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Volume 1 CDC's Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum number of months for required to attain your 5-skill level?

A

12 months

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2
Q

At what point in your career will you be considered for appointment to duties as a trainer?

A

After completing ALS

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3
Q

When will you begin your 7-Skill Level upgrade?

A

After selection or promotion to staff sergeant.

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4
Q

At what skill level will you first be expected to fill supervisory and management positions?

A

Craftsman (7-Skill level)

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5
Q

When will you attend the NCO academy?

A

When you are selected for TSgt or become a TSgt.

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6
Q

How does the maintenance organization need MAJCOM needs?

A

By organizing, training, and equipping maintenance complexes for fighting a war.

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7
Q

What type of structure does the maintenance organization strive for to be the most effective during war?

A

Decentralized structure

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8
Q

Under the wing structure, what two groups make up the maintenance functions?

A

Operational and Maintenance

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9
Q

Who controls the maintenance resources required to meet mission requirements?

A

The wing commander

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10
Q

How are squadron commanders responsible so to the group commanders?

A

For overall squadron management

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11
Q

Who is responsible to ensure the wing has a viable quality assurance program?

A

Maintenance Group Commanders

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12
Q

Who is responsible to the squadron commander for the management of the maintenance cannibalization program?

A

The Maintenance Operations Officer. (MOO)

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13
Q

What is the flight chiefs main responsibility?

A

To manage, train, and supervise maintenance personnel.

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14
Q

Who tracks “Red Ball” maintenance discrepancies?

A

The Flight line Expeditors

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15
Q

What is the function of the Maintenance group?

A

To create and support the Sortie producing Operations Group.

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16
Q

What is the role of Quality Assurance?

A

To asses, analyze, and identify existing problem areas, asses quality of training, determine aircraft and equipment condition, and improve reliability and maintainability of aircraft and support equipment.

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17
Q

What type of control does the MOC exercise when there is two or more squadrons involved in aircraft maintenance?

A

External control.

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18
Q

What function is responsible for informing the wing safety office or command post of injuries resulting from aircraft maintenance?

A

MOC

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19
Q

Personnel in this section are responsible for off-equipment (backshop) maintenance?

A

Maintenance squadron

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20
Q

What flight in the maintenance squadron performs off equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems, sensor pods, and airborne videotape recording and photographic systems?

A

Avionics flight

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21
Q

This Air force Instruction (AFI) governs the current wings maintenance and operations group structure

A

AFI 21-101 Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management

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22
Q

What are four basic principles of supply discipline?

A

Maximize economic use of equipment and supplies for the intended purposes.

Safeguard and preserve property

Adhere to governing regulations regarding the storage, issue, and turn in of supplies.

Screen supply stocks and redistribute or dispose of excess.

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23
Q

Who ensures all personnel are knowledgeable and trained in supply discipline?

A

Commanders and supervisors

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24
Q

When does excess property become surplus property?

A

When it is no longer needed by the Air Force, another military service, or a federal agency.

