Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

(001) When using a halide leak detector, the bluish flame turning green indicates
a. a refrigerant leak.
b. the system is leak free.
c. the system is low on oil.
d. the system is low on oil and leak free.

A

a. a refrigerant leak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(001) On a manifold gauge assembly, the vacuum hose is 3/8 inch and the other hoses are 1⁄4 inch because larger sizes allow for
a. more restrictions which will ensure a better vacuum.
b. fewer restrictions but a vacuum may not be achieved.
c. more restrictions which makes it easier and quicker to pull a vacuum.
d. fewer restrictions which makes it easier and quicker to pull a vacuum.

A

d. fewer restrictions which makes it easier and quicker to pull a vacuum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(001) Why should the manifold gauge assembly not be used when measuring a vacuum?
a. The manifold gauge assembly will not allow a vacuum to be pulled.
b. The gauge assembly reads inches of fuel and is not accurate when pulling deep vacuums.
c. The gauge assembly reads inches of mercury and is not accurate when pulling deep vacuums.
d. The gauge assembly reads inches of water column and is not accurate when pulling deep vacuums.

A

c. The gauge assembly reads inches of mercury and is not accurate when pulling deep vacuums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(002) While taking a reading with an infrared thermometer, what happens as you get further from the object being measured?
a. The object will heat up.
b. The reading becomes more accurate.
c. The screen will eventually turn blank.
d. The reading becomes more inaccurate.

A

d. The reading becomes more inaccurate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(003) What part of the combustion analyzer gets placed into the stack?
a. The probe.
b. The entire analyzer.
c. Half of the analyzer.
d. The handle and probe.

A

a. The probe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(003) What transfers flue gases from the boiler stack to the indicator unit?
a. Pump.
b. The burner.
c. A tube and hand bulb.
d. Suction from a vacuum.

A

c. A tube and hand bulb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(003) The special slide-rule calculator and CO2 indicator are used to determine
a. oil pressure.
b. stack temperature.
c. oil and gas pressure efficiency.
d. combustion efficiency and stack loss.

A

d. combustion efficiency and stack loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(004) What will occur if you choose more than one conductor to measure when using a clamp on meter?
a. Incorrect readings.
b. The correct reading will be taken.
c. The entire systems amperage will be read.
d. The amperage of the entire component will be read.

A

a. Incorrect readings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(004) A megohmmeter should never be used on a live circuit because
a. it has its own power source that will start the compressor.
b. it has its own power source and it will ruin the meter.
c. its power source with melt the wires in the system.
d. the voltage reading will be incorrect.

A

b. it has its own power source and it will ruin the meter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(004) A capacitance checker is used to test
a. the capacitance of a resistor.
b. the voltage of a capacitor.
c. a capacitor’s ohms.
d. a capacitor.

A

d. a capacitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(005) A photo tachometer is used to read the
a. revolutions per minute (RPM) of a spinning motor shaft.
b. cubic feet per minute (CFM) of air flow.
c. feet per minute (FPM) of air flow.
d. CFM of a spinning motor shaft.

A

a. revolutions per minute (RPM) of a spinning motor shaft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(005) When using the stroboscope, the frequency and reading is displayed for the technician when the object appears to be
a. standing still and the rpm of the equipment matches.
b. speeding up and the rpm of the equipment matches.
c. slowing down and the rpm of the equipment rises.
d. standing still and the rpm of the equipment rises.

A

a. standing still and the rpm of the equipment matches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(005) What pressure will be given if both tubes are connected to the inclined manometer?
a. Velocity pressure.
b. Burner pressure.
c. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure.

A

a. Velocity pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(005) Magnehelic pressure gauges were developed to
a. overcome the disadvantages of the inclined and inclined vertical manometers.
b. establish an industry standard for air measuring.
c. eliminate the need to level equipment.
d. eliminate red gauge oil.

