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CDCs > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The specialty training standard (STS) is found in which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?

A

II

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2
Q

Which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force?

A

Career field education and training plan (CFETP)

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3
Q

Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) were you awarded when you entered your technical school?

A

1C511

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4
Q

Which skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?

A

5

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5
Q

A 3-skill level C2BMO operator carries the title of an

A

Apprentice

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6
Q

Which AFSC suffix is given to a weapons director in the 1C5X1 career field?

A

D

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7
Q

Which classification identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the military personnel data system (MilPDS)?

A

Special experience identifier (SEI)

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8
Q

What is a uniform system of five progressive readiness conditions?

A

Defense readiness conditions (DEFCON)

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9
Q

Actual hands on task performance training best describes which type of training?

A

Qualification

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10
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates the normal state of readiness?

A

5

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11
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness?

A

3

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12
Q

Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates all forces ready for a wartime situation?

A

1

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13
Q

A defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates

A

The state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations

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14
Q

When an attack by hostile aircraft is considered probable, imminent, or taking place upon the continental United States or Canada, which declaration is declared?

A

Air defense emergency

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15
Q

Who is the authority for the emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the forty-eight contiguous states?

A

Commander, NORAD

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16
Q

How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?

A

8

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17
Q

Which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 120°?

A

Southeast

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18
Q

An object at a bearing of 060° and a range of 135 miles would be reported as

A

“ZERO SIX ZERO, ONE HUNDRED THIRTY-FIVE”

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19
Q

An object at a bearing of 005° and a range of 50 miles would be reported as

A

“ZERO ZERO FIVE, FIFTY”

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20
Q

When you read a latitude and longitude, you should always read from

A

The lower to the higher numbers

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21
Q

The military grid reference system (MGRS) is read from the

A

Left to right, and then up

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22
Q

How many meters of a military grid reference system (MGRS) square is represented by the coordinates 17R DJ?

A

100,000

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23
Q

How many meters of a military grid reference system (MGRS) square is represented by the coordinates 8S AE 13

A

10,000

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24
Q

A military grid reference system (MGRS) square represented by the coordinates 13E DH 1427 totals how many meters?

A

1,000

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25
Q

A military grid reference system (MGRS) square represented by the coordinates 16R CJ 156653 totals how many meters?

A

100

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26
Q

The global area reference system 15 minute by 15 minute quadrant is made up of how many characters?

A

6

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27
Q

Which character designates the keypad number when using the global area reference system?

A

7

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28
Q

The word “radar” is an acronym that means radio,

A

Detection and ranging

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29
Q

A radar can use the radio waves to determine the distance or range to the target by

A

The amount of time that it takes a radio wave to go out, strike and object, and come back

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30
Q

The radars antennas function during transmission is to

A

Concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space

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31
Q

The radar antennas function during reception is to

A

Collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver

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32
Q

Which radar component separates wanted from unwanted radio wave signals to a level where target information can be displayed?

A

Receiver

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33
Q

The number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the

A

Pulse repetition time (PRT)

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34
Q

What is the principal used in radar to detect a target by analyzing a change in frequency of a return signal?

A

Doppler shift

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35
Q

Which radar component has many small antennas or slotted waveguides positioned on the face or side of a large wedge-shaped structure?

A

Phased-array antenna

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36
Q

Which series of identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) transponders do we use today?

A

Mark XII

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37
Q

The identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is

A

C

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38
Q

How many microseconds after the last framing pulse is a transmission sent out when the special position identification (SPI) feature is selected in modes 2 or 3?

A

4.35

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39
Q

Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) codes can be selected by an aircrafts pilot?

A

Mode 1

40
Q

Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?

A

4

41
Q

What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode 3/A code “7500” mean?

A

Hijackers on board or suffering from unlawful interference

42
Q

What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode 3/A code “7600” mean?

A

Radio communication failure

43
Q

What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode 3/A code “7700” mean?

A

Emergency

44
Q

What allows a pilot to transmit a response the will result in a special display at your console?

A

Special pilot identification (SPI)

45
Q

Why might you receive an identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) return from a target and not a radar return?

A

The IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return

46
Q

When used in conjunction with radar, identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) can help improve

A

Tracking continuity

47
Q

Which frequency range does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?

A

1,215 to 1,400 MHz

48
Q

How many 2° elevation beams does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) use?

A

10

49
Q

How many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?

A

48

50
Q

What is the range of the TPSS-75 radar antenna?

