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CDC 3E052C Volume 1. Civil Engineer and Common Core Subjects > Volume 1: Civil Engineer & Common Core Subjects > Flashcards

Volume 1: Civil Engineer & Common Core Subjects Flashcards

0
Q
  1. (001) What is the difference between an Aerospace Expeditionary Wing (AEW) and an Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)?
    a. AEF can rapidly mobilize to carry Air Force assets worldwide.
    b. AEF will establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world.
    c. AEW has a different amount and quality of the deployed personnel.
    d. AEW can quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere in the world.
A

D. AEW can quickly deploy and establish operations at new sites anywhere around the world.

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1
Q
  1. (001) What Air Force document outlines the basis of the Civil Engineer organizations?
    a. Air Force Doctrine Document 2–4, Combat Support.
    b. Air Force Doctrine Document 2–4.1, Force Protection.
    c. Air Force Handbook10–222v1, Guide to Bare Base Development.
    d. Air Force Instruction 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program.
A

A. AF Doctrine Document 2-4 Combat Support

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2
Q
  1. (001) What three types of support does the Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency (AFCESA) mission provide to Air Force installations and civil engineers worldwide?

a. Contingency, operations, and training.
b. Deployment, operational, and training.
c. Contingency, operations, and technical.
d. Deployment, operational, and technical.

A

C. Contingency, operations, and technical.

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3
Q
  1. (002) Who does the flight commander report to?

a. Wing commander.
b. Group commander.
c. Base civil engineer.
d. Operations commander.

A

C. Base civil engineer.

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4
Q
  1. (002) Three of the Operations flight four elements are Material Acquisition, Facility Maintenance, Heavy Repair. What is the fourth element?

a. Housing.
b. Engineering.
c. Environmental.
d. Infrastructure Support.

A

D. Infrastructure Support.

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5
Q
  1. (003) When an Air National Guard (ANG) or Air Reserve Component (ARC) Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) unit mobilizes, who does the unit directly report to?

a. Area of Responsibility (AOR) commander.
b. Deployed base civil engineer (BCE).
c. Gaining major command.
d. In garrison commander.

A

C. Gaining major command.

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6
Q
  1. (004) What two units supplement active duty units to create a major force in worldwide deployments to meet mission requirements?

a. Air Force Reserve and Prime BEEF units.
b. Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units.
c. Prime Readiness in Base Services (RIBS) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) units.
d. Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime BEEF units.

A

b. Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve units.

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7
Q
  1. (004) How often will AFCESA conduct a deployment workshop to coordinate requirements with Air National Guard (ANG) and Air Force Reserve Component (AFRC)?

a. Quarterly.
b. Semi annually.
c. Annually.
d. Bi annually.

A

C. Annually.

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8
Q
  1. (005) MAJCOMs establish Unit Type Codes (UTC) for the operations within the command. These codes establish the size, composition, and equipment that make up what type of teams?

a. Prime RIBS.
b. Prime BEEF.
c. Expeditionary Aerospace Force.
d. Aerospace Expeditionary Force.

A

B. Prime BEEF.

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9
Q
  1. (005) What does the Air Force Contract Augmentation Program (AFCAP) provide to a Prime BEEF team?

a. Deployment materials.
b. Relief or augments forces.
c. Augments contracts pending for Prime BEEF units.
d. Creates a stable contract structure for the Air Force.

A

B. Relief or augments forces.

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10
Q
  1. (005) What is used to make Prime BEEF unit response times equal to or less than the response times for the aircraft units?

a. Prime BEEF unit type codes (UTC).
b. Operations Plan taskings.
c. Deliberate Planning.
d. Air mobility.

A

C. Deliberate Planning.

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11
Q
  1. (005) Being assigned to a Prime BEEF team, you must be ready to mobilize on a moments notice. What must you do to be ready in addition to your duty responsibilities and making sure that your personal affairs are in order?

a. Create family financial support objectives.
b. Let family members know where you are going.
c. Make sure that your family members are prepared.
d. Enroll family members with the Family Support Center.