A

a. overcome the disadvantages of the inclined and inclined vertical manometers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(005) Why does the magnehelic gauge need more frequent calibration?
a. Because it has a poor design.
b. This feature makes in more accurate.
c. Like all gauges it needs calibration for each use.
d. Because it is a mechanical instrument and is sensitive to physical abuse, dirt, dust, corrosive gases, and fluids.

A

d. Because it is a mechanical instrument and is sensitive to physical abuse, dirt, dust, corrosive gases, and fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(005) Why is the accuracy at filters, louvers, and coils very rough?
a. Due to the limited reach of the probe.
b. Because the probe is not placed into the stack.
c. Due to the uncertainty of the Ak (correction factor) area.
d. Because the entire analyzer with probe must be placed into the stack.

A

c. Due to the uncertainty of the Ak (correction factor) area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(005) In order to be measured by the flow hood, how is all of the air forced to flow through the diffuser or grille?
a. A flow hood or capture box completely surrounds and covers a diffuser or grille.
b. A flow hood will be combined with other tools to capture all of the air.
c. The diffusers are modified.
d. A diffuser adjuster is used.

A

a. A flow hood or capture box completely surrounds and covers a diffuser or grille.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(005) When are flow hoods especially practical?
a. When a journeyman is using them.
b. When performing a hydronic balancing test in a new building.
c. In brand new buildings where the blueprints are readily available.
d. In existing buildings where the manufacturers or Ak factors of the outlets are not known.

A

d. In existing buildings where the manufacturers or Ak factors of the outlets are not known.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(005) If you need a tool that functions as a balancing flowmeter you should select
a. a venturi flowmeter.
b. an orifice plate.
c. a circuit tester.
d. a flow hood.

A

c. a circuit tester.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(006) When pipe is needed for a high pressure application you should select
a. standard strong pipe.
b. extra strong pipe.
c. extra thin pipe.
d. standard pipe.

A

b. extra strong pipe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(006) Pipe should not be threaded when it is
a. not heavy enough to withstand it.
b. 1⁄2 the wall thickness of the steel weight.
c. a wall thickness less than standard weight.
d. a wall thickness more than standard weight.

A

c. a wall thickness less than standard weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(006) When would flanges be installed?
a. To install flare fittings.
b. For permanent installs.
c. With extra strong weighted metal.
d. Wherever it may be necessary to open the joint for service or replacement of components.

A

d. Wherever it may be necessary to open the joint for service or replacement of components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(007) What must be done before you apply pressure on the dies?
a. Be sure the pipe is threaded.
b. Remove the threaded pipe from the machine.
c. Back off the diestock until it is clear of the pipe in the chuck.
d. Be sure you have the oil running to help start the segments on the pipe.

A

d. Be sure you have the oil running to help start the segments on the pipe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(007) How are the die segments released?
a. Release lever.
b. Return lever.
c. Supply lever.
d. Oil lever.

A

a. Release lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(008) After you clean the threads of the fitting with a wire brush, what is the next step?
a. Remove the threads.
b. Clean the threads with a detergent.
c. Clean the male threads with pipe joint compound.
d. Apply a small amount of pipe joint compound to the male threads.

A

d. Apply a small amount of pipe joint compound to the male threads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(008) After you screw the fitting hand tight on the pipe in a clockwise direction you immediately
a. tighten with the correct-sized pipe wrench about 2 more turns.
b. tighten with the correct-sized pipe wrench about 5 more turns.
c. tighten with any sized pipe wrench about 3 more turns.
d. select a pipe wrench size.

A

d. select a pipe wrench size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(008) After you screw the coupling on the pipe hand-tight without using a vise, the next step is to?
a. select one wrench of the proper size.
b. apply pipe dope to the male threads.
c. clean the pipe and fitting threads.
d. select two wrenches.

A

d. select two wrenches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(009) Aluminum tubing is mostly used in
a. gas lines.
b. burner feed lines.
c. air conditioning applications.
d. the manufacture of evaporators for domestic refrigerators.

A

d. the manufacture of evaporators for domestic refrigerators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(009) Stainless steel tubing is used
a. in domestic refrigerators.
b. in all oil burning equipment.
c. in air conditioning applications.
d. with milk-handling systems, ice cream manufacture, and in food processing.

