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7-Level > Volume 1. Cyberspace Management and Operations > Flashcards

Volume 1. Cyberspace Management and Operations Flashcards

1
Q

(001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

a. Computer Systems Programming.
b. Cyber Systems Operations.
c. Cyber Transport Systems.
d. Cyber Surety.

A

a. Computer Systems Programming.

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2
Q

(001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

a. Minimum rank of SSgt.
b. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees.
c. Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements.
d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

A

d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

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3
Q

(001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
a. Communications Focal Point.
b. Unit Deployment Monitor.
c. Enterprise Service Desk.
d. Quality Assurance.

A

a. Communications Focal Point.

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4
Q

(001) What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?

a. TO 00–5–15.
b. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.
c. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
d. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.

A

b. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.

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5
Q

(002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

a. at major command functional managers.
b. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
c. at the Air Force Personnel Center.
d. with career field managers.

A

b. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

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6
Q

(002) Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

a. Program Element Code (PEC).
b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
c. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
d. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

A

b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

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7
Q

(002) Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

a. Program Element Code (PEC).
b. Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
c. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
d. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

A

a. Program Element Code (PEC).

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8
Q

(003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

a. Construct career paths.
b. Manage skill-level training requirements.
c. Establish requirements for entry into the career field.
d. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

A

d. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

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9
Q

(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

a. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).
b. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
c. Career Field Manager (CFM).
d. SAF/CIO A6.

A

b. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

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10
Q

(003) Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

a. Segment 1.
b. Segment 2.
c. Segment 3.
d. Segment 4.

A

b. Segment 2.

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11
Q

(003) Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

a. Draft and sign minutes.
b. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).
c. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.
d. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

A

d. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

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12
Q

(003) Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

a. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
b. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.
c. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
d. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

A

b. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

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13
Q

(003) What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

a. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).
b. Quality Training Package (QTP).
c. Subject Matter Experts (SME).
d. Job Quality Standards (JQS).

A

a. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

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14
Q

(004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

a. Remedy.
b. Situational Report (SITREP).
c. Telephone Management System (TMS).
d. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

A

d. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

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15
Q

(004) Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

a. Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
c. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).
d. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

A

b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

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16
Q

(004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

a. Communications Focal Point.
b. Flight Commander/Chief.
c. Production Controller.
d. Commander.

A

b. Flight Commander/Chief.

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17
Q

(005) Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?

a. Master Task List.
b. Job Qualification Standard.
c. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
d. Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.

A

b. Job Qualification Standard.

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18
Q

(005) Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

A

d. 120.

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19
Q

(006) Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

a. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
b. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
c. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
d. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

A

d. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

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20
Q

(006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

A

c. 6.

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21
Q

(006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

a. AF Form 55.
b. AF Form 971.
c. AF Form 623A.
d. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

A

a. AF Form 55.

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22
Q

(006) Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

a. Job Safety Training (JST).
b. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
c. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
d. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

A

a. Job Safety Training (JST).

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23
Q

(007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
b. Resources required to manage and use TOs.
c. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
d. Training to manage and use TOs.

A

a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

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24
Q

(007) Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on

a. AFTO Form 673.
b. AFTO Form 22.
c. AF Form 673.
d. AF Form 22.

A

b. AFTO Form 22.

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25
Q

(007) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

a. Library Custodian.
b. Flight commander/chief.
c. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
d. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

A

b. Flight commander/chief.

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26
Q

(007) Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

a. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
b. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
c. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

A

b. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

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27
Q

(007) Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

a. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
b. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
c. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

A

d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

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28
Q

(007) Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?

a. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).
b. Commander/director responsible for the guidance.
c. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
d. Publications Manager.

A

c. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.

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29
Q

(007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

a. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
c. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
d. Military only.

A

c. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

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30
Q

(008) The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title

a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 37.
d. 50.

A

a. 10.

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31
Q

(008) Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title

a. 15.
b. 18.
c. 32.
d. 37.

A

c. 32.

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32
Q

(008) Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

a. Wing Commander.
b. Numbered Air Force Commander.
c. Communications Squadron Commander.
d. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

A

a. Wing Commander.

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33
Q

(008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

a. misuse of position.
b. a covered relationships.
c. non-public information.
d. personal conflict of interest.

A

a. misuse of position.

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34
Q

(009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

a. Military Personnel (MILPERS).
b. Military Construction (MILCON).
c. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
d. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

A

b. Military Construction (MILCON).

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35
Q

(009) What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

a. $100,000.
b. $250,000.
c. $750,000.
d. $1,000,000.

A

c. $750,000.

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36
Q

(009) In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)

a. 10–401.
b. 33–360.
c. 38–101.
d. 64–117.

A

d. 64–117.

