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Paralegal Journeyman Course > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When did the National Security Act create the DoD and establish the Air Force as an independent service?

A

18 September 1947

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2
Q

Who directed that the Air Force Office of TJAG be established on 25 June 1948?

A

Congress

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3
Q

How long does TJAG hold the position

A

4 year term (similar to POTUS)

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4
Q

What rank must TJAG be?

A

Major General from the 25 June 1948 creation
Changed to Lt General on 28 January 2008

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5
Q

When did the Judge Advocate General’s Department become The Judge Advocate General’s Corps?

A

July 2003

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6
Q

Who was the first AF Judge Advocate General?

A

Colonel Reginald C. Harmon
sworn in 8 Sept 1948 and took the Maj Gen rank that same day

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7
Q

What General Order was The Judge Advocate General’s Department established under by the Secretary of the AF?

A

General Order No. 7

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8
Q

When was General Order No.7 established?

A

25 January 1949

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9
Q

When was the first JASOC course offered to AF Lawyers at the AFJAGS at Maxwell AFB?

A

Jan 1951

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10
Q

When did the AFJAG school close?

A

At the end of the Korean War in 1955 but reopened in 1968

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11
Q

What occurred on 1 May 1955

A

We received a distinct AFSC - 705X0 - Legal Services Specialist

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12
Q

What were Legal Services Specialists classified as before getting our own AFSC?

A

Administrative Specialists

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13
Q

When was the AF Paralegal’s 50th Anniversary?

A

June 2005

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14
Q

When was the position of Special Assistant to TJAG established?

A

3 Sept 1970

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15
Q

Who was the first Special Assistant to TJAG?

A

CMSgt Steve Swigonski

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16
Q

List some of CMSgt Steve Swigonski’s noteworthy contributions

A

Gaining approval for a paralegal school.
Prepared the fist promotion study guide for Legal Services Specialist/Technicians

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17
Q

Where were paralegals trained between 1954 to 1972?

A

Naval Justice School at Newport, Rhode Island.

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18
Q

When did the Paralegal Apprentice Course begin, and where?

A

5 Jan 1972 at Keesler AFB

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19
Q

When did the paralegal apprentice school move to Maxwell AFB?

A

July 1993

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20
Q

What is the Special Assistant to TJAG position now called?

A

Senior Paralegal Manager to TJAG

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21
Q

Who was the second Special Assistant to TJAG?

A

Billy G. Miller

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22
Q

Who was the third (now Senior Enlisted Advisior) to TJAG?

A

Thomas R. Castleman

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23
Q

Who was the fourth Senior Enlisted Advisor to TJAG

A

Jerry L. BEcker

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24
Q

Who was the 5th Senior PAralegal Manager to TJAG?

A

George K. Moffett

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25
Q

Who was the 6th SPM to TJAG?

A

Kerry L. Miller

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26
Q

Who was the 7th SPM to TJAG?

A

Dennis P Spitz

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27
Q

Who was the 8 SPM to TJAG?

A

Karen E Yates-Popwell

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28
Q

Who was the 9th SPM to TJAG?

A

David A. Haskins

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29
Q

Who was the 10th SPM to TJAG?

A

Clemencia G. Jemison

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30
Q

Who was the 11th SPM to TJAG?

A

Avis R. Dillard-Bullock

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31
Q

Who was the 12th SPM to TJAG?

A

Ann D. Stocks

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32
Q

Who was the 13th SPM to TJAG?

A

John P. Vassallo

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33
Q

Who was the 14th SPM to TJAG?

A

Steven L. Wallace

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34
Q

Who was the 15th SPM to TJAG?

A

Larry G. Tolliver

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35
Q

Who was the 16th SPM to TJAG?

A

Bo C. Stout

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36
Q

Who was the 17th SPM to TJAG?

A

Sherry A Bowes

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37
Q

Who is the 18th SPM to TJAG?

A

Ralph E. Oliver Jr.

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38
Q

When did the ADC program go into effect worldwide?

A

1 July 1974

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39
Q

How long is the Defense Orientation Course at AFJAGS?

A

5 days

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40
Q

What pilot course was offered in August 1974

A

Legal Services NCOIC Course - refined NCOIC legal administration and office managerial skills.
Targeted what is now LOS’s and NCOICs

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41
Q

What course was offered in June 1975?

A

LSAC, Legal Services Advanced Course

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42
Q

What did LASC evolve into?

A

from one-week to two-week course and was renamed the Law Office Manager’s Course and then renamed the Law Office Management Course (LOMC)

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43
Q

When was PCC first taught?

A

1995

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44
Q

How many areas is PCC divided into?

A

six
Legal research and writing
General law and claims
MJ
Ops and international law
Law office administration
Ethics and professional responsibility

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45
Q

How big is the TJAGC

A

4,500 active duty, reserve and ANG personnel

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46
Q

When was AF GO No 7 amended by AF GO No 17?

A

15 March 1949

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47
Q

What did AF GO 49 establish on 13 July 1949??

A

TJAGs Department Reserve - now known as TJAGCR

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48
Q

What does the TJAGCR include?

A

JAs and paralegals in the ARC (ANG and AF Reserve Command)

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49
Q

Under the direction and supervision of TJAG, what do the TJAGs Corps provide?

A

Professional legal services needed to accomplish the mission of the USAF and maintain the highest degree of effectiveness and readiness as directed by Title 10 USC 8037

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50
Q

What are the responsibilities of TJAG?

A
  • Super the administration of MJ throughout the AF under Title 10 USC 806(a)
  • Furnish legal services req’d by the Chief of Staff, Air Staff, and Air Force commanders
  • Supervise AF prgrms dealing w/ international law, including foreign criminal and civil litigation, the law of armed conflict and space law
  • Designate and certify judge advocates IAW Title 10 USC 8067(g)
  • Supervise the AF Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA)
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51
Q

The senior JA on the CC’s staff serves as what position?

A

SJA

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52
Q

SJAs must advise their CA of the statutory duty under Title 10 USC 806(b), to do what?