A

d. with milk-handling systems, ice cream manufacture, and in food processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(009) If you are required to make connections between steel pipe and copper pipe, which fitting would you choose?
a. A tee.
b. An elbow.
c. An adapter.
d. Tees and elbows.

A

c. An adapter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(010) What is done immediately after the tubing has been cut with a tube cutter?
a. Thread the tubing.
b. Install the copper into the system.
c. Measure the length needed for the installation.
d. Use the tube reamer on the cutter to remove the burr inside the tube.

A

d. Use the tube reamer on the cutter to remove the burr inside the tube.

32
Q

(010) The first step in cutting tubing with a hacksaw is to select which hacksaw blade
a. 5 teeth per inch.
b. 8 teeth per inch.
c. 30 teeth per inch.
d. 32 teeth per inch.

A

d. 32 teeth per inch.

33
Q

(011) After slipping the nut on the tubing the next step is to
a. place anchors on pipe every 20 feet.
b. design pipe bends or loops into the system.
c. use special design elbows and tees on system.
d. insert the end of the tubing into the correct-sized hole in the flaring block.

A

d. insert the end of the tubing into the correct-sized hole in the flaring block.

34
Q

(011) When fabricating a single flare, the next step after you tighten the block’s clamp is to
a. insert tubing in the flaring block.
b. put all pieces back into the flaring kit.
c. place refrigerant oil on the flaring cone.
d. unscrew the clamp handle and open the block.

A

c. place refrigerant oil on the flaring cone.

35
Q

(012) The gate valve is not suitable for throttling flow because
a. the velocity of flow against the partly opened valve may cause vibration and damage.
b. the vibrations it causes could create incorrect pressure readings.
c. its design will only allow it to be opened 100%.
d. it has similar characteristics of the check valve.

A

a. the velocity of flow against the partly opened valve may cause vibration and damage.

36
Q

(013) What does the mixing valve do when the leaving water temperature rises above set point?
a. Closes off all discharge.
b. Opens the hot water up more.
c. Mixes refrigerant to keep the temperature down.
d. It will throttle back the hot water and “open up” the cold water.

A

d. It will throttle back the hot water and “open up” the cold water.

37
Q

(013) What position should the service valve be in during normal operation?
a. Cracked.
b. Back seated.
c. Front seated.
d. Mid position.

A

b. Back seated.

38
Q

(013) Cracking a service valve will
a. isolate the compressor.
b. prevent a pressure rush.
c. isolate the high and low side of the system.
d. prevent pressure readings from being taken.

A

b. prevent a pressure rush.

39
Q

(014) What type of cross connection exists if the spout on a sink faucet extends below the overflow rim?
a. Inlet.
b. Direct.
c. Outlet.
d. Indirect.

A

d. Indirect.

40
Q

(014) What hazard may cause a significant change in water quality?
a. Class I.
b. Class II.
c. Class III.
d. Class IV.

A

b. Class II.

41
Q

(015) When should the air gap be used?
a. To protect against backpressure.
b. For Class I hazards only.
c. Whenever possible.
d. Never.

A

c. Whenever possible.

42
Q

(016) To completely burn acetylene, it is not necessary to supply all 11⁄2 parts of oxygen because
a. a portion of the acetone is derived from the air surrounding the flame.
b. a portion of the oxygen is derived from the air surrounding the flame.
c. oxygen does not mix with acetylene outside of the tank.
d. oxygen is pulled from inside the acetylene tank.

A

b. a portion of the oxygen is derived from the air surrounding the flame.

43
Q

(016) When will the safety plugs in acetylene cylinders melt?
a. 202 to 222 °F.
b. 210 to 220 °F.
c. 212 to 220 °F.
d. 225 to 235 °F.

A

c. 212 to 220 °F.

44
Q

(016) Care must be taken to prevent propane/butane torch hose damage to
a. prevent complete combustion.
b. keep the customer satisfied.
c. ensure a better connection.
d. prevent a possible fire.

