Volume 1 Flashcards
0
Q
Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
A
Core competency
1
Q
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor IAW AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel?
A
Duty position task
2
Q
Which 3D Air Force specialty focuses it’s attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
A
Cyber systems operations
3
Q
Which 3d Air Force specialty responsibility includes local base help desk/client support and hands on maintenance actions?
A
Client systems
4
Q
Which 3D AFS responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard RF line of sight, wife and and ground based satellite devices?
A
Radio Frequency Transmission
5
Q
Which 3D AFS responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control and warning radar systems?
A
Ground radar systems
6
Q
Which 3D AFS responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale networking wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
A
Cable and antenna systems
7
Q
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
A
Air Force career field manager
8
Q
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the AFS career development course?
A
Air Force career field manager
9
Q
Who assists with the identification of qualified SME to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test and your career development course?
A
Major command functional manager
10
Q
What title is normally assigned to the on station ranking 3D cyberspace NCO?
A
Base functional manager
11
Q
What’s the main goal of the utilization and training workshop?
A
Establish viable CFETP
12
Q
Which AFOSH standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment”?
A
91-46
13
Q
Which AFOSH document would you reference safety info on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems”?
A
91-50
14
Q
Which AFOSH standard would you reference safety info on data processing facilities?
A
91-64
15
Q
Which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
A
Non-ionizing radiation
16
Q
Which ORM principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
A
Accept no unnecessary risk
17
Q
Which ORM principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
A
Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
18
Q
Which ORM principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission an not an add on process?
A
Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
19
Q
Offensive operations support US cyberspace objectives by
A
Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace
20
Q
Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
A
Air Force network operations center
21
Q
Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
A
Supervisory control and data acquisition
22
Q
Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides tier 3 (local-level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
A
Network control center
23
Q
Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base communications packages?
A
Combat communications squadron
24
Which function or organization was establish to operate with an air expeditionary task force?
Expeditionary communications squadron
25
Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
Enterprise service unit
26
Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the US?
Constitution
27
Which document authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?
US title code 10
28
Which document serves as the bases for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
UCMJ
29
In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DoD?
1995
30
In what year did the Air Force finalized and published it's information operations doctrine in August 1998, while the Joint Staff published it's doctrine?
1998
31
Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
Air Force Policy Directives
32
Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
Air Force pamphlets
33
What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
Telecommunications
34
What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and it's users at a single location?
Air Force portal
35
What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
Air Force portal
36
Which Air Force portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?
Single sign on
37
Which Air Force portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force portal?
Virtual military personnel flight
38
Which Air Force portal feature provides a secure, web based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project and/or solve group problems?
Community of practice
39
Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use"?
AFI 33-129
40
Which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval public affairs procedures for posting information to the internet/public web sites?
AFI 35-101
41
When corresponding to an email, which would you not use to follow proper email etiquette?
Consistently use reply all
42
Which document is not considered an official government record?
Library reference or museum exhibition
43
Records that are considered to be in draft format...
Can be altered and are not officially released
44
Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristics?
Officially signed and officially released
45
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
Command records manager
46
Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
Base records manager
47
Who is appointed at each base level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
Functional area records manager
48
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
Chief of office of records
49
A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a...
Record
50
A logical group of record is called a...
File
51
An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a...
database
52
who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility records custodian?
Functional area records manager
53
marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
second step
54
the primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed
55
what authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the offices's file plan?
Air force records information management system
56
what determines the cutoff for active records?
retention period
57
a comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a...
disposition
58
for which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
base closures
59
which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
standard form 135
60
the proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is
any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction
61
AFPD 10-4, operations planning:air and space expeditionary force aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
tempo bands
62
Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force sourcing of individual augmentees, joint manning document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365 day or greater requirements?
air force personnel center
63
what places air and space expeditionary force forces in a ready to deploy state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to combatant commanders?
posturing
64
who has the primary mission of providing the joint for air component commander with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea and air forces?
air and space operations center
65
which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces?
unit type codes
66
which function is a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non secure voice, data and video communications by way of line of sight satellite or hard wired resources?
theater deployable communications
67
defense support of civil authorities, humanitarian relief operations, noncombatant evacuation operations and support to international law enforcement are all examples of...
operational capabilities packages
68
which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
manpower and equipment force packaging
69
a remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called an...
unmanned aerial vehicle
70
as of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircraft flown to support OEF/OIF?