A

C. Make sure that your family members are prepared.

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12
Q
  1. (006) Concerning contingency training tiers, what does tier 1 training represent?
    a. Special training.
    b. Category I training.
    c. Silver Flag training.
    d. Home station training.
A

D. Home station training

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13
Q
  1. (006) What do tier 2 training sites make available to units?
    a. War reserve supply kit (WRSK) augmentation.
    b. Commonly used deployable equipment.
    c. Specialized contingency equipment.
    d. Technical classroom training.
A

C. Specialized contingency equipment.

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14
Q
  1. (006) The primary purpose of Tier 3 training at a Silver Flag site is for students to show their ability to perform what tasks in a team environment?

a. Critical contingency.
b. Common core skills.
c. Routine wartime skills.
d. Peacetime responsibilities.

A

A. Critical contingency

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15
Q
  1. (007) What provides a Prime BEEF unit with a listing of items to deploy with?
    a. Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency.
    b. AFI 32–1001, Operations Management.
    c. Equipment and Supplies Listing (ESL).
    d. Base Civil Engineer.
A

C. Equipment and Supplies Listing (ESL).

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16
Q
  1. (008) What establishes a systematic framework for decision-making with regard to the development of Air Force installations?

a. General planning.
b. Component planning.
c. Comprehensive planning.
d. Federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and policies.

A

C. Comprehensive planning.

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17
Q
  1. (008) What helps to visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?

a. Plans.
b. Maps.
c. Pictures.
d. Information.

A

B. Maps.

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18
Q
  1. (009) What enables the Expeditionary GeoBase?

a. Mission data Sets.
b. GEO Reach process.
c. Common installation picture.
d. Expeditionary site mapping portal.

A

B. GEO Reach process.

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19
Q
  1. (009) What are geospatial data layers supporting one or more functional communities’ specific missions or processes called?

a. Planning guides.
b. Research programs.
c. Mission data sets (MDS).
d. Common installation pictures (CIP).

A

C. Mission data sets (MDS).

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20
Q
  1. (009) Who may designate a fused installation picture as classified depending on the potential threat visibility that arises when otherwise unclassified common installation picture (CIP) and mission data sets (MDS) layers are combined?

a. Functional communities.
b. Secretary of Defense.
c. Base Civil Engineer.
d. Wing commander.

A

A. Functional communities.

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21
Q
  1. (010) Which publication covers the classification of Air Force specialty codes (AFSC)?

a. Air Force Instruction 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted).
b. Air Force Instruction 36–2305, Education Classification and Coding Procedures.
c. Air Force Manual 36–2108, Enlisted Classification.
d. Air Force Manual 36–505, Skill Coding.

A

C. Air Force Manual 36–2108, Enlisted Classification.

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22
Q
  1. (010) Why does the Air Force use Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) prefixes like “T” in the example “T3E072?”

a. Designate an ability, skill, special qualification.
b. Identifies a special skill within a particular AFSC.
c. Controls the duty assignments of a particular skill.
d. Designate a position associated with a particular piece of equipment.

A

A. Designate an ability, skill, special qualification.

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23
Q
  1. (011) As a journeyman, you are expected to know assigned duties and perform them in a timely manner with

a. no supervision.
b. minimum supervision.
c. significant supervision.
d. maximum supervision.

A

B. minimum supervision.

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24
Q
  1. (011) What is the Chief Enlisted Manager code that identifies a CMSgt or CMSgt select as the top enlisted manager for Civil Engineers?

a. 3E191.
b. 3E090.
c. 3ECEM.
d. 3E000.

A

D. 3E000.

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25
Q
  1. (012) Who is responsible for obtaining the highest possible score on your end of course exam for CDC’s?

a. Commander.
b. Superintendent.
c. Supervisor.
d. You.