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37
Q

(009) At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?

a. Approval Official (AO).
b. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
c. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).
d. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

A

b. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

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38
Q

(009) Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

a. Making authorized transactions.
b. Reconciling transactions.
c. Logging transactions.
d. Funds accountability.

A

d. Funds accountability.

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39
Q

(009) Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.
b. Joint Publication 1–02.
c. Joint Publication 1–03.
d. AFI 10–401.

A

d. AFI 10–401.

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40
Q

(010) Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?

a. Air Force Chief of Staff.
b. Secretary of the Air Force.
c. Selected major command Command Chiefs.
d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

A

a. Air Force Chief of Staff.

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41
Q

(010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

a. Wing.
b. Group.
c. Squadron.
d. major command.

A

a. Wing.

42
Q

(010) Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction

a. 36–2604.
b. 36–2803.
c. 36–2805.
d. 36–2845.

A

d. 36–2845.

43
Q

(010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

a. 1 October - 30 September.
b. 1 January - 31 December.
c. 1 April - 31 March.
d. 1 July - 30 June.

A

a. 1 October - 30 September.

44
Q

(011) The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

a. 53.
b. 63.
c. 73.
d. 83.

A

b. 63.

45
Q

(011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

a. Monitor.
b. Scanner.
c. Keyboard.
d. Graphics card.

A

c. Keyboard.

46
Q

(012) A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

a. At least 5.
b. No more than 10.
c. No more than 20.
d. 20 or more.

A

c. No more than 20.

47
Q

(012) Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

a. Simple.
b. Relative.
c. Positive.
d. Absolute.

A

c. Positive.

48
Q

(012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

a. Norton Utilities.
b. Acrobat Reader.
c. Virus Scan.
d. WinZip.

A

a. Norton Utilities.

49
Q

(013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

a. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
c. Distance Vector and Link State.
d. RS–232 and RS–530.

A

b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

50
Q

(013) Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

a. Network.
b. Physical.
c. Data Link.
d. Transport.

A

c. Data Link.

51
Q

(013) Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

a. Network.
b. Physical.
c. Data Link.
d. Transport.

A

a. Network.

52
Q

(013) Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?

a. Network.
b. Physical.
c. Data Link.
d. Transport.

A

d. Transport.

53
Q

(014) What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

a. Defense Intelligence Agency.
b. Defense Information Systems Agency.
c. Defense Information Systems Network.
d. Department of Defense Information Networks.

A

b. Defense Information Systems Agency.

54
Q

(014) Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

a. The customer.
b. Security Manager.
c. National Security Agency.
d. Communications Squadron.

A

a. The customer.

55
Q

(015) What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.
b. Classful and Connectionless Oriented.
c. Connectionless Oriented and Classless.
d. Classful and Classless.

A

a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

56
Q

(015) In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

a. Authorization.
b. Connection establishment.
c. Establishment of a clear channel.
d. End-to-end connectivity between host applications.

A

b. Connection establishment.

57
Q

(015) What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

a. Data receive message.
b. Sliding Window.
c. Buffer.
d. Socket.

A

b. Sliding Window.

58
Q

(015) Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?

a. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.
b. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data.
c. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data.
d. Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

A

a. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

59
Q

(016) How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

a. 16.
b. 32.
c. 64.
d. 128.

A

b. 32.

60
Q

(016) What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

a. Class A.
b. Class B.
c. Class C.
d. Class D.

A

a. Class A.

61
Q

(016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

a. Class C.
b. Class D.
c. Class E.
d. Class F.

A

a. Class C.

62
Q

(016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?

a. Class C.
b. Class D.
c. Class E.
d. Class F.

A

b. Class D.

63
Q

(016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?

a. 0.0.0.0.
b. 127.0.0.1.
c. 207.55.157.255.
d. 255.255.255.255.

A

b. 127.0.0.1.

64
Q

(016) Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format.
b. Dotted Decimal Notation.
c. Hexadecimal.
d. Octal.

A

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

65
Q

(017) The range of well-known port numbers is

a. 1024 to 49151.
b. 49152 to 65535.
c. 0 to 1023.
d. 0 to 1024.

A

c. 0 to 1023.

66
Q

(017) Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

a. Port 80.
b. Port 110.
c. Port 443.
d. Port 8080.

A

d. Port 8080.

67
Q

(018) The design of communications network is known as

a. an internet suite.
b. the physical layer.
c. network architecture.
d. network implementation.

A

c. network architecture.

68
Q

(018) What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

a. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
b. Virtual Private Network (VPN).
c. Local Area Network (LAN).
d. Wide Area Network (WAN).

A

c. Local Area Network (LAN).

69
Q

(018) What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

a. Local Area Network (LAN).
b. Wide Area Network (WAN).
c. Virtual Private Network (VPN).
d. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

A

d. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

70
Q

(018) Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?

a. 802.11a.
b. 802.11b.
c. 802.11g.
d. 802.11n.