100,000
71
which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the war fighter in near real time?
high altitude endurance
72
which theater deployable communications equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations?
modularity scalability
73
which theater deployable communications equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements and equipment set up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
mobility
74
which component of TDC is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
integrated communications access package
75
which system provides the capability to identify, sequence and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
deployable air traffic control and landing systems
76
which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, radar approach control, precision landing, and mobile tactical air navigation services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
deployable air traffic control and landing systems
77
the 85th engineering and installation squadron is assigned to the...
air combat command
78
under what program does the DoD collects, processes, produces, disseminated and uses info?
c4isr
79
what system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
global information grid
80
which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid and interconnected through SIPRNET?
global command and control system
81
which major system employs the JOPES, GSORTS, DCAPES and COP systems?
global command and control system
82
which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?
global combat support system
83
which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the US department of defense and the US department of state
joint worldwide intelligence communications system JWICS
84
which air force specific system used the global information grid backbone for inter site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the combat air forces and joint/combined forces?
theater battle management system
85
which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability and joint interoperability?
theater battle management system
86
which command and control structure is a priority component of the GIG designed to support the POTUS, SECDEF, and JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
National Military Control System
87
which command and control structure is a priority network used to transmit the emergency action messages generated by the national military command center to the war fighting commanders in the field?
strategic automated command and control system
88
which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
strategic automated command and control system
89
which system was originally designed as a specialized system for army, navy, and air force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
seamark
90
Which program was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
Distribute common ground station
91
Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation and dissemination?
Distributed common ground system
92
Which system is a radar tracker and correlate software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes I puts from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope?
Base control system - fixed
93
Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nations warfighters?
Global broadcast system
94
Which system is a USAF program supporting global, defense communication system HF entry, mystic star, and system of inter- American telecommunications for the Air Forces missions?
High frequency global communications system
95
Which system provides high quality voice/data HF and ultra high frequency satellite communications to the president, Vice President, cabinet members, an other senior government and military officials while aboard special airlift mission aircraft?
Mystic star
96
Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
Ground theater air control
97
Which system can be deployed in either the control reporting center or control reporting element configurations?
Ground theater air control
98
What function provides the department of defense with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers, personal digital assistants, land and cell phones, pagers, blackberry devices and/or giant voice systems in real time?
AtHocs solutions
99
Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
Supervisory control and data acquisition
100
What do AFOSH standards and publications provide?
AFOSH guidance for fundamental occupational environments and work shops/areas
101
What must you do if you believe a potential safety hazard may exist in your work area?
You must immediately secure the area dn contact your supervisor, unit safety representative or ground safety office
102
How does the air force obtain the AFOSH goal of minimizing incidences of chemically induced occupational illnesses and injuries in the work areas/shops?
the air force does this by establishing guidance for training employees on the health and physical hazards associated with proper preventative measures
103
What is ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?
electromagnetic radiation whose waves contain energy sufficient to overcome the binding energy of electrons in atoms or molecules, thus creating ions
104
With whom would you coordinate the disposal of hazardous waste material?
With the host installation environmental management such as the base bioenvironmental engineering
105
Who normally conducts first-aid and CPR training for unit instructors?
The installation medical facility normally conducts first-aid and CPR training for unit instructors who, in turn, train unit personnel
106
What is the core AFSC training document used for training enlisted personnel?
CFETP
107
What is as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field which makes a disproportionate contribution to the success of providing the right skills needed for military operations?
Core competencies
108
Which document would you reference to see your specific AFSC responsibilities?
Refer to section B, Career Field Progression and Information of your AFSC specific CFETP
109
The cyberspace support family consists of which two sub groups?
Cyberspace Operations and Cyberspace Systems
110
With whom does the air force career field manager directly communicate to disseminate policies and program requirements?
MAJCOM functional mangers and AETC training managers
111
Whose duty is it to assist in gathering input and data to complete enlisted grade allocation for career progression group reviews?
