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Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What two incident levels were established by the Stafford act?
A. Emergencies and non-emergencies
B. Emergencies and major disasters
C. Natural and major disasters
D. Natural and man-made disasters

A

B

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2
Q

Which departments primary mission includes preventing terrorist attacks within the United States to terrorism; and minimizing the damage and assisting in the recovery from terrorist attacks that occur within the United States?
A. DoS
B. DoD
C. Department of the interior
D. Department of Homeland Security

A

D

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3
Q

What directive required the federal government to establish a single, comprehensive approach to domestic incident management?
A. The national preparedness goal
B. PPD-8, National preparedness
C. HSPD-8, National preparedness
D. HSPD-5, Management of Domestic Incidents

A

D

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4
Q

What presidential directive provides a nationwide template that enables federal, state, local, tribal governments, and private sector and non-governmental organizations to work together effectively and efficiently to prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause, size and complexity?
A. National preparedness goal
B. NRF
C. National disaster response framework
D. NIMS

A

D

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5
Q

Which DoD publication provides a concept of operations as well as functional information necessary to execute a comprehensive and unified response to a nuclear weapon accident?
A. DODI 2000.16, DoD AT standards
B. DODI 3150.10, DoD response to nuclear weapons incidents
C. DOD 3150.8-M, nuclear weapon accident response procedures
D. DODD 3150.08, DoD response to nuclear and radiological incidents

A

C

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6
Q

What department has primary responsibility to protect United States citizens and interests abroad?
A. DoS
B. DoD
C. Department of Foreign affairs
D. DoHS

A

A

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7
Q

Which term is defined as “our codified practices on how best to employ air and space power”?
A. Policy
B. Doctrine
C. Guidance
D. Regulations

A

B

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8
Q

Which operation is not one of the five operational pillars of C-CBRN operations?
A. Counterforce
B. Offensive operations
C. Proliferation prevention
D. Consequence management

A

B

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9
Q

When using MTTP what factor must you remember?
A. MTTPs are directive in nature
B. MTTPs are not directive in nature
C. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the strategic level
D. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the operations level

A

B

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10
Q

Which action is not part of the primary mission of the Air Force EM program?
A. Save lives
B. Maintain and restore operational capability
C. Provide support to civil and host-nation authorities
D. Minimize the loss or degradation of resources in an all-hazards environment

A

C

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11
Q

What essential elements are contained in the response mission area of the AF EM program?
A. Notification, response, and protective actions
B. Save lives, protect property, and mitigate the effects of an incident
C. Casualty treatment, UXO safing, decon, and facility restoration
D. Passive defense, consequence management, and incident response measures

A

A

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12
Q

Diseases that impact humans or animals are classified as which hazard category?
A. Natural hazard
B. Technological
C. Human-caused
D. Terrorist action

A

A

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13
Q

Which action is one of the first steps an installation commander takes in establishing a single, installation-wide EM program?
A. Appointing a crisis action team director
B. Establishing an EOC
C. Appointing an installation EMer
D. Establishing an EMWG

A

C

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14
Q

Which action is not a major element of the installation EM program?
A. Planning
B. Equipping
C. Organizing
D. Recovering

A

D

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15
Q

What factors determine the type and amount of equipment needed for the EM program on your installation?
A. The installations mission and the hazards it may face
B. The size of the installation and the hazards it may face
C. The installations mission and the number of personnel assigned
D. The size of the installation and the number of personnel assigned

A

A

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16
Q

At a minimum, how often does the MAJCOM EMWG meet?
A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Bi-weekly
D. Semiannually

A

D

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17
Q

At a minimum, how often the installation EMWG meet?
A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Bi-weekly
D. Semiannually

A

B

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18
Q

Who is the point of contact for EM exercise planning and coordination?
A. WIT
B. Exercise evaluation team
C. Exercise inspection team
D. EM support team

A

A

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19
Q

Which function serves as the essential C2 node for the installation?
A. Command post
B. CAT
C. ICS
D. EOC

A

A

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20
Q

Which installation function is activated to provide Command, control, and communication link to higher headquarters and civilian agencies and coordinates the incident response needs when installation resources are exceeded?
A. Command post
B. CAT
C. UCC
D. EOC

A

B

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21
Q

Who activates the EOC?
A. EOC director
B. EOC manager
C. Incident commander
D. Installation commander

A

D

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22
Q

Who serves as the EOC director?
A. Incident commander
B. Installed commander
C. MSG commander
D. FSS commander

A

C

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23
Q

Who provides the IC all the support requested to manage the incident, restore mission capabilities, and sustain response and recovery activities?
A. EOC manager
B. Operations section chief
C. Installation commander
D. EOC director