A

at all times communicate directly with their SJA in matters relating to administering MJ

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53
Q

What is an SJA responsible for?

A
  • Provide legal services req’d by CCs and staff agencies
  • Advise CCs on disciplinary matters, prepare charge sheets, and assist in preparing NJP actions; provide legal advice and assistance to SF and AFOSI personnel; and provide advice to CCs and investigating officers on all investigations conducted under a CCs inherent authority or under regulation
  • Provide legal advice and reviews actions for legal sufficiency
  • Act as an AF liason w/ the US attorney and other fed, state, and local legal dept’s, admin agencies, and judicial bodies; represent AF interests in utility rate matters; supports CC; and represent AF interests in an environmental and civilian labor matters
  • Provide briefings required by law, directive, instruction, or policy
  • Draft and review operation and exercise plans for compliance with the law of armed conflict; provide
    advice to commanders and staffs on international law matters, including foreign criminal jurisdiction,
    host country law, civil litigation, negotiations, and treaty and agreement interpretation; and provide
    advice and counsel to participants in mobility and contingency operations.
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54
Q

What directorates fall under TJAGs office?

A

Administrative Law (JAA),
Strategic Plans and Programs (JAZ),
Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals (JAH),
Training and Readiness (JAI),
Operations and International Law (JAO),
Commercial Law and Litigation (JAQ),
Air Force Trial Judiciary (JAT),
Professional Development (JAX), and
the Senior Paralegal Manager

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55
Q

What does AFLOA stand for?

A

Air Force Legal Operations Agency

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56
Q

What is AFLOA and who does it direct and supervise?

A

AFLOA is a field operating agency (FOA) and it directs and supervises these directorates:
- TJAG school
- Civil Litigation
- USAF Judiciary
- Commercial Law and Litigation
- Community Legal Services
- Legal Information Services

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57
Q

Who composes the TJAGs Corps?

A

TJAG
TDJAG
SPM to TJAG
SJAs
ASJAs
Airmen
Civilians employed by the Corps

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58
Q

What does the Air Reserve Component consist of?

A

The ANG, Air Force Reserve (AFR) Category (CAT) A and AFR Cat B.

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59
Q

Discuss the ANG

A

Component of National Guard and also a Reserve component of USAF
State and Fed mission
Nearly all of the 136 ANG JA offices are comprised of “traditional Guardsmen” that drill one weekend each month and complete a 15-day tour each fiscal yr.
In Title 32 status unless deployed (then in Title 10)
ANG JA offices consist of SJA, DSJA an 2 paralegals

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60
Q

Discuss Category A reservists

A

participate in Reserve units
Reserve legal offices consist of SJA, DSJA and two or more paralegals
One weekend each month and 14-day annual tour each fiscal year
Referred to as “traditional reservists”

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61
Q

Cat B reservists (I M A Bee)

A

Individual Mobilization Augmentees
Supports AD forces
does at least 24 inactive duty training periods (12 full 8-hr IDT days) and an annual tour of 12 days AD training each fiscal year.

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62
Q

How many total awards are there for TJAGC?

A

13 total, but CDCs only go over 10

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63
Q

Who is the Albert Kuhfeld Award for?

A

Most outstanding AD JA in the rank of Capt or Major as of 31 Dec of the year the award is given

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64
Q

Who is the Reginald Harmon award for?

A

Most outstanding ARC judge advocate in the grade of Lt Col or below as of 31 Dec the year the award is given

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65
Q

Who is the James O Wrightson Jr. Award for?

A

Most outstanding civilian attorney

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66
Q

Who is the Karen-Yates Popwell Award for?

A

Most outstanding SNCO Paralegal (Old people POP)

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67
Q

Who is the Steve Swigonski award for?

A

Most outstanding NCO Paralegal (Swig = drinking = commonly NCOs)

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68
Q

Who is the Thomas Castleman Award for?

A

Most outstanding junior NCO paralegal (Castle = kids = SrA+below)

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69
Q

Who is the David Westbrook Award for?

A

Most outstanding Air Reserve Component (ARC) NCO

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70
Q

Who is the Andrew Stadler Award for?

A

For the most outstanding ARC E-7 or E-8

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71
Q

Who is the Harold Vague Award for?

A

most outstanding civilian

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72
Q

Who does the Stuart Reichart Award go to?

A

The most outstanding senior attorney. Military or civilian attorneys with 14 years of service with the DoD and the most recent 7 years as a JA (AD or ARC) or civilian attorney or both for the Air Force

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73
Q

What is the special service award?

A

Recognizes exceptionally worthy performance by mbrs in the legal community or outstanding contributions to TJAGC. Can be awarded to mil mbr, civ employee outside the corps, or a mbr of civ community

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74
Q

Who can receive the Unsung Hero Award?

A

TJAG personally selects and person nominated

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75
Q

Who can win the Joy Dunlap Family Service Award?

A

Recognizes the TJAGC family mbr who has made a significant contribution to the TJAGC. Suspense is 1 April annually

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76
Q

Who establishes their own procedures to select command/organizational nominees?

A

MAJCOMS and AFLOA

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77
Q

What’s the limit on Reichart Award nominations?

A

No limit

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78
Q

Where are all Reichart award nominations sent?

A

Professional Development Directorate, Office of The Staff Judge Advocate

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79
Q

Where do all other FOAs and other direct reporting units (DRUs) submit their nominations?

A

AF/JAX

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80
Q

The people you supervise must do what?

A

produce high-quality work in a timely manner

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81
Q

What are some of the qualities of a supervisor?

A

 Knowing the job and realizing the scope of yours.
 Making prompt decisions that you can depend on.
 Giving clear, concise oral and written instructions.
 Being impartial, and having a single set of rules that everyone is expected to follow.
 Being interested in his/her subordinate welfare, career advancement, promotions, personal
life and affairs to the extent that the supervisor is aware of his/her effect on morale and productivity.
 Being a good teacher, and knowing how to organize a program that will train all personnel properly.
 Having a good education—and the initiative to constantly keep abreast of developments affecting your career field.
 Understanding the responsibility that comes with his/her rank and acting accordingly.