MAJCOM functional managers
112
On what action does the MAJCOM functional manager act as the primary reviewer?
CDC training and classification waiver request
113
What information is used to make classification decisions and verify the need to correct classification documents, remove tasks personnel no longer perform, and identify new responsibilities?
Occupational analysis
114
What type of workshop brings MAJCOM functional managers and SME's together to determine the most effective and efficient way to ensure training standards and skill level requirements of a career field are accurate?
U&TW
115
What do the training advisory groups provide?
A comprehensive approach to address training management issues affecting AFSCs
116
Why do 3D personnel need job rotation?
To foster personal and professional growth, as well as obtain a breadth of experience
117
What must you know to progress up the career ladder?
All aspects of the career field
118
What are some of the positive impacts that job rotation studies have shown?
It reduces boredom, reduces work stress, increases innovation, and increases production
119
Define ORM
ORM is a decision making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation
120
Name the four principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM
Accept no unnecessary risk, make risk decisions at the appropriate level, accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs, integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
121
Which document would you reference to learn about the ORM program?
AFI 90-901
122
What hazards do noise areas with above 85 decibels create?
Noise could restrict verbal communication; while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels can cause hearing loss
123
What should you consider when cleaning raised computers room floors?
Raised floors will no be cleaned with flammable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors
124
Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should the disconnect?
Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.
125
How are electrostatic charges generated?
Whenever there is motion between various types of material
126
When handling computer memory chips, what can you do to reduce electrostatic hazards?
You should use a grounding strap to eliminate the buildup or discharge of electrostatic energy before you touched them to prevent possible chip damage
127
State the three classes of ESD
Class I - Sensitive items from 0 - 999 volts
Class II - Sensitive items from 1000 - 3999 volts
Class III - Sensitive items from 4000 - 14999 volts
128
What preventative measures can you take against ESDs when you are at a workstation?
You should wear a conductive wrist strap when using a grounded workbench; also include an ionizing air blower
129
What's the goal of AFNetOps?
To provide effective, efficient, secure and reliable information network services used in critical DOD and AF C&I processes
130
What Air Force command is appointed as the primary for cyberspace missions?
AFSPC is the USAF Major Command for the cyberspace mission
131
How do offensive operations support US cyberspace objectives?
Offensive operations support US cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace?
132
How do defensive operations handle network intrusions?
Defensive operations detect and deny access when unauthorized intrusions are attempted, determine the source, minimize the effectiveness and help to recover in a timely manner.
133
How do we influence the adversary's decision making while protecting our operations?
By integrating the capabilities of influence operations, electronic warfare operations and network warfare operations in concert
134
How would you define SCADA?
The term SCADA refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas
135
How are SCADA systems typically implemented?
SCADA systems typically implement a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contains data elements called tags or points
136
What do DOD IT DISR requirements mandate as a minimum?
That a minimum set of standards and guidelines for the acquisition of all DOD IT systems that produce, use or exchange information
137
What center is the execution arm for the AFNetOps/CC for the command and control for AF networks?
AFNOC
138
What are the two divisions that are a functional part of the AFNOC?
The NOD and NSD
139
Who is responsible for the net worthiness of information technology systems?
Information system owners
140
Who is the focal points or Tier-2 execution of enterprise network security and centralizes those aspects of network security previously performed by the MAJCOM NOSCs?
The I-NOSC
141
What does the Operations Flight (SCO) provide to their customers?
Technical and systems support for wing communications and computer systems including ground radio, voice networks, airfield systems, and secure communications maintenance
142
What are the responsibilities of the Plans and Resources Flight (SCX)?
SCX is responsible for base-level communication security programs, such as communications security, emission security, and spectrum information assurance
143
How are expeditionary units established to operate?
Expeditionary units are established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force
144
What is the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the US?
Constitution
145
Which title of the US code spells out the general provisions and punitive articles of the UCMJ?
USC Title 10
146
Who mainly who mainly develops ROE, and who is responsible for individual unit compliance?
General officers with approval from the National Guard Authority
Subordinate commanders
147
Who has inspection responsibility over the national guard?
The department secretaries of the US Army and Air Force
148
What US Title code assigns homeland defense responsibility to the National Guard?