A

D

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24
Q

Which person would be appointed as the EOC manager by the installation commander?
A. Fire chief
B. MSG commander
C. CE commander
D. R&EM flight superintendent

A

D

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25
Which ESF is responsible for oversight of communications procedures, equipment, and capabilities? A. ESF 2 B. ESF 5 C. ESF 7 D. ESF 10
A
26
Which ESF is responsible for HAZMAT response? A. ESF 4 B. ESF 5 C. ESF 10 D. ESF 13
C
27
Which ESF is responsible for energy infrastructure assessment, repair, and restoration? A. ESF 7 B. ESF 9 C. ESF 11 D. ESF 12
D
28
Which ESF is external affairs? A. ESF 1 B. ESF 9 C. ESF 14 D. ESF 15
D
29
Which function directs, monitors, and reports mitigation and preparedness activities and maintains unit continuity for C2? A. UCC B. EOC C. Post attack recon team D. ECC
A
30
What is the goal of the integrated ECC? A. To provide an enhanced COP B. To direct all resources needed by the incident commander C. To provide a collocated location for medical and fire dispatch D. To manage communications between the EOC and CAT
A
31
Which function provides emergency call taking, alarm monitoring, sensor monitoring, video monitoring, control, comm support, channel and frequency assignments, allocation, and emergency notification responder reach back capability during emergencies as well as notification of an emergency to the receiving medical treatment facilities and hospitals? A. UCC B. EOC C. PAR team D. ECC
D
32
Which ESF is responsible for managing the CBRN control center? A. ESF 4 B. ESF 5 C. ESF 9 D. ESF 10
B
33
Which function serves as the focal point for base security and defense C2? A. CAT B. EOC C. Base defense operations center D. PAR team
C
34
Who is the trained and experienced responder who provides tactical on-scene control by initiating the ICS using SME and support from other functions? A. Incident commander B. Installation command C. CAT director D. EOC director
A
35
Which DRF members deploy to the accident scene after the first responders to expand the ICS and perform support functions? A. First responders B. Follow-on responders C. Secondary responders D. Emergency responders
D
36
Which teams are formed from existing installation and unit personnel resources to support emergency response operations? A. Specialized and support/recovery teams B. Response and recovery teams C. Emergency support teams D. Special support teams
A
37
Which team is not one of the primary emergency response support teams that are part of the DRF? A. SMT B. Contamination control team C. Response and recovery team D. EM support team
C
38
Which reason is not valid for the installation commander or a designation representative to approve releasing a trained member from a specialized team? A. Retirement B. Routine leave C. Medical disqualification D. PCS
B
39
Which team is established by installations when there is a requirement for extended sheltering of base personnel during natural disasters or man-made incidents? A. SIP team B. Emergency shelter team C. SMT D. Base support and recovery team
C
40
What is the minimum team requirement for natural disaster shelters? A. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and one security person B. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and two security personnel C. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one security person, and one person for logistics D. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, two security personnel, and two people for logistics
C
41
Which team performs decon on assets under the control of their functional area for wartime operations? A. Contamination control team B. Wartime decon team C. Critical asset decon team D. CBRN recon team
A
42
Who determines the number of personnel needed to support CCA operations? A. CAT B. Local commanders C. EOC D. EMWG
B
43
Which factor is not used in determining personnel requirements to run the CCA? A. CCA size B. CCA design C. CCA processing rate D. Number of CCAs on the installation
D
44
Who will activate the CCS teams? A. CAT B. Incident commander C. Installation commander D. EOC
D
45
Who manages the S&R teams? A. CES B. FSS C. EOC D. ESF 5
B
46
Which factor is not a limitation of the fatality S&R team? A. The army will not accept contaminated remains from the team B. The Air Force does not have the capability to dispose of human remains C. The navy is the only service that can accept contaminated human remains D. The Air Force does not have the capability to decontaminate human remains
D
47
Which team is used to recover aircraft and to support the investigation of the interim and safety accident investigative boards of an aircraft accident? A. Crash recovery team B. S&R team C. Incident management team D. EM support team
A
48
Which team is a comprehensive team that includes all components and functions of the command and general staff of the ICS structure? A. S&R team B. Incident management team C. Incident command support team D. EM support team
B
49
Which response team is a tailored force dispatched from the closest military installation by the SecDef or by the Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, through the Deputy Director of Operations, National Joint Operations and Intelligence center immediately upon notification of a US nuclear weapon incident or radiological incident? A. RTF B. Initial response force C. DRF D. Incident management team
B
50