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82
Q

How are you judged as a supervisor?

A

How well you meet the requirements and by the volume and quality of production achieved within the established time limits

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83
Q

After ensuring a new arrival finds a comfortable place to live, what is next?

A

Tour of the base, introduce them to the office and a workcenter orientation

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84
Q

What are some items that should be covered in the workcenter orientation?

A
  • Your work center’s policies and procedures, and ensure the new arrival understands what he/she will be doing.
  • duty hours, breaks, uniform standards, and other activities of his/her new work environment are clear and understood.
  • All trng requirements for upgrade and/or qualification training and any safety requirements.
  • Responsibilities as a trainee, trainer, task certifier, and supervisor, as applicable.
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85
Q

What does WebFLITE Roster stand for?

A

The Web Federal Legal Information Through Electronics Roster (or just Roster)

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86
Q

How is Roster used

A
  • JAG uses Roster to download biographies and photos prior to Article 6 visits
  • MAJCOM and NAF offices use it for functions such as determining the number of personnel assigned to an office, how many are deployed, view biographies and photos, and managing legal offices and SAVs
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87
Q

How often do you certify your information in Roster?

A

Annually

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88
Q

Can anyone besides you certify your information in Roster?

A

No

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89
Q

How do LOS’s use Roster?

A
  • As a management tool.
  • Allows LOS’s to bring new personnel into the office, move personnel from section to section, manage positions within each section, assign new user accounts, and match unit personnel management roster (UMPR) position numbers.
  • Used to keep office contact information current, update inspection ratings, update SPCM and GCM commanders as well as office hours.
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90
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring info f/ the office and it’s personnel is kept accurate and up-to-date?

A

The LOS/manager

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91
Q

Who must be contacted to update the correct position numbers?

A

MPS

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92
Q

What are formal manpower actions based on?

A

Air Force Manpower databases - NOT ROSTER

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93
Q

How often are CAT A reservists EPRs written?

A

Every two years. The first EPR is due after 20 months or more time in service (based on the Date Initial Entry Uniformed Services date) and the mbr has not had a report before (this is for SrA or below).

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94
Q

If the Cat A reservist is already an NCO, when do they get their first EPR in the reserves?

A

two years after accession into the reserves

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95
Q

For CAT B reservists who are SSgt or above, how often are EPRs required?

A

every two years for SSgts+ who have accumulated at least 16 points.

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96
Q

When is a CRO required for Cat B Reservists?

A

when the rater or ratee departs PCS, the IMA unit of attachment changes or the IMA is released for an AD assignment (AD or extended AD/AGR) AND has earned atleast 16 pts since last rating.

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97
Q

Who can direct a special report of a CAT B Reservist?

A

A CC (Wg, Gp or higher), MAJCOM/central IMA program manager, HQ AFPC, HQ ARPC.

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98
Q

When are LOEs required for Cat B reservists?

A
  • For AD tours at a legal office other than the mbrs assigned unit of attachment
  • LOE sent to mbrs rater
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99
Q

Where are LOEs for Cat B reservists kept?

A

Participation folder until the EPR is complete

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100
Q

What is the PEDB?

A

Paralegal Enlisted Development Board
Convened in May
Qualitative eval of all Cat A and B paralegals.

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101
Q

What does PEDB determine?

A

Retention in current position and quality review of Reserve paralegal prgrm and prsnl. Selection for special duties, command assignments, attachments, etc. Career counseling and feedback upon request.

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102
Q

What are ARC tours (Air Reserve Component)

A

The means by which ARC mbrs complete their req’d trng and support short-term needs of AD force. Consist of
- Mil personnel appropriation days (MPA)
- Quadrennial tour/home station support
- Annual tour
- Inactive duty training
- Seasoning training
- Unit training assembly participation system (UTAPS)

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103
Q

What are MPA days?

A

Mil prsnl appropriation days used to support the AD component missions

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104
Q

What are quadrennial tour/home station support?

A

ARC paralegal must perform two consecutive weeks of trnd at an AD installation level office every 4 yrs

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105
Q

What is the annual tour?

A

The annual tour is the minimal period of AD trng Cat B reserve members must perform each fiscal year.
Provides individual and or unit readiness trng.
12 to 14 days of annual tour days each fiscal year

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106
Q

What is IDT?

A

Inactive duty training
- minimum of 4-hour period of training, duty, or instruction for which a reservist will receive 1 point.
- ARC paralegal may work up to two blocks of IDTs in one day for an 8-hour minimum work day.

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107
Q

What is the seasoning training?

A

training incentive program
- The program allows recent 3-skill
level paralegals and officer initial skills formal school graduates to voluntarily remain on active duty for training (ADT) orders until they have been trained via on-the-job training (OJT).

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108
Q

What is Unit Training Assembly Participation System

A

UTAPS. This program requires one weekend of inactive duty training every month,

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109
Q

What is Air Reserve Component Statistical Reporting System?

A

Air Reserve Component Statistical Reporting System (ARCStaRS) is a computerized tool used to
track the workload of Reserve Component judge advocates and paralegals.

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110
Q

What is the UT&W

A

The utilization and training workshop

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111
Q

What’s the specific purpose of the UT&W?

A

serves as a quality control tool and as a forum to determine education and training requirements for the career field

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112
Q

Who are key attendees for the UT&W?

A
  • MAJCOM functional managers - review all functional area job tasks and match them to the applicable skill level.
  • SME’s - provide input on the tasks being discussed.
  • After each task is discussed, the AFCFM will call for the functional managers to vote. The vote is to include it in the CFETP, if training takes place, where, and at what level.
  • The outcome of the U&TW is a completed CFETP document.
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113
Q

What is the CFETP?