Title 32
149
Which US Title code includes the war power resolution?
Title50
150
Which US Title code defines all federal crimes?
Title 18
151
Which US Title code creates the DoD as the executive component of US Government?
Title 10
152
Which US Title code expands on constitutional authority to enter the US forces into conflict?
Title 50
153
What can the results of the Schmitt Analysis be used for?
To classify operations as neither military or diplomatic
154
When was the Air Force IO Doctrine finalized and published?
August 1998
155
Who is the principal defense policy advisor to the president?
The secretary of defense
156
Who manages Air Force publications?
Air Force publications are managed by the AFDPO
157
According to the Air Force's operations doctrine what are the two pillars of IO?
Information warfare and information-in-warfare
158
What are AFNOIs and what are they used for?
AFNOIs are directive specialized publications providing operating procedures an checklists for network operations. AFNOIs are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot network software and equipment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force publications or technical orders
159
How do AFPDs relate to AFIs?
OIs assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures. OIs differ from AFIs in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level
160
What do TOs provide?
TOs provide official guidance on producing, configuring, installing, maintaining, modifying, and operating equipment or systems
161
Define telecommunications and what does it provide is with?
Telecommunications is known as electronic communications and provides us with the transmission of analogs or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate
162
What does the Air Force portal provide Air Force users?
Provides essential online resources for the Air Force and it's users at a single location
163
Why are the Air Force portals there key features?
- Common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information
- Catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross functional information systems
- Means for conducting self service functions
164
What spectrum of topics does the Air Force portal cover?
The Air Force portal covers the spectrum of Air Force missions an processes including business, combat support and command and control processes
165
What's the most important part of the Air Force portal initiative?
The user
166
What does the single sign on enable authorized users with on the Air Force portal?
To enter their password once and gain access to all their applications with no further login
167
Who manages access groups for organizational content publishers?
Advanced content managers
168
Who works in collaboration with the content publishers to ensure information on the Air Force portal is accurate and applicable with AFIs and Air Force portal guidance?
Content manager
169
Who's considered the owner of some amount of content on the Air Force portal?
Content publisher
170
What is the Air Force goal concerning accessibility to internet resources?
To provide personnel requiring access for official business maximum accessibility to internet resources
171
Who may authorize personal use of government provided hardware and software?
Appropriate officials
172
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFI 33-129, web management and internet use, by military personnel is a violation of which UCMJ article?
UCMJ, article 92, failure to obey order or regulation
173
who appoints Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites?
The wing commander
174
What exactly is email?
A method of exchanging digital messages from one party to one or more participants
175
When should you use email summaries?
Use summaries to sum up a lengthy email or to reemphasize topics of significant importance
177
What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?
Records
178
Whose rights must be protected through the proper implementation of the records management programs?
Protects the rights of the government and of persons directly affected by air force actions
179
What are draft records?
Those that can be altered and have not been signed or officially released.
180
What are final records?
Those that have been signed, officially released, and cannot be altered.
181
How must air force units at all levels mange records?
Systematically to make sure they are complete, accurate, trustworthy, and easily accessible.
182
What records relate solely to an individual's private affair?
Personal
183
What is the purpose of the staging area?
For temporary storage of records pending destruction of transfer to a federal records center.
184
Who ensures installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a SAV at least every 24 months?
RM ensures offices of record receive a SAV at least every 24 months.
185
What contributed to the need for an ERM solution?
Electronic mail revolutionized the flow of communication and significantly contributed to the need for an ERM solution.
186
Who will use dedicated space on the SANs to store e-records?
Network control center staff
187
Who is responsible for ensuring designated storage, proper use and integrity of e-files/e-records?
Base/unit records professionals, BRMs, FARMs, RC and COR
188
How will protection be applied to files and folders containing sensitive privacy act data?
By using passwords and group permissions
189
Who must monitor the e-file box and assist and or file the records in the box?
The FARM and RC
190
What is the first step in filing a document?
Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch, and use with the latest action on top
191
What should you do prior to filing a document if an attachment is missing?
Take action to get the missing records or information included in the file or make a notation to show what part of the file is missing or where filed, if included in another series
192
What items do you remove from a document prior to filing?
