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CDC Z3DX7X Edit Code 01 > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which AFSC requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

A. Computer Systems Programming (3D0X4)
B. Cyber Systems Operations
C. Cyber Transport Systems
D. Cyber Surety

A

A. Computer Systems Programming (3D0X4)

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

A. Minimum rank of SSgt
B. 6 months OJT for retrainees
C. Completion of AFSC specific requirements
D. Completion of AETC Supplemental training courses

A

D. Completion of AETC Supplemental training courses

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3
Q

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by CST personnel but may have a variety of AFSCs based upon the unit mission?

A. CFP
B. UDM
C. ESD
D. QA

A

A. CFP

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4
Q

What document directs the CFP key processes?

A. TO 00-5-15
B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
C. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II

A

B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

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5
Q

Where is the AF active component manpower planning and programming centralized?

A. at major command functional managers
B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
C. at the Air Force Personnel Center
D. with career field managers

A

B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

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6
Q

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

A. Program Element Code
B. Unit Manpower Document
C. Authorization Change Request
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster

A

B. Unit Manpower Document

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7
Q

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

A. Program Element Code
B. Unit Manpower Document
C. Authorization Change Request
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster

A

A. Program Element Code

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the AFCFM?

A. Construct career paths
B. Manage skill-level training requirements
C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective MAJCOM

A

D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective MAJCOM

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9
Q

Who serves as the MAJCOM voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U and TW)?

A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager
C. Career Field Manager (CFM)
D. SAF/CIO A6

A

B. MAJCOM Functional Manager

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10
Q

Which segment of the U and TW/STRT process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resources?

A. Segment 1
B. Segment 2
C. Segment 3
D. Segment 4

A

B. Segment 2

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11
Q

Which of the following is not an action of the STRT?

A. Draft and sign minutes
B. Finalize part 1 of the CFETP
C. Finalize AFECD specialty description
D. Finalize STS/CTS for all courses

A

D. Finalize STS/CTS for all courses

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12
Q

Which of the following is an optional attendee for the U and TW?

A. AETC/TPM
B. AETC CDC writer
C. AFCFM
D. MAJCOM Functional Manager

A

B. AETC CDC writer

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13
Q

What is used as a starting point to develop the CFETP and STS during the STRT and U and TW?

A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
B. Quality Training Package (QTP)
C. Subject Matter Experts (SME)
D. Job Quality Standards (JQS)

A

A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)

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14
Q

What AIS is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)? (2-2)

A. Remedy
B. Situational Report (SITREP)
C. Telephone Management System (TMS)
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

A

D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor? (2-4)

A. Review IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly
B. Ensure equip. status is entered into Equip Status Reporting (ESR)
C. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
D. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions

A

B. Ensure equip. status is entered into Equip Status Reporting (ESR)

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16
Q

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? (2-6)

A. Communications Focal Point
B. Flight Commander/Chief
C. Production Controller
D. Commander

A

B. Flight Commander/Chief

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17
Q

Which of the following is included in the MTP only if applicable to the work center? (2-7)

A. MTL
B. JQS
C. Current CFETP
D. Milestones for tasks and CDC completion

A

B. JQS

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18
Q

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equip./system acceptance? (2-11)

A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

A

D. 120 days

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19
Q

Which statement is not a goal of ORM? (2-12)

A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
B. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission
C. Create an AF in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
D. Identify opportunities to decrease AF warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

A

D. Identify opportunities to decrease AF warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

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20
Q

How many steps are there in ORM? (2-13)

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

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21
Q

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on ____? (2-14)

A. AF Form 55
B. AF Form 971
C. AF Form 623A
D. AF Form 623A and AF Form 55

A

A. AF Form 55

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis? (2-14)

A. Job Safety Training (JST)
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

A

A. Job Safety Training (JST)

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23
Q

Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1? (2-16)

A. TCTO procedure
B. Resources required to manage and use TOs
C. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
D. Training to manage and use TOs

A

A. TCTO procedure

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24
Q

Recommended TO changes are required to be submitted on ___. (2-20)

A. AFTO Form 673
B. AFTO Form 22
C. AF Form 673
D. AF Form 22

A

D. AFTO Form 22

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25
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment? (2-20)

A. Library Custodian
B. Flight commander/chief
C. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
D. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

A

B. Flight commander/chief

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26
Q

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Associate (TIA)? (2-21)

A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

A

B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)

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27
Q

Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP and E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards? (2-21)

A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

A

D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

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28
Q

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official? (2-22)

A. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)
B. Commander/director responsible for the guidance
C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor
D. Publications Manager

A

C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor

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29
Q

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems? (2-22)

A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)
B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
D. Military Only

A

C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)

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30
Q

The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title ___. (2-24)

A. 10
B. 15
C. 37
D. 50

A

A. 10

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31
Q

Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in USC Title ___. (2-25)

A. 15
B. 18
C. 32
D. 37

A

C. 32

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32
Q

Who appoints AF Portal Content Managers and Content Publisher for public and private websites? (2-28)

A. Wing Commander
B. Numbered Air Force Commander
C. Communications Squadron Commander
D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