A
  • primary document used to identify life-cycle education and training requirements.
  • Guide you through career progression, outline requirements that must be satisfied at appropriate points throughout your career path, specify the mandatory task qualification requirements for award and maintenance of an AFSC, and identify deployment/unit type code (UTC) task requirements to assist commanders in prioritizing training.
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114
Q

What does Part I of the CFETP provide?

A

information necessary for the overall management of the specialty and is divided into five sections.

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115
Q

What does part II of the CFETP provide?

A

Part II is commonly known as the specialty training standard or STS. Part II details the training requirements and is divided into five sections.

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116
Q

What is the AFJQS?

A

a comprehensive task list that functional managers prepare to describe a particular job type or duty position (e.g., a JQS for defense paralegals, enlisted court reporters, or field support center [FSC] paralegals).

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117
Q

What is the CJQS?

A
  • Command Job Qualification Standard
  • may supplement an STS or AFJQS when it is necessary to specify command-specific qualification requirements (e.g., a NAF paralegal’s duties or MAJCOM paralegal’s duties).
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118
Q

What is the AF Form 797?

A
  • Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
  • Purpose: add duty section tasks that need to be trained, but are not included in the STS or in an established JQS.
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119
Q

What is the AF Form 623?

A

Individual Training Record Folder

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120
Q

What must be in the AF Form 623?

A

 CFETP.
 STS or AFJQS (if applicable).
 AF Form 797 (if applicable).
 CDC enrollment card, answer score sheets, and scorecards (if enrolled in CDCs).
 AETC Form 156, Student Training Report.
 AF Form 2096, Classification/On-The-Job Training Action.

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121
Q

What MAY be contained in the AF Form 623?

A

 AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations.
 AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.
 Automated products and other suitable non form substitutes are authorized in lieu of all other
training documents, except the STS.

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122
Q

If not maintained electronically, all entries on the AF Form 623 are made in what?

A

Pencil

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123
Q

What is the purpose of a workcenter or master training plan?

A

identify duty and training requirements to ensure completion of all workcenter duty position requirements.

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124
Q

What should each work center training plan include?

A

 Master task list (MTL).
 Master training plan (MTP).
 Current CFETP or AFJQS.
 AF Form 797 (if applicable).
One of the best ways to get started is to develop an MTL.

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125
Q

What is the MTL?

A

Master Task List

  • a list of all day-to-day tasks required in a workcenter, to include core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed.

-It is the primary source a supervisor uses to select the tasks when developing individual JQSs.

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126
Q

What is qualification training?

A
  • designed to further develop an airman’s knowledge and skill within a given position. It’s an essential part of the OJT program, but it does not result in the award of an AFSC.
  • Qualification training provides additional training for airmen who have already been upgraded in their specialties. It’s designed to continually develop and enhance skills required to perform the job
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127
Q

Who was the first Judge Advocate General of the Air Force?

A

Colonel Reginald C. Harmon

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128
Q

When did paralegals receive a separate and distinct AFSC?

A

1 May 1995 - 705X0 Legal Services Specialist

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129
Q

Who is credited with obtaining approval for establishment of the first AF paralegal apprentice
school?

A

The first special assistant to TJAG - Chief Steve Swigonski

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130
Q

Who was responsible for the creation of the current Paralegal Craftsman Course?

A

The 7th Senior Paralegal Manager to TJAG, Dennis P. Spitz

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131
Q

List some of the duties of a defense paralegal (DP).

A

Witness interviews, gather evidence, assisting clients in AA responses, legal research and general office management.

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132
Q

What curriculum areas are the Paralegal Craftsman Course broken into?

A

Legal Research & Writing, Gen law & claims, Mil Justice, Ops & international law, Law office administration, ethics and professional responsibility

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133
Q

Under the direction and supervision of TJAG, what does TJAG’s Corps provide?

A

Professional Legal Services needed to accomplish the mission of the USAF and maintain the highest degree of effectiveness and readiness as directed by Title 10 USC subsection 8037

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134
Q

List the responsibilities of the TJAG.

A

Supervise the administration of military justice throughout the AF, Furnish legal services required by the
Chief of Staff, Air Staff, and AF commanders, supervise AF programs dealing with international law,
including foreign criminal and civil litigation, the law of armed conflict and space law; supervise the
Standards of Conduct Program; and supervise writing draft legislation, analyze legislative proposals and
coordinate Air Staff legislative positions, Designate and certify judge advocates, and supervise the AF
Legal Operations Agency.

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135
Q

Where would you go to find more info on the duties of the individuals that make up the TJAG corps?

A

AFI 51-101, the AF JAGC’s

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136
Q

Who must have at least eight years of experience in legal duties
as a commissioned officer to be appointed.

A

TJAG

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137
Q

Who is directly responsible to the commander and staff for legal
services.

A

SJA

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138
Q

Who Advises TJAG on all paralegal enlisted matters.

A

Senior Paralegal Manager

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139
Q

When TJAG is absent, who assumes those duties?

A

TDJAG

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140
Q

At what level or levels in the military structure are SJAs assigned?

A

MAJCOM, NAF (GCM Convening authority), base levels.

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141
Q

A civilian attorney may be used at what level within TJAG’s Corps?

A

At all levels throughout the AF

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142
Q

Who makes up a typical ANG unit’s legal office?

A

An SJA, DSJA and 2 paralegals

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143
Q

Who augments and supports active duty forces?

A

Category B reservists (IMA’s)

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144
Q

What are the 13 awards that may be presented to TJAG corps personnel?

