credited (SNC)
76
What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?
SSC
77
Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
R40
78
Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction?
1AM
79
The materiel management system uses which issue request code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?
Transaction Identification Code (TRIC)
80
What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control?
Demand Code
81
Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using either a?
Stock number or part number
82
What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF for 2005 for a part number request?
P
83
What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and documenting data on the AF form 2005
Review management notices for availability
84
What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies further actions are required?
Management notice
85
Which management notice is the result of issue processing and reflect issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?
I004
86
An I007 management notice is produced when a?
Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control
87
What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request when the customer requests a backorder?
M
88
Which base-wide organization uses the integrated maintenance data system central database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel management system?
Maintenance
89
What materiel management system output notifies the integrated maintenance data system central database (IMDS CDB) transaction error, the image is?
returned to IMDS CDB
89
What AirForce Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for mission capable (MICAP) management?
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA)
90
When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the?
LRS
91
What response is sent to the materiel management computer system when a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of supply when assets are immediately available?
Positive Status
92
Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request?
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level
93
Who will the aircrafts parts store (APS) or customer support liaison contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists?
Maintenance production superintendant
94
What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a mission capability (MICAP) requirement?
Status
95
What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9) code identifies the reason for terminating a MICAP condition?
Delete
96
What is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated?
Due-In
97
What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting?
Upgrade
98
What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed?
MICAP report (B9)
99
Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination?
90
100
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the repair cycle process?
TIN
101
Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with new status and location for a due-in from maintenance? (DIFM) detail?
Maintenance
102
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record?
DFM
103
Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?
D23
104
What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the maintenance activities?
Ensure maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items
105
Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair be returned to the LRS?
4 duty days
105
How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on the item record?
Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4
106
What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order (TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function?
DD form 1574 (yellow tag)
107
What is entered in the remarks block of the DD for 1574 (yellow tag)?
Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number
108
What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron (LRS)/materiel management activity?
Action taken code
109
Which action take code indicates an item is condemned?
9
110
What will the materiel management information technology system scan for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in as serviceable?
Due-outs
111
Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded after a "notice to stock" document is received?
Appropriate storage facility
112
What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an asset that cannot be repaired at base level?
Shipment Document
113
Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule?
Calendar or hourly
114
Who appoints the time change manager?
Materiel management flight chief or equivalent
115
Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock level and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by?
Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC)
116
Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS) to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record?
Turnaround
117
Where does supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions?
Air Force Technical order (AFTO) Form 350, reparable item processing tag
118
Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process?
I012
119
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset has been received?
ISU
120
Who maintains ownership of supply point asset until they are used?
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS)
121
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete supply point details?
FSP
122
Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation?
Q13
123
What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation?
ISU
124
Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements?
MAJCOMs
125
Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving, storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipments requests?
Bases
126
Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, Equpment, and supplies necessary to establish and support aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location?
Initial Flightline
127
Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent squadrons deployed to an austere base?
Follow-on flightline
128
Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?
60
129
Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares package (RSP) to specific unit/bases?
Major Command (MAJCOM)
130
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations?
1EB
131
In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP) data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)?
XVF
132
What programs performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation?
S05
133
What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets?
Care of supplies in storage (COSIS)
134
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users?
MSI
135
What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed?
D
136
The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability rests with the host and the?
Gaining major command (MAJCOM)
137
What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability?
1WD
138
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer assets between mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) and war reserve materiel (WRM) detail records?
1KT
139
What action taken code is used when transferring multiple quanities from a mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM) detail record?
S and M
140
Which current listings must be obtained prior to shipping our readiness spares package (RSP) assets?
R43 and/or R52
141
What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?
Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM)
142
What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)?
Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOFAC)
143
Which listing provides a management product for special spares authorizations, assets, and products?
Special Spares Report (R34)
144
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and?
Equitability
145
Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a materiel management unit type code (UTC)
JFB
146
What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls?
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC) Reporting Tool (ART)
147
What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?
Unit Type Code (UTC)
148
What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the department of defense?
Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)
149
What section stores small arms for mobility use?
Individual protective equpment element
150
What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?
Serial
151
What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to being issued a weapon?
AF Form 522
152
Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all weapon movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location?
Accountable officer (AO) or commander
153
At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried?
Annually
154
Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets?
Individual protective equipment personnel
155
Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment?
B
156
Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment?
C
157
What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and manage shipment discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?
Mobility dashboards
158
shelf-life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by?
Contract/lot number
159
What is used to determine bulk stock replenishments and are the basis for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements?
Mobility Shopping list
160
Which function is Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to view and update customer information and manage assets currently in possession by customers?
Issue Items
161
Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers?
Mobility data Query
162
What information is entered when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?
Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI)
163
What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management?
Expired service life dates