A

D. You.

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26
Q
  1. (013) What document identifies education and training requirements for every career field and serves as a road map for career progression?

a. Air Force Specialty (AFS).
b. Specialty Training Standard (STS).
c. Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).
d. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

A

D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

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27
Q
  1. (013) What is the forum to change the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)?
    a. CerTest question challenge.
    b. Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW).
    c. MAJCOM Functional Manager career field workshop.
    d. Formal meetings with the Career Field Manager (CFM).
A

B. Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW).

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28
Q
  1. (014) Regarding proficiency codes, what part will never be used alone since knowledge is required with it?

a. Task knowledge.
b. Skill knowledge.
c. Task Performance.
d. Subject knowledge.

A

C. Task Performance.

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29
Q
  1. (015) What must a trainee do before completing a diamond task?
    a. Hands on training.
    b. Corresponding CDC material.
    c. Classroom lecture and study guide.
    d. AF qualification training package (QTP) and CerTest.
A

D. AF qualification training package (QTP) and CerTest.

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30
Q
  1. (015) Once you are able to complete a task on your own, without help, who will place a completion date in your Specialty Training Standard (STS)?

a. Trainer.
b. Supervisor.
c. Unit training monitor.
d. Qualified shop personnel.

A

A. Trainer.

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31
Q
  1. (016) Which screen in COVER Train contains basic information about you?

a. Profile.
b. 623 II.
c. 623 III.
d. 797.

A

A. Profile.

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32
Q
  1. (016) Which COVER Train screen allows your section to document training for one of a kind systems?

a. 623 II.
b. 623 III.
c. 797.
d. 1098.

A

C. 797.

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33
Q
  1. (016) Which screen will you supervisor will sign you off on as you complete the required Air Force Qualification Training Packages (AFQTP)?

a. AFQTP.
b. STS.
c. JQS.
d. 2096.

A

A. AFQTP.

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34
Q
  1. (016) Where will your supervisor document all of your on the job training in the COVER Train program?

a. 623a.
b. 1098.
c. STS.
d. JQS.

A

d. JQS.

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35
Q
  1. (016) Who does the Master Task Listing (MTL) identify specific training for in a section?
    a. Each individual.
    b. 3 level trainees.
    c. 5 level trainees.
    d. Individuals needing core task training.
A

A. Each individual.

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36
Q
  1. (016) Within how many days will your supervisor conduct a training needs review after your assignment to your new section?

a. One month.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. Six months.

A

C. 90 days.

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37
Q
  1. (016) If the individual meets all of the training goals for your section, what training code will you assign to them?

a. B.
b. C.
c. R.
d. Q.

A

C. R.

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38
Q
  1. (016) What higher authorities drive certification in a job area?
    a. U.S national or state government.
    b. National or Department of Defense.
    c. Department of Defense or state government.
    d. U.S. national or foreign national governments.
A

B. National or Department of Defense.

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39
Q
  1. (017) CerTest is a powerful training management tool. What can it measure concerning training and experience?

a. Individual capabilities.
b. Strengths and weaknesses.
c. Core items and war time training.
d. Completed and incomplete training.

A

B. Strengths and weaknesses.

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40
Q
  1. (017) What will give your supervisor a good insight on where you need training the most?
    a. Specialty training standard.
    b. Trainer’s recommendation.
    c. CerTest pre test results.
    d. Trainee’s input.
A

C. CerTest pre test results.

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41
Q
  1. (018) What annual audit program was developed to ensure that the Air Force’s environmental program is operating efficiently?

a. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA).
b. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH).
c. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
d. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP).

A

D. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP).

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42
Q
  1. (018) What is the sixth different type of findings for Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan (ECAMP) inspection after Carryover; Major; Minor; Positive; and Repeat?

a. Outstanding.
b. Excellent.
c. Significant.
d. Negative.

A

C. Significant.

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43
Q
  1. (018) Within how many days should an inspection team complete the Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan (ECAMP) final reports?

a. 120 days for internal and external.
b. 180 days for internal and external.
c. 180 days for external; 120 days for internal.
d. 180 days for internal; 120 days for external.