Which response teams mission is to take immediate lifesaving actions and establish safety and security controls at the accident scene? A. RTF B. Initial response force C. DRF D. Incident management team
B
51
Which DOD response force is appropriately staffed, trained, and equipped to coordinate all actions necessary to control and recover from a nuclear weapon accident or incident? A. RTF B. Initial response force C. DRF D. Incident management team
A
52
The specific purpose of the RTF is to A. Recover wreckage and fatalities at an aircraft crash site B. Recover weapons and provide radiological accident assistance C. Assist with CBRN recon and decon efforts D. Assist with response to a terrorist use of WMD and provide recovery support
B
53
Which team may be activated by the National Military Command Center or the SecDef to support a nuclear weapons accident or incident of a weapon in DOE custody or an incident under Department of Justice lead? A. RTF B. Initial response force C. DRF D. Incident management team
A
54
Which HSPD was issued to enhance the ability of the United States to manage domestic incidents by establishing a single, comprehensive NIMS? A. HSPD-5 B. HSPD-8 C. HSPD-9 D. HSPD-12
A
55
Which HSPD was issued to strengthen the preparedness of the US to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attacks, major disasters, and other emergencies? A. HSPD-5 B. HSPD-8 C. HSPD-9 D. HSPD-12
B
56
Which phase of incident management includes actions such as planning training and exercises? A. Recovery B. Response C. Mitigation D. Preparedness
D
57
Which phase of incident management includes implementing response plans and checklists? A. Recovery B. Response C. Mitigation D. Preparedness
B
58
Which phase of incident management is an ongoing process and is considered, to some degree, a part of every phase of incident management? A. Recovery B. Response C. Mitigation D. Preparedness
C
59
What do we call an occurrence that requires some level of a response to protect life, property, or the environment? A. An accident B. An incident C. An emergency D. A major disaster
B
60
Which incident type may require several response resources and are usually limited to one operational period (12 hours or less)? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4
D
61
Which incident type requires resources that exceed the initial response and includes incidents such as an aircraft crash, a hostage situation with several hostages, or a flood? A. Type 2 B. Type 3 C. Type 4 D. Type 5
B
62
Which incident type extends beyond the installations resource capabilities for response, requiring local, state, and federal response resources to effectively manage the incident? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4
B
63
Which incident type is the most complex, requiring extensive national resources to effectively manage the incident? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 5
A
64
What general staff functions fall under the command section of the ICS? A. Finance/admin, logistics, operations, and planning B. Incident commander, operations section chief, and associated units C. Public info officer, liaison officer, and incident safety officer D. Incident commander, EOC director, and CAT director
A
65
Which factor is the key in determining how large the ICS structure will become? A. Span of control B. Size of the incident C. Size of the installation D. Mission of the installation
A
66
In addition to the IC, which positions make up the command staff? A. Time, procurement, compensation and claims, and cost units B. Finance/admin, logistics, ops, and planning C. Public info officer, incident safety officer, liaison officer D. Document, situation, demobilization, resources, and technical units
C
67
Under the ICS, who had the primary responsibility for releasing information to the public? A. EOC director or manager B. The CAT or EOC director C. Public info officer D. IC
C
68
Under the ICS, who monitors incident operations and advises the IC on all matters relating to operational safety, including the health and safety of emergency responder personnel? A. EOC director B. Operations section chief C. Installation commander D. Incident safety officer
D
69
Which unit is not one of the units of the logistics section? A. Food B. Medical C. Base support D. Maintenance
C
70
Under the ICS, which section is responsible to conduct actions to reduce the immediate hazard, establish situational control, and restore normal operations? A. Logistics B. Command C. Operations D. Finance and administration
C
71
Under the ICS, who is responsible for the direct management of all incident tactical activities? A. IC B. Planning section chief C. Installation commander D. Ops section chief
D
72
Under the ICS, a division is established A. To divide the incident into functional areas of operation B. When the incident requires additional ICs C. To divide an incident into physical or geographical areas of operation D. When the incident is small and does not require the full DRF
C
73
Under the ICS, a set number of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel is called a A. Group B. Task force C. Strike team D. Response team
C
74
Under the ICS, any combo of resources assembled in support of a specific mission or operational need is called a A. Group B. Task force C. Strike team D. Response team
B
75
Which unit is not a unit under the planning section of the ICS? A. Situation B. Technical C. Resources D. Information
D
76
What factors determine how ICS positions are filled? A. Rank B. Individual on site first C. Expertise and experience D. Recommendation from the installation commander
C
77