A

d. prevent a possible fire.

45
Q

(016) What is the last step in operating the propane/butane torch?
a. Attach the torch assembly to the can of propane or butane.
b. Store the assembly in a safe and cool place.
c. Turn the valve off.
d. Solder the joint.

A

b. Store the assembly in a safe and cool place.

46
Q

(017) Oxygen valve threads are right handed to
a. prevent external combustion.
b. prevent internal combustion.
c. keep you from confusing the oxygen connection with the acetone connections.
d. keep you from confusing the oxygen connection with the acetylene connections.

A

d. keep you from confusing the oxygen connection with the acetylene connections.

47
Q

(017) The gases from the oxygen and acetylene cylinders are mixed in the
a. tanks.
b. torch tip.
c. mixing head.
d. torch tip and in the tanks.

A

c. mixing head.

48
Q

(017) How can a regulator leak be detected?
a. A hissing sound coming from the tank valve.
b. The tank valve will be stuck in the closed position.
c. A gradual pressure rise on the working pressure gauge after the cylinder or manifold valve is opened.
d. A gradual pressure rise on the working pressure gauge before the cylinder or manifold valve is opened.

A

c. A gradual pressure rise on the working pressure gauge after the cylinder or manifold valve is opened.

49
Q

(017) What could occur if copper is used to replace a brass hose splice?
a. Copper acetylene is formed which explodes violently.
b. Solder acetylene is formed which explodes violently.
c. Soldering efficiency will increase by 25 percent.
d. Brazing efficiency will increase by 25 percent.

A

a. Copper acetylene is formed which explodes violently.

50
Q

(018) Each acetylene and oxygen cylinder valve is cracked to
a. blow out any dirt that may be lodged in the outlet nipple.
b. blow out any dirt that may be lodged in the mixing head.
c. blow out any dirt that may be lodged in the hoses.
d. help make soldering easier.

A

a. blow out any dirt that may be lodged in the outlet nipple.

51
Q

(018) What is the first step in disassembling an oxyacetylene outfit?
a. Bleed the regulators.
b. Remove the torch tip.
c. Disconnect the regulator.
d. Be sure the gas supply is off.

A

d. Be sure the gas supply is off.

52
Q

(018) Using a torch wrench helps prevent
a. rounding the torch tips.
b. random pressure increases.
c. random pressure decreases.
d. rounding of corners on connecting and union nuts.

A

d. rounding of corners on connecting and union nuts.

53
Q

(019) Soft metals are used for soldering because
a. they have low melting points.
b. they have higher melting points.
c. the softer metal is not as abrasive.
d. they are less harmful to the environment.

A

a. they have low melting points.

54
Q

(019) What is the next step after you think the metal is at the solder’s melting point and you place the flame at the center of the fitting?
a. Move the flame around.
b. Shut off the torch handle.
c. Ensure connections are dry.
d. Touch the solder to the bottom of the joint.

A

d. Touch the solder to the bottom of the joint.

55
Q

(019) What is a cause for solder not staying on a joint?
a. The pour point is too low.
b. The melting point is the same as the pour point.
c. The melting point and flow points are too far apart.
d. The melting point and flow points are too close together.

A

d. The melting point and flow points are too close together.

56
Q

(019) Why should 95/5 solder never be used on the discharge line of a refrigerant system?
a. It will become weak and leak.
b. It will cause a restriction in the line.
c. It was designed for aluminum tubing only.
d. It will cause the refrigerant temperature to be higher.

A

a. It will become weak and leak.

57
Q

(020) How is energy used in the HVAC/R career field?
a. It is destroyed.
b. It is converted.
c. It is left alone.
d. It is created.

A

b. It is converted.

58
Q

(020) Water sitting at a valve will be potential energy until
a. the static pressure is equal on both sides of the valve.
b. velocity pressure is released and static pressure is added.
c. a technician opens the valve and allows the water to flow.
d. an automated control closes the valve and allows the water to flow.

A

c. a technician opens the valve and allows the water to flow.