A

C. 180 days for external; 120 days for internal.

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44
Q
  1. (019) What environmental act establishes a national environmental policy with goals for the protection, maintenance, and enhancement of the environment?

a. Environmental Protection Agency.
b. National Environmental Policy Act.
c. Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act.
d. Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program.

A

B. National Environmental Policy Act.

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45
Q
  1. (019) Who will be responsible for personal actions that have environmental consequences, according to Air Force Policy Directive 32–70, Environmental Quality?

a. Supervisors.
b. Commanders.
c. All personnel.
d. Hazardous pharmacies.

A

C. All personnel.

46
Q
  1. (019) When an environmental assessment is being prepared and no impacts were found, what may a decision maker mark on the findings?

a. Finding of no significant impact (FONSI).
b. Environmental Impact Statements (EIS).
c. Satisfactory.
d. Excellent.

A

A. Finding of no significant impact (FONSI).

47
Q
  1. (019) With regards to the environmental analysis time frame, the Council on Environmental Quality sets what kind of time frame for the entire National Environmental Policy Act process?
    a. 120 days for completion.
    b. 180 days for completion.
    c. There is not a timeline.
    d. No strict timeline.
A

D. No strict timeline.

48
Q
  1. (020) What does EPCRA section 302 require facilities to notify the state emergency response commission and the local emergency planning committee for?

a. Locations of accumulation sites.
b. Ordering of small chemical units.
c. Presence of any “wasteful chemicals”.
d. Presence of any “extremely hazardous substance”.

A

D. Presence of any “extremely hazardous substance”.

49
Q
  1. (020) Who must you notify if you have hazardous chemicals requiring material safety data sheets?
    a. Local police department.
    b. Local fire department.
    c. Federal agencies.
    d. State agencies.
A

B. Local fire department.

50
Q
  1. (021) Who appoints the administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency?
    a. Secretary of Interior.
    b. Secretary of Defense.
    c. President of the United States.
    d. Chairman, Joint Chief of Staff.
A

C. President of the United States.

51
Q
  1. (021) What agency leads the nation’s environmental science, research, education, and assessment efforts?

a. Department of Defense.
b. United States Air Force.
c. United States Parks and Wildlife.
d. Environmental Protection Agency.

A

D. Environmental Protection Agency.

52
Q
  1. (022) What two inspections cover the hazardous waste program concerning hazardous waste activities?

a. Scheduled and unscheduled.
b. Federal and state funded.
c. Internal and external.
d. Major and minor.

A

A. Scheduled and unscheduled.

53
Q
  1. (022) Who, besides the commander, signs the manifests that track off-base hazardous waste shipment and recycling?

a. State Department of Transportation.
b. Environmental Protection Agency.
c. Shipping company representative.
d. Designated individual.

A

D. Designated individual.

54
Q
  1. (023) What should be the first action taken if you have created a new waste stream to determine if the waste is hazardous?

a. Locate a similar hazardous waste process.
b. Add it to the satellite accumulation Point.
c. No action is needed for new waste.
d. Create a hazardous waste profile.

A

D. Create a hazardous waste profile.

55
Q
  1. (023) What exceptions are there concerning labeling of hazardous waste containers stored in a satellite accumulation point?

a. Identified waste should be labeled.
b. Only hazardous contents will be labeled.
c. No exceptions; all containers will be labeled.
d. Only containers exceeding their capacities will be labeled.

A

C. No exceptions; all containers will be labeled.

56
Q
  1. (024) Who must develop, implement, and maintain a written hazard communication program for their workplaces?

a. Employers.
b. Supervisors.
c. Local government.
d. Department of Defense.

A

A. Employers.

57
Q
  1. (024) When may you transfer a chemical into an unmarked container?
    a. If it will evaporate quickly.
    b. Only when it will pose a threat.
    c. When you will use it immediately.
    d. When the chemical will not contaminate the environment.
A

C. When you will use it immediately.

58
Q
  1. (024) Material safety data sheets (MSDS) will be provided to all employees and will be written in what language?

a. German.
b. Spanish.
c. English.
d. French.