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25
What are two reasons property becomes obsolete.
Technological development and changing world situations.
26
What is property accountability?
The obligation imposed by law, lawful order, or regulation to keep accurate, audit-able records of property.
27
Who is accountable for equipment items?
Supply personnel and equipment custodians.
28
What is pecuniary accountability?
Being responsible to pay for the loss of equipment.
29
What are three types of property responsibility?
Command, Supervisory, and custodial.
30
What is a misuse of command responsibility?
Using maintenance trucks to shuttle people to a BX.
31
What determines how often a commander visits a sections to observe supply discipline?
Needs of the operation, and how smoothly Operations run.
32
How do commanders discharge their responsibility for keeping personnel informed of appropriate uses of AF property?
By issuing instructions and directions.
33
Why are supervisors often given control over equipment and supplies?
Because they are usually located near the property.
34
When do you assume custodial responsibility for AF equipment?
When you take physical possession of USAF property.
35
The shop supervisor wants unserviceable parts turned in. Why is this?
To repair unserviceable parts or dispose of them as applicable.
36
What just the commander do to appoint custodial responsibility to someone else in the squadron?
Appoint a new custodian, account for all items, and inventory as applicable.
38
What three DD forms are used by the AF for reimbursement of lost, damaged, or stolen property that is valued at or below $500?
DD Form 1131, DD Form 362, and DD Form 114.
40
What does AFMAN 23-110 require you to do if you see a box fall off a supply truck?
Pick it up and return it to supply.
41
Why would a $200 dollar cost be charged as $185?
When a 25% depreciation is allowed on the cost.
42
Why must a report of survey be completed?
It's used to show if a person is liable for pecuniary charges.
43
Who prepares the report of survey? And must it be initiated?
The person with custodial custody and is initially filed within 30 days.
44
What TO governs PQDR systems?
TO: 00-350-54-WA-1
45
What are three main levels or activities in the PQDR process.
Originating point, Screening Point, and Action report.
46
Who makes up individuals at the originating point?
Us as the observers.
47
Who is responsible for monitoring outstanding PQDR's?
QA personnel.
48
What PQDR would be submitted for a deficient product that if left I corrected could cause major loss or damage to equipment?
Cat 1
49
What is the category of a PQDR that doesn't conform to specifications?
A category 2
50
How long do you have to draft a copy of a category 1 PQDR screening point after discovering a discrepancy?
24 hours.
51
How long do you have to submit a category 2 PQDR report?
3 days
52
What form do you use to submit a PQDR?
SF 368
53
How is the PQDR exhibit tagged?
By using a DD 2332 (brown) tag.
54
What type of property responsibility requires that directives and instructions be used?
Command
55
When a person with custodial responsibility for property is transferred, the responsibility....
Stays within the squadron.
56
What does a security classification guide identify?
Specific information regarding classified systems.
57
Who writes the security classification guide for EW systems?
The director of EW management in Robins AFB, Georgia.
58
To whom do you interpret the classifications?
Office of primary responsibility (OPR)
59
How far in advance do you send information to the OPR for review if you need to disclose unclassified information on a public system?
45 days in advance
60
What section of a security classification guide has the various aspects of a systems classification level?
The Performance and capabilities section.
61
Who determines when a system becomes unclassified?
The agency that created the system.
62
When can an unclassified piece of test equipment become classified?
When the classified hardware is loaded.
63
What type of containers are required for storing classified material?
GSA approved containers
64
What form is used to record the daily end of day inventory?
SF 701
65
What form is used to document he opening and closing of a vault or safe?
SF 702
66
Who has the responsibility of determining whether open or unattended storage areas provide adequate protection for classified material?
The installation commander
67
What items are not allowed to be stored in classified containers?
Jewelry, precious metals, your sandwiches, non classified items, etc
68
Who is responsible for packaging classified material into containers?
The classified courier
69
What form is used to show who has responsibility for classified material in a sealed container?
AF form 12
70
What should an installation commander do if top secret information is stored aboard an aircraft without priority A designation?
Install an intrusion alarm, or have constant surveillance.
71
Who is authorized to watch over classified equipment visible on an aircraft when responding to emergencies?
Security forces or law enforcement with US citizenship with the proper clearance.
72
Who is responsible for securing classified equipment when an aircraft is downed?
The aircraft commander
73
What is the purpose for 781 series?
To provide collective maintenance information for aircraft in the USAF's arsenal.
74
How is the 781 A used?
To document discrepancies
75
What is an exception for using AFTO 781A?
Battle damage to an ACFT
76
Explain the crew chiefs responsibilities for 781 A's?
Crewchiefs provide JCN's and Doc numbers.
77
How do you correct a symbol entered in error?
You don't
78
Explain the ETR entry for AFTO 781 A?
To note that equipment had been removed.
79
What is required for on AFTO 781 A when a write up is cleared?
A brief description of the discrepancy and a corrective action, then the job must be signed off by a 5 or seven level if applicable.
80
How would you document an ops check that was good?
Ops check good
81
Describe the purpose of 781 C
To document load status and configuration for avionics equipment
82
What is the aircraft commanders role relating to the 781C
Checks the forms for aircraft status
83
What is the role of maintainers for AFTO 781C's
Throw out old forms and replace with new ones.
84
Describe the purpose of the AFTO 781 H?
Used to reference MX status and service information.
85
How does the crew chief or alternate use the AFTO form 781H?
Update the form after each flight
86
What is the purpose of the exceptional release column?
To ensure the aircraft is safe for flight.
87
What is the purpose of the 781K's?
To record delayed discrepancies
88
What is the purpose of immediate and urgent TCTO entries.
To document discrepancies that could injure or kill MX personnel.
89
When are red x discrepancies put into the 781 K's?
Never
90
What is the the purpose of the AFTO 244
To document AGE status
91
What does the Part V record in the AFTO 244?
Record of all minor and major discrepancies on AGE unit
92
What is the purpose of the AFTO 1492?
Warning tag
93
What does first group and its three parts of a three group TO number identify?
Aircraft, model, mission, and maintenance being done.
94
What does the letters JG indicate in a TO title?
Job guide?
95
What makes up the fourth group of a four group TO number?
A sectionalized TO or TO supplement
96
How are the fifth and sixth groups in a TO used?
More sectionalized TO's
97
What type of information is contained in O&M manuals?
More sectionalized TO's
98
Name three types of O&M manuals
ACFT, Missiles, special weapons.
99
What are three main types of TCTO's?
Immediate, Action, and Routine
100
What's the difference in an immediate and urgent action TCTO's?
Immediate action can result in death or major equipment loss, or total loss.
101
What's the purpose of TCTO's?
Used to correct equipment or procedural changes.
102
How long until TCTO's are replaced?
Around 10 days
103
What are time limitations for accomplishing TCTO's
Category 1 - 30-180 days | Category 2 - Done on the next inspection or phase.

CDC's (1 decks)

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