A

240 NM

51
Q

The FPS-117 can frequency-hop on up to how many preset frequencies?

A

18

52
Q

The FPS-124 will process and forward up to how many reportable tracks per scan?

A

20

53
Q

A constant surface for weather purposes is considered a

A

Surface that consists of all land or all water

54
Q

Clouds are normally found in which basic forms?

A

Stratus and cumulus

55
Q

What is the area between two different air masses called?

A

Occluded front

56
Q

Weather fronts are generally classified according to

A

Relative temperature of air masses involved

57
Q

Which type of front is formed when warm air moves up over a wedge of colder retreating air?

A

Warm

58
Q

Which type of front is characterized by a wedge of air being forced aloft?

A

Occluded

59
Q

Which type of refraction causes energy to be curved upward?

A

Subrefraction

60
Q

How is radar performance normally affected during normal refraction?

A

Performance of the radar is generally undisturbed

61
Q

How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?

A

Radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range

62
Q

Which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind spots?

A

Trapping

63
Q

How are calm winds reported in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?

A

00000KT

64
Q

In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does “M” under runway visual range (RVR) indicate?

A

Less than

65
Q

In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), how is hail indicated?

A

GR

66
Q

When more than one type of precipitation is present, which precipitation does the intensity element refer in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?

A

First precipitation element

67
Q

Which element description in the aviation routine weather report (METAR) gives information about clouds and obscuring phenomena?

A

Sky condition

68
Q

Winds aloft which are also called upper winds are reported in which foot increment and feet?

A

5,000-foot increments from 5,000 to 60,000 feet

69
Q

The defense switched network (DSN) system is basically a

A

Long-distance telephone system

70
Q

Which piece of equipment is used to secure communications on secure terminal equipment (STE)?

A

FORTEZZA card

71
Q

Which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?

A

Flash

72
Q

The best transmission method for high frequency (HF) is

A

Sky wave

73
Q

The only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the

A

High frequency (HF) band

74
Q

Which frequencies are normally only useful for distances approximately within the line of sight?

A

Very high frequencies (VHF) and above

75
Q

What are the hopping pattern and hopping rate in a HAVE QUICK system determined by?

A

Word of day (WOD)

76
Q

When transmitting a message over a radio, which type of pause is greater when speaking?

A

Ideas

77
Q

Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?

A

Half an inch

78
Q

What are methods of calling used in radio communications?

A

Full and abbreviated

79
Q

When are abbreviated calls authorized?

A

During good communications conditions and after contact has been firmly established

80
Q

Who may cancel or modify MINIMIZE?

A

Imposing authority or appropriate higher authority

81
Q

The main guideline for including a report in the Air Force Operational Reporting System (AFOREPS) is it must be

A

Essential to command and control of aerospace forces

82
Q

Which operational report-3’s (OPREP-3) initial voice notification is due within 5 minutes after learning of the event?

A

PINNACLE NUCFLASH

83
Q

Which operational report-3 (OPREP-3) do we use to report an accident involving nuclear weapons that does not risk the outbreak of nuclear war?

A

PINNACLE BROKEN ARROW

84
Q

Which report keeps the Joint Staff, services, and other national leadership apprised of existing political, military, and operational situations?

A

Commander’s situation report (SITREP)

85
Q

Commander’s situation reports (SITREP) must be submitted no later than

A

0200Z

86
Q

The unit’s designed operational capability (DOC) statement is used to

A

summarize unit taskings and requirements

87
Q

Which category level (C-level) indicates that a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized?

A

C-1

88
Q

Which category level (C-level) indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission?

A

C-4

89
Q

Which measured resource area (MRA) normally drives a unit’s overall category level (C-level)?

A

The lowest of the four MRAs

90
Q

When a change affects a units overall category level (C-level), the database must be updated within how many hours?

A

24

91
Q

What is a major US goal for the United States message text format (USMTF) system standards?

A

Allied adoption of USMTF standards

92
Q

How many major structural components make up the United States message text format (USMTF) system?

A

3

93
Q

What makes up a formatted United States message text format (USMTF) system messages text?

A

Predetermined sequence of sets

94
Q

How is information arranged vertically in the United States message text format (USMTF) system message text?

A

Columnar sets

95
Q

What does the first page of each checklist contain?

A

A sheet showing the date reviewed and the initials of the reviewer

96
Q

Why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as it is completed?

A

Prevents you from missing critical steps

97
Q

What color of ink is used for entries in the logbook?

A

Black or blue

CDCs (2 decks)

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