A

A. Wing Commander

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33
Q

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called ___. (2-31)

A. misuse of position
B. a covered relationship
C. non-public information
D. personal conflict of interest

A

A. Misuse of position

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34
Q

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities? (2-38)

A. Military Personnel (MILPERS)
B. Military Construction (MILCON)
C. Operation and Maintenance (O and M)
D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT and E)

A

B. Military Construction (MILCON)

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35
Q

What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O and M) funds will cover under normal conditions? (2-39)

A. $100,000
B. $250,000
C. $750,000
D. $1,000,000

A

C. $750,000

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36
Q

In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in AFI ___. (2-39)

A. 10-401
B. 33-360
C. 38-101
D. 64-117

A

D. AFI 64-117

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37
Q

At the installation level, which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the GPC Program? (2-40)

A. Approving Official (AO)
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)
C. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO)
D. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC)

A

B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)

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38
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders? (2-40)

A. Making authorized transactions
B. Reconciling transactions
C. Logging transactions
D. Funds accountability

A

D. Funds accountability

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39
Q

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in ___. (2-41)

A. AFI 10-201
B. Joint Publication 1-02
C. Joint Publication 1-03
D. AFI 10-401

A

D. AFI 10-401

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40
Q

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year? (2-41)

A. Air Force Chief of Staff
B. Secretary of the Air Force
C. Selected major command Command Chiefs
D. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

A

A. Air Force Chief of Staff

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41
Q

Which of the following the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented? (2-43)

A. Wing
B. Group
C. Squadron
D. Major Command

A

A. Wing

42
Q

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in AFI ___. (2-43)

A. 36-2604
B. 36-2803
C. 36-2805
D. 36-2845

A

D. AFI 36-2845

43
Q

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the AF/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

A. 1 October - 30 September
B. 1 January - 21 December
C. 1 April - 31 March
D. 1 July - 30 June

A

A. 1 October - 30 September

44
Q

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to ___. (3-4)

A. 53
B. 63
C. 73
D. 83

A

B. 63

45
Q

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board? (3-6)

A. Monitor
B. Scanner
C. Keyboard
D. Graphics card

A

C. Keyboard

46
Q

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers? (3-9)

A. At least 5
B. No more than 10
C. No more than 20
D. 20 or more

A

C. No more than 20

47
Q

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname? (3-14)

A. Simple
B. Relative
C. Positive
D. Absolute

A

C. Positive

48
Q

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure? (3-16)

A. Norton Utilities
B. Acrobat Reader
C. Virus Scan
D. WinZip

A

A. Norton Utilities

49
Q

The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? (4-3)

A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
C. Distance Vector and Link State
D. RS-232 and RS-530

A

B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)

50
Q

Network switches and bridges operate at what OSI layer? (4-3)

A. Network
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport

A

C. Data Link

51
Q

Routers operate at what OSI layer? (4-3)

A. Network
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport

A

A. Network

52
Q

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what OSI layer? (4-3)

A. Network
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport

A

D. Transport

53
Q

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called? (4-4)

A. Defense Intelligence Agency
B. Defense Information Systems Agency
C. Defense Information Systems Network
D. Department of Defense Information Networks

A

B. Defense Information Systems Agency

54
Q

Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service? (4-5)

A. The customer
B. Security Manager
C. National Security Agency
D. Communications Squadron

A

A. The customer

55
Q

What are the two classifications of transport protocols? (4-8)

A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
B. Classful and Connectionless Oriented
C. Connectionless Oriented and Classless
D. Classful and Classless

A

A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

56
Q

In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients? (4-8)

A. Authorization
B. Connection establishment
C. Establishment of a clear channel
D. End-to-end connectivity between host applications

A

B. Connection establishment

57
Q

What regulates how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgment? (4-10)

A. Data receive message
B. Sliding Window
C. Buffer
D. Socket

A

B. Sliding Window

58
Q

Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment? (4-10)

A. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data
B. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data
C. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data
D. Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

A

A. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

59
Q

How many bits are in an IPv4 address? (4-15)

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128

A

B. 32

60
Q

What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4? (4-16)

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

A

A. Class A

61
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes? (4-16)

A. Class C
B. Class D
C. Class E
D. Class F

A

A. Class C

62
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing? (4-16)

A. Class C
B. Class D
C. Class E
D. Class F

A

B. Class D

63
Q

What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back? (4-17)

A. 0.0.0.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 207.55.157.255
D. 255.255.255.255

A

B. 127.0.0.1

64
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user friendly? (4-19)

A. Colon Hexadecimal Format
B. Dotted Decimal Notation
C. Hexadecimal
D. Octal

A

A. Colon Hexadecimal Format

65
Q

The range of well know port numbers is ___. (4-23)

A. 1024 to 49151
B. 49152 to 65535
C. 0 to 1023
D. 0 to 1024

A

C. 0 to 1023

66
Q

Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies? (4-24)

A. Port 80
B. Port 110
C. Port 443
D. Port 8080

A

D. Port 8080

67
Q

The design of communications network is known as ___. (5-1)