A

C. English.

59
Q
  1. (024) Other than training for the reason of assignment to a new job, when must an employer provide training on hazardous materials?

a. Annual requirements.
b. Introduction to new hazards.
c. Federally mandated training.
d. Changes in the Environmental Protection Agency rules.

A

B. Introduction to new hazards.

60
Q
  1. (024) What can the introduction of low lead levels do to a child besides learning disabilities, attention deficit disorders, behavioral problems, stunted growth, impaired hearing, and kidney damage?

a. Blinding.
b. Madness.
c. Reduced IQ.
d. Tooth decay.

A

C. Reduced IQ.

61
Q
  1. (024) What material is naturally occurring fibrous material and has been around for thousands of years but is very hazardous to your health?

a. Asbestos.
b. Methane.
c. Tobacco.
d. Coffee.

A

A. Asbestos.

62
Q
  1. (024) When does asbestos pose the greatest risk?

a. When it is wetted.
b. When it is ingested.
c. When it is compacted.
d. When it released to the air.

A

D. When it released to the air.

63
Q
  1. (024) What are the most common color (s) of asbestos floor tile?
    a. Blue.
    b. Green and White.
    c. Dark green, brown, and red.
    d. The colors are not a good indicator of possible presence.
A

C. Dark green, brown, and red.

64
Q
  1. (025) What do your customers measure the services you provide them against?
    a. Air Force established standards.
    b. Their own personal standards.
    c. Civil Engineer standards.
    d. Work center standards.
A

a. Air Force established standards.

65
Q
  1. (026) When must you responded to and complete an urgent work order within?
    a. 1 calendar day.
    b. 3 calendar days.
    c. 7 calendar days.
    d. 30 calendar days.
A

C. 7 calendar days.

66
Q
  1. (026) How many methods are there if more than one shop needs to be assigned to complete a task?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

C. 3.

67
Q
  1. (027) What provides you with a list of required maintenance actions, the reference to complete the tasks, the standard amount of time to complete each task, the crew size required to accomplish the task, and how often the task is complete?

a. Maintenance action sheet.
b. Recurring work program.
c. Direct scheduled work.
d. Collection work order.

A

A. Maintenance action sheet.

68
Q
  1. (027) How often will your supervisor produce a recurring work program (RWP) schedule using Interim Work Information Management System (IWIMS) or Automated Civil Engineer System (ACES)?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.

A

B. Weekly.

69
Q
  1. (027) What happens to a recurring work program (RWP) item that does not have a complete indicator?

a. It closes out automatically.
b. It remains open and never gets completed.
c. It gets reported to the squadron commander.
d. It remains on the next week’s schedule as working.

A

D. It remains on the next week’s schedule as working.

70
Q
  1. (028) What do we call your supervisor accounting for all of your time throughout the day?
    a. Inputting jobs.
    b. Inputting labor.
    c. Recording plans.
    d. Recording schedules.
A

B. Inputting labor.

71
Q
  1. (028) What is the first step to developing an automated report?
    a. Inputting all of the required data.
    b. Finding out the monthly requirements.
    c. Deciding how often to print the report.
    d. To determine what information you need to see.
A

D. To determine what information you need to see.

72
Q
  1. (029) What contains a detailed description of the work, where to perform the work, and a point of contact (POC)?

a. Schedule.
b. RWP report.
c. Work request.
d. Material process.

A

C. Work request.

73
Q
  1. (029) What refers to a method where a group of individuals simultaneously contribute ideas to solve a problem?

a. Planning.
b. Scheduling.
c. Brainstorming.
d. Troubleshooting.

A

C. Brainstorming.

74
Q
  1. (030) What is the system that uses both the national stock number (NSN) and the power of local purchase to obtain the material you need to complete your work?

a. Base supply system.
b. Government purchase card (GPC).
c. Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS).
d. Government-Operated Civil Engineer Supply Store (GOCESS).