A

(1) Albert M. Kuhfeld Award (Outstanding Young Judge Advocate of the Year Award).
(2) Reginald C. Harmon Award (Outstanding Air Reserve Component Judge Advocate of the Year
Award).
(3) James O. Wrightson, Jr., Award (Outstanding Civilian Attorney of the Year Award).
(4) Karen Yates-Popwell Award (Outstanding Paralegal Senior NCO of the Year Award).
(5) Steve Swigonski Award (Outstanding Noncommissioned Officer Paralegal of the Year Award).
(6) Thomas Castleman Award (Outstanding Paralegal Airman of the Year Award).
(7) David Westbrook Award (Outstanding Air Reserve Component Noncommissioned Officer Paralegal
of the Year Award).
(8) Andrew Stadler Award (Outstanding Air Reserve Component Senior Noncommissioned Officer
Paralegal of the Year Award).
(9) Harold R. Vague Award (Outstanding Legal Service Civilian of the Year Award).
(10) Stuart R. Reichart Award (Outstanding Senior Attorney Award).
(11) Special Service Award.
(12) Unsung Hero Award.
(13) Joy Dunlap Family Service Award.

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145
Q

Which TJAG award is designed to recognize active duty SSgts or TSgts for their demonstrated
excellence, superior initiative, technical skill, leadership ability, attorney/paralegal teaming,
external collaboration, and devotion to duty?

A

Outstanding NCO paralegal of the year award (Steve Swigonski award)

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146
Q

What agencies establish their own procedures for selection of command/organizational nominees
for TJAG annual awards?

A

MAJCOMS and AFLOA (p 1-16)

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147
Q

Where are TJAG award nominations sent for consideration?

A

The Professional Development Directorate, Office of The Judge Advocate General (AF/JAX).

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148
Q

When managing people, how can you achieve the greatest degree of efficiency?

A

Good supervisory practices

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149
Q

What is a key ingredient to good management?

A

Supervision

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150
Q

The Air Force has long recognized that mission accomplishment depends on the judicious
application of what two principles?

A

Leadership and management principles

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151
Q

When supervising personnel, what must you set?

A

Specific goals

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152
Q

Why should you check subordinates’ work from time to time?

A

Ensure they’re meeting or exceeding expectred work standard

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153
Q

What is a manager’s primary concern?

A

Obtaining results

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154
Q

How will your efforts as a supervisor be judged?

A

How well you met requirements and by volume & quality of production achieved within time limits

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155
Q

In what order should work assignments be completed?

A

According to priotities set by the supervisor

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156
Q

What is important about the first meeting with newly assigned personnel?

A

For it to be pleasant

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157
Q

When a newly assigned individual reports to your work center, what should be your first item of
business?

A

Ensure they find a comfortable place to live and in-process

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158
Q

What are some of the things you should include in the orientation of newly assigned personnel?

A

Work centers policies and procedures, duty hours, breaks, uniform standards, training requirements for upgrade or qualifications and safety. Responsibilities as a trainee, trainer, task certifier and supervisor.

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159
Q

How do bases normally provide information on policies and procedures to newly assigned
personnel?

A

Brochures during in-processing

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160
Q

Why is it important to keep your personal information up-to-date in Roster?

A

Management of all JAG offices and personnel is done through roster

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161
Q

Why is it important to have up-to-date bios and photos uploaded in Roster at all times?

A

TJAG, MAJCOM and NAFs use them for Article 6 visits & SAVs

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162
Q

How often is recertification of your personal information required?

A

Annually

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163
Q

Who is responsible for the yearly certification of your roster information?

A

Yourself

164
Q

What does a law office superintendent/manager use Roster for?

A

Office management tool. Managing positions within a section, assigning new user accounts in Roster,
and matching UMPR position numbers. A superintendent/manager would also use it to keep office contact
information current, update inspection ratings, update SPCM and GCM commanders and the hours for the law office.

165
Q

To ensure they are correct, what should personnel position numbers in Roster be compared
against?

A

AF Management Databases

166
Q

What are the three components of ARC?

A

Cat A - reservists
Cat B - IMAs
and ANG

167
Q

How often are EPRs required on Cat A and Cat B reservists?

A

Every two years upon achieving the rank of SSgt

168
Q

What is PEDB for?

A

It is used to retention in current position, as well as quality review of the Reserve paralegal program and
personnel; selection for special duties; command assignments, attachments, etc.; and career counseling and
feedback, upon request. It is also used to identify the most qualified paralegal for reassignment to higher
graded positions for those that meet promotion eligibility requirements. In addition, the board is used as an
administrative tool for promotion selections; however, the PEDB is not a promotion board.

169
Q

What are six methods for ARC members to complete training and support short-term needs of the AD AF?

A

Military personnel appropriation days,
quadrennial tour/home station support,
annual tour,
inactive duty training, seasoning training, and
Unit Training Assembly Participation System.

170
Q

Who is eligible for seasoning training?

A

Recent 3-skill level paralegals and officer initial skills formal school graduates.

171
Q

What is the CFETP?

A

Career Field Education & Training Plan

172
Q

What does the STS contain?

A

The training requirements and divided into 5 sections

173
Q

What is the purpose of the AF Form 797?

A

Add duty section tasks that need to be trained, but not included in the STS or established in JQS.

174
Q

What grades of airman are only required to have individual training record folders if they are in
retraining status or directed by the AFCFM.

A

SNCO’s

175
Q

What is the purpose of a training plan?

A

To identify duty and training requirements to ensure completion of all workcenter duty position
requirements; 100-percent task coverage. This includes contingency, wartime, and mandatory specialty
qualification requirements.

176
Q

What is an MTL?

A

A list of all day-to-day tasks required in a workcenter; to include core tasks, in-garrison and contingency
tasks, and additional duties performed.

177
Q

What is included in the MTP document?

A

When tasks should be trained (priority/milestones), how they should be trained (resource/method), and
approximately how long it should take to train an individual on a task or set of tasks.

178
Q

To have an effective training program, what must the trainer exhibit?

A

The desire to train personnel to perform their assigned duties.

179
Q

How do good trainers treat their trainees?

A

As individuals

180
Q

Who establishes the completion dates for projects assigned to a trainee?

A

The trainer

181
Q

When a trainee’s progress does not meet required standards, what should you do?

A

Counsel the trainee and make sure he/she understands the circumstances and knows what is required.

182
Q

What is the primary upgrade training concern?

A

Developing inexperienced personnel into skilled workers.

183
Q

What are the three components of the AF OJT program?