A

b. 802.11b.

71
Q

(018) Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

a. 802.11a.
b. 802.11b.
c. 802.11g.
d. 802.11n.

A

d. 802.11n.

72
Q

(019) What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

a. Physical.
b. Logical.
c. Hybrid.
d. Star

A

a. Physical.

73
Q

(019) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

a. Bus.
b. Star.
c. Ring.
d. Hybrid.

A

b. Star.

74
Q

(020) Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of

a. 256 Kbps.
b. 256 Mbps.
c. 144 Mbps.
d. 144 Kbps.

A

d. 144 Kbps.

75
Q

(021) A modem is a device that

a. transmits on every link attached to it.
b. modulates and demodulates data signals.
c. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
d. operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

A

b. modulates and demodulates data signals.

76
Q

(021) What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

a. Hub.
b. Bridge.
c. Switch.
d. Router.

A

b. Bridge.

77
Q

(021) Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and

a. modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.
b. Layer–1 error determination and correction through an internetwork .
c. Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork .
d. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

A

d. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

78
Q

(021) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

A

a. 2.

79
Q

(022) What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

a. Line encryption.
b. Link encryption.
c. Device encryption.
d. End-to-end encryption.

A

b. Link encryption.

80
Q

(023) Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

a. Coaxial cable.
b. Fiber optic cable.
c. Shielded twisted-pair (STP).
d. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).

A

a. Coaxial cable.

81
Q

(023) Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

a. Twisted pair cable.
b. Fiber optic cable.
c. Coaxial cable.
d. Twinax cable.

A

a. Twisted pair cable.

82
Q

(023) What is the most common wireless networking standard?

a. 802.3.
b. 802.9.
c. 802.11.
d. 802.14

A

c. 802.11.

83
Q

(024) What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

a. Policy, Security, Authority.
b. Authority, Security, Law.
c. Law, Authority, Policy.
d. Security, Policy, Law.

A

c. Law, Authority, Policy.

84
Q

(024) What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

a. Title 10.
b. Title 30.
c. Title 50.
d. Title 52.

A

a. Title 10.

85
Q

(024) Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
b. Base Defense Operations Center.
c. 624th Operations Center.
d. Air Operations Center.

A

a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

86
Q

(025) Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

a. Information Management.
b. Network-centric warfare.
c. Information Superiority.
d. Information Operations.

A

c. Information Superiority.

87
Q

(025) What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

a. Careful planning.
b. Reactive operations.
c. Immediate response.
d. Information Operations.

A

a. Careful planning.

88
Q

(025) Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

a. Electronic attack.
b. Electronic protection.
c. Network Exploitation.
d. Electronic warfare support.

A

a. Electronic attack.

89
Q

(025) Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

a. EW concerns radiated energy.
b. CNO concerns radiated energy.
c. EW is only used for offensive purposes.
d. CNO is only used for defensive purposes.

A

a. EW concerns radiated energy.

90
Q

(026) Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

a. Computer Forensics.
b. Incident Prevention.
c. Incident Detection.
d. Incident Response.

A

d. Incident Response.

91
Q

(026) Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

a. Defense-in-Depth.
b. Proactive Defense.
c. Situational Awareness.
d. Network Standardization.

A

b. Proactive Defense.

92
Q

(026) Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

a. Supervisory System.
b. Remote Terminal Unit.
c. Human Machine Interface.
d. Programmable Logic Controller.

A

a. Supervisory System.

93
Q

(026) Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

a. Supervisory System.
b. Remote Terminal Unit.
c. Human Machine Interface.
d. Programmable Logic Controller.

A

b. Remote Terminal Unit.

94
Q

(027) Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

a. Virus.
b. Spam.
c. Spyware.
d. Phishing.

A

b. Spam.

95
Q

(027) Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

a. Patches.
b. Antivirus.
c. Software removal.
d. Vulnerability scanner.

A

a. Patches.

96
Q

(027) Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

a. Token.
b. Biometrics.
c. Multifactor.
d. Knowledge-based.

A

b. Biometrics.

97
Q

(027) Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

a. Token.
b. Biometrics.
c. Multifactor.
d. Knowledge-based.

A

d. Knowledge-based.

98
Q

(027) What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

a. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems.
b. End-to-End Performance Monitoring.
c. Vulnerability scanners.
d. Capacity Planning.

A

d. Capacity Planning.

99
Q

(028) Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

a. Wing commander.
b. Authorizing Official (AO).
c. Wing information security office (WIAO).
d. Communications and information systems officer (CSO).

A

b. Authorizing Official (AO).

100
Q

(028) The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

a. only full costs.
b. recommended course of action only.
c. full cost and recommended course of action.
d. full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements.

A

c. full cost and recommended course of action.

7-Level (2 decks)

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