A

C. Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)

75
Q
  1. (030) If material for a job comes in as partial orders or before the work begins, where does material control store it?

a. Holding area.
b. Residue holding area.
c. Issues it to the appropriate section.
d. Government-Operated Civil Engineer Supply Store (GOCESS).

A

A. Holding area.

76
Q
  1. (030) What is simply a material list required to complete a job?
    a. Planning worksheet.
    b. Bill of material (BOM).
    c. National stock number (NSN).
    d. Consolidated supply listing (CSL).
A

B. Bill of material (BOM).

77
Q
  1. (030) What do we call material that your shop stores for use on the job?

a. Shop stock.
b. Bench stock.
c. Excess material.
d. Surplus material.

A

A. Shop stock.

78
Q
  1. (031) Who is responsible for government property, including property issued, found, and used?

a. Everyone.
b. Property owner.
c. Owning organization.
d. Accountable individual.

A

A. Everyone.

79
Q
  1. (031) Once an individual is found liable, how long does the responsible party have to make a lump sum payment?

a. 3 days.
b. 7 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 60 days.

A

C. 30 days.

80
Q
  1. (032) What publications are orders of the Secretary of the Air Force, approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff, which are directive in nature?

a. Air Force handbooks (AFH).
b. Air Force instructions (AFI).
c. Operating instructions (OI).
d. Supplements.

A

B. Air Force instructions (AFI).

81
Q
  1. (032) What publications are additional publications that extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters or agencies?

a. Supplements.
b. Operating instructions (OI).
c. Air Force handbooks (AFH).
d. Air Force pamphlets (AFPAM).

A

A. Supplements.

82
Q
  1. (032) What series of publications cover policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing, including procuring, promoting, training, and funding?

a. 10 series.
b. 22 series.
c. 32 series.
d. 36 series.

A

D. 36 series.

83
Q
  1. (032) What does the short title search use to find the publication you are looking for?
    a. Publication type.
    b. Publication number.
    c. Full publication title.
    d. Key words of the publication title.
A

B. Publication number.

84
Q
  1. (032) Which publication should you follow when the guidance issued by a field unit conflicts with the guidance issued by a higher-level unit?

a. The longer publication.
b. The shorter publication.
c. The field unit publication.
d. The higher-level publication.

A

D. The higher-level publication.

85
Q
  1. (033) What are the two categories that commercial publications fall into?
    a. Regulatory and technical.
    b. Informational and practical.
    c. Directive and non-directive.
    d. Substantial and unsubstantial.
A

A. Regulatory and technical.

86
Q
  1. (033) Which commercial publications provide the “how to” aspect of a job?
    a. Technical.
    b. Procedural.
    c. Regulatory.
    d. Informational.
A

A. Technical.

87
Q
  1. (034) What military service develops technical manuals for equipment they use?
    a. Navy.
    b. Marines.
    c. Air Force.
    d. Coast Guard.
A

B. Marines.

88
Q
  1. (034) Which manual contains part numbers, nomenclatures, and other pertinent information necessary to support that piece of equipment?

a. Overhaul instructions.
b. Illustrated parts breakdown.
c. Field maintenance instruction.
d. Operation and maintenance instruction.

A

B. Illustrated parts breakdown.

89
Q
  1. (034) Which manuals may include actions to modify equipment, perform special inspections, or change operating procedures?

a. Time compliance technical orders.
b. Abbreviated technical orders.
c. Technical manuals.
d. Joint Use manuals.

A

A. Time compliance technical orders.

90
Q
  1. (034) Which type of TCTO can be identified by a border of red Xs around the page?
    a. Inspection.
    b. Urgent action.
    c. Routine action.
    d. Immediate action.
A

D. Immediate action.

91
Q
  1. (034) Which type of TCTO can be identified by a border of alternating red Xs and /s around the page?

a. Inspection.
b. Urgent action.
c. Routine action.
d. Immediate action.