Remove all mail control forms and receipts, envelopes, and memo routing or coordination slips, except those containing remarks of significant record value
193
How is a record marked for filing?
Mark records for file by using the word file and the proper officials initials. Mark for file and file code in the upper right hand corner of the record. Use the item number of the separate series from the file plan
194
What is the primary purpose for maintaining records?
To ensure we can proved information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed
195
What is the first item in a file plan?
File plan
196
What program generates the file disposition control labels?
AFIRMS
197
How many tables and rules can be applied to each record series?
One
198
What are the requirements for placing disposition control labels on a guide card?
Usually affixed to the first (left) tap position of the guide card, the main thing is to be consistent throughout your files
199
What purpose does the disposition guide card serve?
Serves to identify the records filed behind it and to provide cutoff and disposition instructions for the records
200
Where do you place the disposition control label on records located away from the file drawer?
Place the disposition control label either on each container or on a card or sheet of paper in the container or binder, where it is obvious
201
Where do you place the disposition control label when a series is filed in more than one container?
Place on the first container or on each container
202
Name the three record cutoff categories.
N/A - disposition instruction does not contain a month or year
MO - disposition instructions contain 1 - 11 months
30 Sep/31 Dec - disposition instruction contains a year or 12 months or more
203
Define the term "disposition" regarding air force records?
Disposition is a comprehensive term that includes destruction, salvage, and donation; transfer to the staging area or records center; and transfer from one organization to another
204
How do records custodians accomplish the end-of-year closeout?
By transferring physical records to the inactive files area or to the staging area
205
What form is used as a packing list for transferred or retired records?
SF 135
206
When is a separate SF 135 prepared?
A separate SF 135 is prepared for each series of temporary records in a shipment and for permanent records. You must also prepare a separate SF 135 for unclassified, SECRET, CONFIDENTIAL, and TOP SECRET records, regardless of volume, when records are placed in a staging area
207
What minimum items should be included on deployed unit file plans?
Maintenance and disposition, policy and precedent, delegations, general correspondence, office administrative files, transitory, word processing files hard copy maintained in organized file, and presentation in accordance with the RDS
208
What record management advice did the DOD provide on 15 Aug 2003?
That records on combat operations in Iraq and those of all major deployments are of historical value and must be preserved for future studies and analysis
209
Who is the air force working with to establish archiving capabilities?
NARA and other major AOR areas such as CENTAF, to establish archiving capabilities within the AOR and to develop standard procedures for formatting and transferring e-records
210
What actions must you take to prevent the compromise of paper or magnetic records?
Records may be destroyed by any method that prevents compromise, such as tearing, burning, or shredding, as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. degauss or overwrite magnetic tapes or other magnetic medium
211
Explain what composes an AEF organization structure
An AEF is an organizational structure composed of Air Force capabilities that can provide the war-fighting combatant commander with rapid and responsive air and space power assets
212
How has the AEF concept changed air force operations?
By retooling from a stay at home or fixed-base mindset to and expeditionary/deployable one. Developing the means to spread tasking across the force to relieve the increase in deployments on a small number of units. Providing predictability and stability for our people
213
What document would you reference for information on Tempo Banding?
AFDP 10-4, Operations Planning: Air & Space Expeditionary Force
214
Who the authority for AEF execution and who approves these orders/directives?
Global Force Management has the authority for AEF execution. SecDef approved orders or IA directives
215
What two important principles apply in deployed communication environment?
Provide support for the joint force air component commander with ability to begin air operations and win a major theater war. Enforce operations security to ensure safe and secured communications; manage acceptable levels of risk to accomplish the mission
216
What is a unit type code?
UTC is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs
217
Define UTC posturing.
Posturing is the process of identifying and making available a unit's trained and ready capable UTCs
218
How would you best describe TDCs and its composition?
TDC is a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard-wired resources. TDC is comprised of highly transportable commercial off the shelf communications equipment, housed in transit cases, and is fully scalable to meet new air force mission requirements
219
Explain what MEFPAK is and the purpose it serves?
MEFPAK is the air force system used for TDC package movement. The purpose of MEFPAK is to provide standard descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command
220
What is JOPES and what was designed to facilities?