59
Q

(020) When the flow of heat is not reflected in a temperature change, what type of heat change is taking place?
a. Latent heat.
b. Sensible heat.
c. Residual heat.
d. Latent and sensible heat.

A

a. Latent heat.

60
Q

(020) Molecules closest together when an object is
a. not very dense.
b. a liquid.
c. a solid.
d. a gas.

A

c. a solid.

61
Q

(020) If pipes are warm and the air is cool, how will the air be warmed?
a. The transfer of heat to the cooler air.
b. The transfer of heat to the warmer air.
c. Heat transfer will not occur in this situation.
d. The transfer of heat from the air to the warmer pipes.

A

a. The transfer of heat to the cooler air.

62
Q

(020) When a fan propels air across a hot or cold surface, what generally increases heat transfer?
a. Shutting off the fan.
b. A decrease in velocity.
c. The fan slowing down.
d. An increase in velocity.

A

d. An increase in velocity.

63
Q

(021) When are static measurements taken on an air system?
a. Static measurements are not taken in air systems.
b. After the filter drier is removed.
c. While the fan is moving air.
d. While the fan is off.

A

c. While the fan is moving air.

64
Q

(021) Velocities measured at different points in the same cross-section of a pipe or ducts are not the same because
a. velocity is constant throughout the system.
b. molecules may slip against each other.
c. there is no friction present.
d. static pressure increases.

A

b. molecules may slip against each other.

65
Q

(021) If there is no fluid flow in the system, then TP = SP, or
a. system pressure at any point is equal to the static pressure at that point.
b. velocity pressure will be greater than 5 inches of water column.
c. velocity pressure would be greater than static pressure.
d. total pressure will be greater than static pressure.

A

a. system pressure at any point is equal to the static pressure at that point.

66
Q

(022) In a closed system with constant pressure, if the temperature increases the
a. volume will decrease.
b. volume will increase.
c. volume will stay constant.
d. temperature will eventually drop.

A

b. volume will increase.

67
Q

(022) Why is it impossible to superheat steam in the presence of boiling water?
a. Steam will never be superheated in HVAC/R.
b. Boiler stack temperatures will not allow this to happen.
c. All the added heat only evaporates more water until all the water has boiled to steam.
d. All of the added heat condenses into more water until all the steam is turned to water.

A

c. All the added heat only evaporates more water until all the water has boiled to steam.

68
Q

(023) What will the dry-bulb, wet-bulb, and dew point temperatures be when air is saturated?
a. The dew point will be higher than the dry bulb.
b. The wet bulb will be higher.
c. The dry bulb will be higher.
d. They will all be the same.

A

d. They will all be the same.

69
Q

(023) If the spray water is colder than the dew point of the entering air, the sprays will
a. cleanse the air.
b. humidify the air.
c. dehumidify the air.
d. humidify and dehumidify the air.

A

c. dehumidify the air.

70
Q

(024) When is solar loading averaged?
a. In the morning.
b. In the evening.
c. Throughout the day.
d. During the hottest part of the day.

A

c. Throughout the day.

71
Q

(025) What is the final step of heat load calculations?
a. Add sensible and latent loads.
b. Gather building information.
c. Review and trust your work.
d. Speak with the customer.

A

c. Review and trust your work.

72
Q

(026) What is the first step in determining equipment sizing?
a. Save data.
b. Order the unit.
c. Select the correct equipment.
d. Install and monitor the equipment.

A

c. Select the correct equipment.

73
Q

(026) After selecting the correct equipment, the next step is to
a. save the data.
b. order the unit.
c. install the equipment.
d. monitor the equipment in operation.

A

b. order the unit.

74
Q

(027) If equipment cannot keep up with the load, what could be assumed about the system?
a. It is oversized.
b. It is undersized.
c. The load is not enough.
d. That there is no latent heat generated.

A

b. It is undersized.

75
Q

(027) What is the final step when finding mistakes with sizing?
a. Calculate latent heat, accurately.
b. Calculate building dimensions.
c. Check current facility use.
d. Recheck initial design.

A

c. Check current facility use.