A

Job knowledge, job proficiency, and job experience.

184
Q

Why should you ensure trainees answer self-test questions and unit review exercises in the
CDCs?

A

To ensure the trainees understand the material.

185
Q

What is the purpose of qualification training?

A

To further develop an airman’s knowledge and skill within a given position.

186
Q

When is the best time to conduct training programs?

A

During slow periods.

187
Q

How should complex operations be broken down for a trainee?

A

Simple step-by-step procedures.

188
Q

How do you keep a trainee’s interest high?

A

Vary tasks.

189
Q

What is the first resource for LLAO duties?

A

NetRAMS

190
Q

What are the ULL responsibilities of AFLOA/JAS?

A

(1) Establish corps-wide policies and procedures for the operation and management of the ULL.
(2) Evaluate, plan for, and purchase the best combination of electronic and paper legal research resources
within authorized funding levels.
(3) Provide guidance and supervision of all AF law libraries.
(4) Centrally order and track core law library system materials.
(5) Approve disposition of excess law library materials, including materials from scheduled office
closures.
(6) Ensure the Unified Law Library Handbook is available on the NetRAMS Home Page and that the
handbook establishes procedures for managing centrally purchased library materials.

191
Q

Who may serve as the base LLAO?

A

Anyone within the legal office. There are no grade restrictions.

191
Q

How is the LLAO appointed?

A

In writing by the SJA

192
Q

When changing the LLAO, what’s the second and final thing that must be done?

A

Certificate of Transfer

193
Q

When publications are received for the law library, what must be done after materials are accounted for?

A

Stamp books with “US Government Property” on the inside cover and front edge of pages. Stamp periodicals
on the front cover.

194
Q

List the three types of law library records and their purpose.

A

(1) NetRAMS; lists the publications in the law library.
(2) The acquisition file holds invoices or other documents received with publications.
(3) The disposition file consists of documents about the disposition of publications in the law library.

195
Q

Once you receive AFLOA/JAS approval, how do you dispose of books when they become obsolete or nonserviceable?

A

Transfer them to DRMO following the standing guidelines of the local or regionally assigned DRMO
office.

196
Q

What is the process for purchasing commercial publications?

A

Prior to submitting a request to AFLOA/JAS, consider other means available to obtain material such as
local public law libraries or online media (i.e., FLITE, Lexis, and Internet).

If the new publication cannot be obtained by other means, forward a written request signed by the SJA or equivalent, as the requesting official.

Send the request letter through the requester’s functional chain of command (MAJCOMs, FOAs,
and Circuit as applicable) to AFLOA/JAS for approval.

197
Q

Who has final approval authority on all purchase requests?

A

AFLOA/JAS.

198
Q

What are the three reasons or considerations a complete inventory is conducted in the law library?

A

Annual inventory, in April; upon change of LLAO; and when directed by AFLOA/JAS, MAJCOM/JA, or
the local SJA.

199
Q

How are inventories conducted?

A

Compare each centrally and locally purchased publication on the shelf with the NetRAMS inventory.

200
Q

What was Article 6 of the UCMJ was enacted for?

A

To ensure that the military justice system is administered properly; supports good order, morale, and discipline; and operates free from unlawful command influence.

201
Q

What areas may Article 6 inspections focus on?

A

Leadership, military justice, Victim and Witness Assistance Program, special victims counsel, adverse actions, legal reviews, installation meetings, and foreign criminal jurisdiction.

202
Q

Who makes up the team of inspectors for an Article 6 conducted by JAI?

A

Judge advocate and a paralegal representative from AF/JAI and
A judge advocate and a paralegal representative from the MAJCOM of the unit being inspected.

203
Q

Where can you get comprehensive self-assessment checklists?

A

The self-inspection checklists are available on the AF/JAI FLITE Knowledge Management page for wing and NAF offices.

204
Q

When are Article 137, UCMJ briefings required to be given?

A

The first Article 137 briefing will occur within 14 calendar days on active duty.

The second time an airman will receive the Article 137 briefing will be upon completion of six months of active duty.

After the first two timelines, airmen are required to receive the reenlistment explanation within 30 calendar days of every reenlistment.

205
Q

What is the required content of an Article 137, UCMJ briefing?

A

Types of punitive and administrative discharges; bases for characterizing service; Articles 2, 3, 7-15, 25, 27, 31, 37, 38, 55, 77-134, and 137-139, UCMJ; the benefits, disadvantages, and possible future effects of each type of service characterization; the denial of certain benefits to most persons who fail to complete at least two years of an original enlistment (38 U.S.C. § 5303A); and a detailed explanation of the applicable laws and regulations governing sexual conduct by members of the armed forces.

206
Q

What does AFI 33-322 cover?

A

AFI 33-322 establishes roles, assigns responsibilities and sets polices regarding official records. It also covers how records are created, where they will be stored, preserved, backed up and how they will be protected and identified.

207
Q

List the JAGUARS programs used to collect and compile data.

A

Accessions and Recruiting Management System (ARMS),
Aircraft Investigation Board (AIB) Mishap Reporting System,
Continuation Pay Management System (CPMS),
Foreign Civil Litigation (FCL) Reporting System,
Foreign Criminal Jurisdiction Management System,
Tax Program Reporting System, and
Witness Funding Management System (WFMS).

208
Q

How often must attorneys and paralegals review TJAG’s policy memorandums?

A

Annually

209
Q

What three things must a judge advocate do to ensure the delegation of work to paralegals is
proper?

A

Maintain a direct relationship with the client, retain complete responsibility for work product, and supervise the paralegal in the performance of the delegated work.

210
Q

What does the term “attorney-client privilege” mean?

A

a lawyer shall not reveal information relating to representation of a client unless the client consents after consultation, except for disclosures that are implicitly authorized in order to carry out the representation

211
Q

What do paralegals have the responsibility to prevent?

A

The disclosure of any information related to the judge advocate’s representation of clients.

212
Q

When paralegals speak with clients, other attorneys, or any other judicial person, what must they inform them of?