JOPES is the DoD directed integrated joint command and control system for conventional operation planning and execution. JOPES was designed to facilitate rapid building and timely maintenance of plans and rapid development of effective options through adaptation of approved operation plans during crisis.
221
Name three standard deployment reference files.
Three standard references are: GEOFILE, TUCHA, TUDET
222
What does the TUCHA file contain?
The TUCHA file contains the deployment data for all approved DoD UTCs, including the number of passengers and the cargo increments and the weights and dimensions
223
Describe MANFOR
MANFOR is a database containing the UTC and title, mission capability and manpower detail for each applicable UTC
224
How does LOGDET relate to LOGFOR?
LOGFOR is a subsystem of MEFPAK and COMPES which contains the logistics detail for standard Air Force packages. LOGFOR is used to collect and sotre the material requirements for UTCs. The LOGDET defines the standard equipment requirement for each
225
Name the two types of UTCs.
Standard and non standard
226
What document should you refer to for additional guidance on using and posturing UTC?
AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, Ch 7
227
What are unmanned aircraft/aerial vehicles and how are they used?
UA or UAV are remotely piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment or other payloads. They have been used in reconnaissance and intelligence gathering.
228
What are tactical unmanned aerial vehicles designed to do?
Tactical UAV system is designed as a ground maneuver commander's primary day/night reconnaissance, surveillance, target acquisition and battle damage assessment system
229
What do high altitude endurance vehicles provide?
The high altitude, HAE, development program focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real time
230
What altitude can the RQ-4 Global Hawk reach?
The RQ-4 Global Hawk can reach an altitude of 65k feet
231
Name the three components of the Predator system?
the UAV with its associated sensors and communications equipment; the ground control station and the product or data dissemination system
232
Define theater deployable communications.
TDC is a state of the art ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite or hard wire resources
233
What does the nature of the AEF concept requires us to do in regards to TDC equipment?
The nature of the AEF concept requires us to reduce the size, increase the flexibility and capacity of deployable communication systems
234
What characteristics should proposed TDC equipment strives to have?
Proposed TDC equipment should strive to have the following characteristics: functionality, modularity/scalability, open system standards, interoperability, mobility, survivability, security, and operability
235
What are three major components of TDC?
TDC is composed of three major components: Ground Satellite Terminals, Integrated Communications Access Package and Network Control Center Deployed
236
Describe the integrated communications access package.
Integrated communications access package is a suite of modules and accessory kits providing the communications backbone for deployed units. The ICAP is comprised of COTS circuit switches, hub and routers, multiplexers and on base transmission and encryption devices
237
What functions does the Promina multiplexer provide?
The promina multiplexer module provides multiplexing and demultiplexing of voice, data and message traffic
238
What is the airfield operations mission?
To deploy worldwide in support of operational forces at host nation or bare base locations and provide basic airfield services and combat airspace support to the theater AOC.
239
What are the three major systems that are part of the TPN-19?
Two operations (A & B), the airport surveillance radar (ASR), and the precision approach radar (PAR)
240
How many display indicators present information to the air traffic controllers from ASR and PAR systems?
Six
241
What is the range of the TPN-24 for air traffic controllers to identify and locate aircraft?
Sixty miles
242
What information is provided by the PAR?
Both azimuth and elevation information from 20 nautical miles away from an airfield to touchdown
243
What does the MSN-7 provide?
Air traffic controllers access to land lines, UHF/VHF radios, crash phones, emergency signals, tape recorders, navigational aids monitor and wind measuring equipment
244
What MAJCOM does the 85th EIS fall under?
Air Combat Command
245
How fast can the 85th EIS respond to wartime and emergency peacetime restoration of information systems?
48 hrs
246
What kind of major systems do C-E technicians install within SCMG?
These systems consist of initial telecommunications engineering, RF direction finding and engineering installation needs for ground radio, satellite, wide-band and secure communications systems, ATCALS and METNAV systems
247
What service does the 85th EIS provide under SCMC?
It provides worldwide rapid response for engineering, installation and repair of all forms of copper fiber-optic cables for telephone, LAN/WAN, antenna and application-specific systems, as well as antennas for radar, narrow and wide-band radio, and satellite antenna systems
248
What is the AOC used for?