A

B. Urgent action.

92
Q
  1. (035) What will the a-page have for a page that should be an original?

a. 0.
b. 3.
c. 7.
d. 9.

A

A. 0.

93
Q
  1. (035) What will most dash 1s have at the back of the manual?

a. Index.
b. Groups.
c. Numerical index.
d. Table of contents.

A

A. Index.

94
Q
  1. (035) What is the key piece of information supplied by the introduction that tells you who made the parts?

a. Symbols.
b. Vender codes.
c. Use instructions.
d. Group assembly listing.

A

B. Vender codes.

95
Q
  1. (035) What do you do if you can not find a listing of the specific component you are looking for in a dash 4?

a. Look in the introduction.
b. Look in the numerical index.
c. Look for the next high assembly.
d. Look for the next smaller assembly.

A

C. Look for the next high assembly.

96
Q
  1. (036) Why must you identify any problems you find in a TO?

a. It shows that you read the TO.
b. It shows that you always use the TO.
c. To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task differently.
d. To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task the same way.

A

D. To allow all Air Force personnel to complete the task the same way.

97
Q
  1. (036) What method makes the best corrections to problems in a TO?
    a. A team effort of many airmen.
    b. Your effort researching the problem.
    c. A team effort of many knowledgeable individuals.
    d. Your effort experimenting with possible corrections.
A

C. A team effort of many knowledgeable individuals.

98
Q
  1. (037) Once published, how long does an engineer technical letter remain in effect?
    a. Until a TCTO takes its place.
    b. As long as the information is current.
    c. Until the information is no longer valid.
    d. Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.
A

D. Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.

99
Q
  1. (037) What are the two sources that you can get engineer technical letter from?
    a. Air Force publications web page and US Navy Seabee web page.
    b. Air Force publications web page and AFCESA publication web page.
    c. US Army Corps of Engineers web page and US Navy Seabee web page.
    d. AFCESA publication web page and the US Army Corps of Engineers web page.
A

D. AFCESA publication web page and the US Army Corps of Engineers web page.

100
Q
  1. (001) What is the BCE unit’s primary mission?
A

To establish, sustain, and restore the base infrastructure.

101
Q
  1. (001) What is your wartime mission in CE?
A

To provide the bases, infrastructure, and facilities necessary to support the global engagement of aerospace forces.

102
Q
  1. (001) What is the concept for EAF?
A

EAF conducts military operations on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.

103
Q
  1. (001) What is AFCESAs goal?
A

To field the best equipment, business practices, engineering standards, and professional training for mobility forces and facilities maintenance.

104
Q
  1. (002) What is the squadron commander also referred to as?
A

The base civil engineer (BCE).

105
Q
  1. (002) What does the operations flight do?
A

Operates, maintains, repairs, and constructs installation real property using in-house military and civilian work force and recurring and non-recurring service contracts.

106
Q
  1. (002) What does the resources flight do?
A

Plans, develops, submits, and maintains the civil engineer financial programs and financial management systems.

107
Q
  1. (002) What does the readiness flight do?
A

Provides contingency support services and prepares the squadron during natural disasters, major accidents, war, and other base emergencies.

108
Q
  1. (003) What is the acronym RED HORSE mean?
A

Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer.

109
Q
  1. (003) What is the mission of RED HORSE?
A

They provide air component commanders with a dedicated and flexible unit capable of airfield and base heavy construction and repair.

110
Q
  1. (003) Who do reserve RED HORSE units report to?
A

When not mobilized, they report to HQ AFRC. When mobilized, they report directly to the gaining MAJCOM.

111
Q
  1. (004) How do the ANG and AFRC help to meet mission requirements?
A

They have become a major force in worldwide deployments.

112
Q
  1. (004) When does AFCESA conducts a deployment workshop for the ANG and AFRC?
A
  1. When does AFCESA conducts a deployment workshop for the ANG and AFRC?

CDC 3E052C Volume 1. Civil Engineer and Common Core Subjects (1 decks)

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