A

Their status as paralegals.

213
Q

What must an attorney know to provide the best service possible to a client?

A

All the facts and circumstances surrounding a particular issue or case.

214
Q

What is legal competence?

A

The legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness, and preparation reasonable necessary for the representation of a client.

215
Q

What is legal diligence?

A

The constant and earnest effort to accomplish what is undertaken; it is the persistent exertion of body or mind.

216
Q

When does a conflict of interest occur?

A

The representation of one client will be directly adverse to another client; or there is a significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the attorney’s responsibilities to another client, a former client or a third person or by a personal interest of the lawyer.

216
Q

When must attorneys inform the proper authority of their knowledge of the conduct of another attorney or of judges?

A

When conduct is in violation of the rules, when it calls their integrity/trustworthiness into question or when it calls their “fitness” to practice law into question.

217
Q

Who is the proper authority for violation and misconduct complaints?

A

Complaints about trial judges will be submitted to the CTJ.

If the complaint is about CTJ, the complaint will go directly to TJAG.

Complaints about an attorney will be submitted to the attorney’s SSA.

218
Q

What is the purpose of HIPAA?

A

To simplify the administration of health care.

219
Q

Under HIPPA, what document acts as the Air Force’s BAA?

A

DODM 6025.18.

220
Q

Name five instances when the MTF may disclose information without the individual’s
authorization?

A

As required by any law (includes Air Force instructions and DOD regulations);
to avert serious threats to health and safety;
for specialized governmental functions (i.e., separations or discharges); for judicial and administrative proceedings, including courts-martial;
for law enforcement purposes to identify or locate a suspect, fugitive, material witness, or a missing person, which includes AFOSI, SFS, JA;
for organ donation purposes; for victims of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence; for inmates in correctional institutions or in custody;

for worker’s compensation; for research involving minimal risk; and for public health and health oversight activities

221
Q

Name the two types of government property uses that are considered proper.

A

Official and authorized.

222
Q

What are the requirements to be an agency designee when dealing with use of government
resource issues?

A

The first supervisor who is a commissioned military officer or a civilian above GS/GM–11 in the chain of command or supervision of the employee concerned.

223
Q

List the issues an agency designee must consider before allowing its employees to make limited
personal use of non-communication-type government resources.

A

(1) The use does not adversely affect the performance of official duties by the employee or the employee’s organization.
(2) The use is of reasonable duration and frequency and made only during the DOD employee’s personal time, such as after duty hours or lunch periods.
(3) The use serves a legitimate public interest (such as supporting local charities or volunteer services to the community; enhancing the professional skills of the DOD employee; job searching in response to federal government downsizing).
(4) The use does not put federal resources to uses that would reflect adversely on DOD (such as involving commercial activities; unofficial advertising, soliciting or selling; violation of statute or regulation, and other uses that are incompatible with public service).
(5) The use creates no significant additional cost to DOD.

224
Q

List the issues an agency designee must consider before allowing an employees to make limited use of federal government equipment or administrative support services to prepare papers to be presented at professional associations or to be published in professional journals?

A

The participation or paper is related to the employee’s official position or to DOD functions, management, or missions, AF organizations can derive some benefit from the participation or preparation, and participation or preparation of the paper does not interfere with the performance of official DOD duties.

225
Q

Define the term official use as it applies to communications systems and equipment.

A

Emergency communications and communications the DOD component determines are necessary in the
interest of the federal government.

226
Q

When is an employee’s use of federal government communications system monitored?

A

Any and all uses are monitored, to include incidental and personal uses, whether authorized or unauthorized.

227
Q

To ensure a successful prosecution of cases involving misuse of government property, what must the government ensure?

A

That the case is well substantiated and properly charged.

228
Q

What landmark case contains a detailed discussion of the privacy interests involved in
commercial e-mail transmissions?

A

US v. Maxwell (CAAF 1996).

229
Q

List the categories of primary sources of legal literature.

A

The three categories are: judicial reports, statutes, and administrative law materials

230
Q

Give three examples of a primary source of legal literature.

A

United States Reports, US Court of Military Appeals Reports, Military Justice Reporter, The United States Code, Manual for Courts-Martial, Federal Register, and Code of Federal Regulations.

230
Q

List three examples of a secondary source of legal literature.

A

Corpus Juris Secundum, American Jurisprudence 2d, Martindale-Hubbell Law Directory, Black’s Law
Dictionary, The Reporter.

231
Q

List three examples of finding tools.

A

West Digests, Encyclopedias, Words and Phrases, Shepard’s Citations, Court-Martial Reporter citators and indexes, The Table of Cases, Indexes in the Code, Indexes in the Code Annotated.

232
Q

Which method of legal research would you use to find the case US v. Jones?

A

Case method

233
Q

Where do you look to begin with the index method of legal research?

A

In the index of a book under the general subject

234
Q

What method of legal research uses the table of contents as a reference point?

A

Topic method

235
Q

When is the word and phrase method used?

A

When the meaning of a word or phrase is the issue and a court has rendered a decision to define that word or phrase.

236
Q

List the three things you can achieve through the shepardizing process.

A

Traces the judicial history of a case, verifies the current status of each case, and finds later cases that have cited that case.

237
Q

What is the primary avenue for computerized legal research in the Air Force?

A

Lexis Advance

238
Q

What can Lexis Advance computerized legal research be used to find?

A

Case law, expert witnesses, deadbeat parents, provide background information on companies and issues that affect DOD (e.g. anthrax, recruitment, military pay).

239
Q

How do you search for a document in the red search box of Lexis Advance?

A

Citatation or Party Name

240
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing administrative separation actions for legal sufficiency?

A

The office of the SJA

241
Q

A discharge legal review will vary depending on what two things?

A

Type of discharge and under what section a member is being discharged.

242
Q

What seven things should a discharge legal review address?