A. an internet suite
B. the physical layer
C. network architecture
D. network implementation

A

C. network architecture

68
Q

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area? (5-2)

A. MAN
B. VPN
C. LAN
D. WAN

A

C. Local Area Network (LAN)

69
Q

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area of region like a city? (5-2)

A. LAN
B. WAN
C. VPN
D. MAN

A

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

70
Q

Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency? (5-6)

A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

A

B. 802.11b

71
Q

Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz? (5-7)

A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

A

D. 802.11n

72
Q

What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media? (5-8)

A. Physical
B. Logical
C. Hybrid
D. Star

A

A. Physical

73
Q

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? (5-10)

A. Bus
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Hybrid

A

B. Star

74
Q

Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of ___. (5-15)

A. 256 Kbps
B. 256 Mbps
C. 144 Mbps
D. 144 Kbps

A

D. 144 Kbps

75
Q

A modem is a device that ___. (5-18)

A. transmits on every link attached to it.
B. modulates and demodulates data signals.
C. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
D. operates on the Network layer of the OSI model.

A

B. modulates and demodulates data signals.

76
Q

What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks? (5-19)

A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router

A

B. Bridge

77
Q

Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and ___. (5-20)

A. modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.
B. Layer-1 error determination and correction through an internetwork.
C. VPN tunnel determination through an internetwork.
D. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork.

A

D. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork.

78
Q

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? (5-22)

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

A. 2

79
Q

What type of encryption is applied to each end of communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder? (5-23)

A. Line encryption
B. Link encryption
C. Device encryption
D. End-to-end encryption

A

B. Link encryption

80
Q

Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard? (5-25)

A. Coaxial Cable
B. Fiber optic cable
C. Shielded twisted-pair (STP)
D. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)

A

A. Coaxial cable

81
Q

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications? (5-25)

A. Twisted pair cable
B. Fiber optic cable
C. Coaxial cable
D. Twinax cable

A

A. Twisted pair cable

82
Q

What is the most common wireless networking standard? (5-28)

A. 802.3
B. 802.9
C. 802.11
D. 802.14

A

C. 802.11

83
Q

What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace operations? (6-1)

A. Policy, Security, Authority
B. Authority, Security, Law
C. Law, Authority, Policy
D. Security, Policy, Law

A

C. Law, Authority, Policy

84
Q

What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations? (6-2)

A. Title 10
B. Title 30
C. Title 50
D. Title 52

A

A. Title 10

85
Q

Which operations center monitors and controls AF network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity? (6-7)

A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
B. Base Defense Operations Center
C. 624th Operations Center
D. Air Operations Center

A

A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

86
Q

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor? (6-8)

A. Information Management
B. Network-centric warfare
C. Information Superiority
D. Information Operations

A

C. Information Superiority

87
Q

What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority? (6-8)

A. Careful Planning
B. Reactive Operations
C. Immediate Response
D. Information Operations

A

A. Careful Planning

88
Q

Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)? (6-9)

A. Electronic Attack
B. Electronic Protection
C. Network Exploitation
D. Electronic Warfare Support

A

A. Electronic attack

89
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)? (6-10)

A. EW concerns radiated energy
B. CNO concerns radiated energy
C. EW is only used for offensive purposes
D. CNO is only used for defensive purposes

A

A. EW concerns radiated energy

90
Q

Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions? (6-14)

A. Computer Forensics
B. Incident Prevention
C. Incident Detection
D. Incident Response

A

D. Incident Response

91
Q

Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information? (6-15)

A. Defense-in-Depth
B. Proactive Defense
C. Situational Awareness
D. Network Standardization

A

B. Proactive Defense

92
Q

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor? (6-18)

A. Supervisory System
B. Remote Terminal Unit
C. Human Machine Interface
D. Programmable Logic Controller

A

A. Supervisory System

93
Q

Which SCADA subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data? (6-18)

A. Supervisory System
B. Remote Terminal Unit
C. Human Machine Interface
D. Programmable Logic Controller

A

B. Remote Terminal Unit

94
Q

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? (6-20)

A. Virus
B. Spam
C. Spyware
D. Phishing

A

B. Spam

95
Q

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? (6-23)

A. Patches
B. Antivirus
C. Software Removal
D. Vulnerability scanner

A

A. Patches

96
Q

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? (6-24)

A. Token
B. Biometrics
C. Multifactor
D. Knowledge-based

A

B. Biometrics

97
Q

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user? (6-24)

A. Token
B. Biometrics
C. Multifactor
D. Knowledge-based

A

D. Knowledge-based

98
Q

What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines? (6-25)

A. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems
B. End-to-End Performance Monitoring
C. Vulnerability scanners
D. Capacity Planning

A

D. Capacity Planning

99
Q

Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk? (6-25)

A. Wing Commander
B. Authorizing Official (AO)
C. Wing information security office (WIAO)
D. Communications and information systems officer (CSO)

A

B. Authorizing Official (AO)

100
Q

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes ___. (6-26)

A. only full costs
B. recommended course of action only
C. full cost and recommended course of action
D. full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements.

A

C. full cost and recommended course of action

CDC Z3DX7X Edit Code 01 (2 decks)

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