For planning, executing, and assessing theater wide air and space operations
249
What are the elements of GTACS?
The AOC, CRC, ASOC, and TACP
250
What is an air tasking order?
It is the lead planning document commanders follow to start all missions. Normally it provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, controlling agencies, etc as well as general instructions
251
List the five teams of the Chief of AOC Systems
AOC Area Support, CFP, AOC Networks, C2 Systems and Data Links
252
How many sites employ the GCCS system?
GCCS in employed at more than 600 sites across the GIG
253
What are the four systems that make up the GCCS-AF program?
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System, GCCS Status of Resources and Training, Deliberate Crisis Action Planning & Execution System, Common Operating Picture
254
Which of the four systems that makes up GCCS provides a comprehensive picture of the AOR battlespace?
The COP provides a comprehensive picture of the battlespace within the AOR
255
What is the primary information that GCSS handles?
Logistics planning data
256
What are the requirements to log into the different portions of the GCSS?
A SIPRNET or NIPRNET computer and CAC or public key infrastructure certificate
257
How was the planning and execution of the Air War handled in Operation Desert Storm?
Much of the planning and execution of the air war was done by hand
258
Where are TBMCS found operating as the main planning and execusion system?
the AOCs
259
What is the responsibility of the NMCC?
The generation of Emergency Action Messages to notify launch control centers, nuclear submarines, reconnaissance aircraft and battlefield commanders around the world
260
What component of the GIG supports the President, SECDEF, and JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
The national military command system
261
What are the command nodes for the NMCS?
The NMCC, National Airborne Operation Center, USSTRATCOM Command Center, USSTRATCOM and USNORTHCOM mobile consolidated command centers and other command centers designated by the SECDEF
262
What is SACCS designed to support?
The air forces strategic aircraft and missile functions
263
How does the SACCS system achieve the requirement for survivability?
By using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths
264
What is the NSANet?
The worldwide telecommunications network supporting voice, data, and video for both classified and unclassified requirements
265
What project will replace SEAMARK?
JEWELER
266
What is the distributed common ground system?
The DCGS is a collection of communications systems
267
What is the DoD directive in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance?
the DoD DCGS program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture
268
What must the DoD DCGS do to support today's joint and combined war fighter and accomplish tomorrow's JV2020 operational mission?
Convert the voluminous amount of data received from space, air, and surface ISR platforms into decision superiority - better decisions arrived at and implemented faster than an opponent can react, or in a combat situation, at a tempo that allows the force to shape the situation or react to changes to accomplish its mission
269
What is the battlefield control system?
A radar tracker/correlator software program hosted on a powerful server based computer system which takes inputs from long range and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (pc monitor)
270
The CONUS is divided into how many air defense sectors?
Two
271
Where is the Alaskan Regional Air Operations Center located?
Elmendorf AFB, AK
272
What is the mission of the Global Broadcast System?
The GBS mission is to provide warfighters with a one-way, high data rate and high volume of intelligence info to forces garrisoned, deployed, or on the move
273
How does the GBS suite keep two-way satellite systems from having to handle every field data request?
GBS uses a form of "push and store" to distribute high-bandwidth information for local relay
274
What is the mission of the HF-GCS?
To provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air, land, and sea based users
275
Which of the 15 Global HF System stations does not remotely control from the CNCS? Why?
The south Atlantic station. Because it only provides dedicated ALE support for AMC aircraft
276
What is the purpose of the DCS HF entry?
To provide nonsecure voice and secure/nonsecure data connectivity to commanders and tactical units operating in areas of the world where DCS connectivity in unavailable or insufficient
277
What GTACS provide the war fighter's arsenal?
The GTACS provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets minimal or no support. GTACS brings a combination of range, precision, low signature and control
278
What provides the MCE with a unique ATO message handling and interface processing suite?
The Automated Air Tasking Order software application
279
What do AtHoc solutions provide the DoD with?
Provide the DoD with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via PCs, personal digital assistants, land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and giant voice systems in real time
280
What capacity does INWS give command post staff?
Provide installation personnel with quick access to critical information