Which ICS location is mandatory for executing primary command functions? A. Base B. Camp C. Staging area D. Incident command post
D
78
How must local incidents be managed? A. At the highest possible jurisdictional level B. At the lowest possible jurisdictional level C. At whatever level the governor dictates D. By the closest military installation
B
79
Who ensures that the state is prepared to deal with large-scale emergencies and is responsible for coordinating the state response in any incident? A. Elected officials B. The state’s governor C. The state’s department of public safety D. The director of the state EM agency
D
80
Where does state multiagency coordination occur? A. State incident command center (ICC) B. State UCC C. State Emergency control center (ECC) D. State EOC
D
81
Which is not one of the major categories of disaster aid made available through FEMA? A. Individual assistance B. Public assistance C. Hazard mitigation D. Business continuity
D
82
Who is the principal federal official for domestic incident management? A. The president B. The secretary of Homeland security C. The secretary of department of the interior D. The director of FEMA
B
83
Which agency is the primary federal incident management field structure? A. Joint field office B. Office of management C. Bureau of land management D. Infrastructure/geophysical division
A
84
Which alert warns of a credible terrorist threat against the US? A. Elevated threat B. Imminent threat C. Sunset provision D. Wireless emergency
A
85
Who is the president’s principal foreign policy advisor? A. Attorney General B. Secretary of State C. SecDef D. Secretary of Commerce
B
86
What agency has the mission is to protect and defend the US against terrorist and foreign intelligence threats, to uphold and enforce the criminal laws of the US, and to provide leadership and criminal justice services to federal, state, municipal, and international agencies and partners? A. DoS B. DoD C. FBI D. DoHS
C
87
Which command is the Army’s C2 headquarters responsible for providing CBRNE forces, in a variety of operational team configurations to, to respond, assess, exploit, and eliminate CBRNE hazards worldwide? A. 9th Support Command B. 16th Support Command C. 20th Support Command D. 51st Support Command
C
88
Which function provides education and research to present and future leaders of the AF by helping them better prepare to combat an adversary’s WMD threat? A. CAP B. AF counterproliferation center C. Emergency preparedness liaison officer D. AF northern national security emergency preparedness directorate
B
89
Which agency is the principal advocate and single point of contact for all CBRN detection, vaccine, and medical diagnostic acquisition efforts? A. Joint task force civil support B. Defense threat reduction agency C. National guard CBRNE-enhanced response force package D. Joint program executive office for Chemical and Biological defense
D
90
Which agency’s purpose is to save lives, prevent injury, and provide temporary critical life support during a CBRN and High-yield explosives situation in the US or it’s territories and possessions? A. Joint task force civil support B. Defense threat reduction agency C. National guard CBRNE-enhanced response force package D. Joint program executive office for chemical and biological defense
A
91
Which of the following is a regional response capability to support a states governor? A. Joint task force civil support B. Defense threat reduction agency C. National guard CERFP D. Joint program executive office for chemical and biological defense
C
92
Who assigns military missions? A. The president B. SecDef C. Each service’s respective chief of staff D. The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
B
93
Which combatant command defends americas homeland-protecting our people, national power, and freedom of action? A. USTRANSCOM B. USCENTCOM C. USSOUTHCOM D. USNORTHCOM
D
94
Which combatant command develops and directs the Joint Deployment and Distribution Enterprise to globally project strategic national security capabilities? A. USTRANSCOM B. USCENTCOM C. USSOUTHCOM D. USNORTHCOM
A
95
What agreement is written to ensure NATO members operate in the same manner? A. Free trade agreements B. Mutual aid agreements C. Standardization agreements D. Status of forces agreements
C
96
Which specialty is assigned to the combined air operations center on every AEF rotation to lead and manage 3E9s in SWA AOR? A. 3E991 B. 3E971 C. 3E951 D. 3E931
A
97
Which type of organization plays an essential role in protecting critical infrastructure systems and implementing plans for the rapid restoration of normal commercial activities and critical infrastructure operations in the event of disruption? A. Fundraising B. Private-sector C. Human service D. Non-governmental
B
98
What term is given to those assets, systems, networks, and functions, physical or virtual, so vital to the US that their incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, public health or safety, or any combination of those matters? A. Critical infrastructure B. Vital nation resources C. Critical nation assets D. Key resources
A
99
What group has a key feature that is their inherent independence and commitment to specific sets of interests and values? A. Coalition forces B. Combatant commands C. Private-sector organizations D. Non-governmental organizations
D
100
The American Red Cross is a supporting agency to the mass care functions of which ESF? A. ESF 4 B. ESF 5 C. ESF 6 D. ESF 7
B

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