A

(1)Specific paragraph of AFI 36–3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen, he or she is being
discharged under, the recommended service characterization (honorable, general, under other than
honorable conditions), probation and rehabilitation, and the SJA’s statement of legal sufficiency.
(2) Evidence for the government and derogatory information concerning the respondent.
(3) Evidence for the respondent; service history, medals, and any matters submitted by the Airman.
(4) Any errors and irregularities.
(5) Basis for discharge and the SJA’s concurrence or nonconcurrence, whether separation or retention is
applicable and why, the characterization of service recommended by the commander and why, and
whether probation and rehabilitation is recommended and why.
(6) Separation authority’s options for action on the discharge.
(7) SJA’s recommendation to the convening authority.

243
Q

When did the ADC program go into effect?

A

1 July 1974

244
Q

What did the ADC program improve?

A

improved the negative perception military members had regarding an accused individual’s representation by a military lawyer

245
Q

What was the Defense Paralegal known as when the ADC program went into effect on 1 July 1974?

A

An ADA, Area Defense Administrator

246
Q

What was the Legal Services NCOIC Course designed to do?

A

Educate and refine NCOIC legal admin. and office managerial skills. This course was renamed Legal Services Advanced Course (LSAC) in 1975 and evolved from a one-week course to a two-week course. It is now known as the Law Office Managment Course (LOMC).

247
Q

How many TJAGC personnel are in the Air Force

A

4.5k

248
Q

Under the direction and supervision of TJAG, what does the TJAGC provide?

A

professional legal services needed to accomplish the mission of the US Air Force and maintain the highest degree of effectiveness and readiness as directed by Title 10 U.S. Code (U.S.C.) § 8037, Judge Advocate General, Deputy Judge Advocate General: Appointment; Duties.

249
Q

What are TJAG’s responsibilities

A

Supervise the administration of military justice throughout the Air Force under Title 10
U.S.C. § 806(a), referenced in AFI 51-101, The Air Force Judge Advocate General’s Corps (AFJAGC) Operations, Accessions, and Professional Development, and AFI 51–109, The
Article 6 Inspection Process.

Furnish legal services required by the Chief of Staff, Air Staff, and Air Force commanders.

Supervise Air Force programs dealing with international law, including foreign criminal and
civil litigation, the law of armed conflict and space law; supervise the Standards of Conduct
Program; and supervise writing draft legislation, analyze legislative proposals and coordinate
Air Staff legislative positions.

Designate and certify judge advocates in accordance with Title 10 U.S.C. § 8067(g),
referenced in AFI 51–101.

Supervise the Air Force Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA).

250
Q

Who serves as the commander’s SJA?

A

The senior judge advocate on the commander’s staff unless specified otherwise by TJAG

251
Q

What are SJA’s responsible for?

A

 Furnish legal services required by the Chief of Staff, Air Staff, and Air Force commanders.

 Supervise Air Force programs dealing with international law, including foreign criminal and
civil litigation, the law of armed conflict and space law; supervise the Standards of Conduct
Program; and supervise writing draft legislation, analyze legislative proposals and coordinate
Air Staff legislative positions.

 Designate and certify judge advocates in accordance with Title 10 U.S.C. § 8067(g),
referenced in AFI 51–101.

 Supervise the Air Force Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA).

252
Q

Where is TJAG’s office located and what does it fall under?

A

Located at the Pentagon in Washington DC and falls under the USAF Chief of Staff and the Air Staff

253
Q

What directorates fall under TJAG’s office?

A

Administrative Law, Strategic Plans and Programs, Air Force Court of Criminal Appeals, Training and Readiness, Operations and International Law, Commercial Law and Litigation, Air Force Trial Judiciary, Professional Development, and the Senior Paralegal Manager

254
Q

What does the Air Force Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA) direct and supervise?

A

 The Judge Advocate General’s School.
 Civil Litigation.
 USAF Judiciary.
 Commercial Law and Litigation.
 Community Legal Services
 Legal Information Services.

255
Q

Who comprises the TJAGC?

A

TJAG, TDJAG, Senior Paralegal Manager to TJAG, SJA’s, ASJAs, Airmen and Civilians employed by the Corps.

256
Q

What is the minimum participation of a Cat A Reservist?

A

One weekend each month and a 14-day annual tour each Fiscal year - “Traditional reservists”

257
Q

What’s the minimum participation for traditional guardsmen?

A

drill one weekend each month and complete a 15-day annual tour each fiscal year.

258
Q

What status are Guardsmen in unless they are deployed overseas?

A

Title 32

259
Q

What is the National Guard for the CONUS?

A

First Defender and First Responder for all natural disasters, civil disturbances, and acts of war.

260
Q

What are Cat B reservists?

A

IMA “IMA-Bee” Individual mobilization augmentees

261
Q

What is an IMA’s role?

A

to individually augment and support AD forces. They train with the AD Air Force.

262
Q

What is an IMA’s minimum participation?

A

24 inactive duty training (IDT) periods (12 full 8-hour IDT days) and an annual tour consisting of 12 days of AD training each FY.

263
Q

How many awards are there total used to recognize JAG personnel for outstanding service or contributions they have made to TJAGC?

A

13 total

264
Q

What is the Special Service Award for?

A

recognizes exceptionally worthy performance by members in the legal community or
outstanding contributions to TJAG’s Corps.

The award may be presented to a member of the corps, a military member, or civilian government employee outside the corps, or a member of the civilian community.

265
Q

What is the Unsung Hero Award for?

A

This award recognizes individuals who demonstrate selfless devotion to duty,
support others, and dedication to the Judge Advocate General’s Corps.

266
Q

What is the Joy Dunlap Family Service Award for?

A

It recognizes a TJAGC family member who, through contribution of his or her time and talent, has made a significant contribution to the strength, health and welfare of the TJAGC family.

267
Q

How many award nominees may each MAJCOM and the AFLOA submit for each category?

A

1, except the Reichart Award (no limit on the Reichart Award).

268
Q

Where are all Reichart Award nominations forwarded to?

A

The professional development directorate, office of TJAG (AF/JAX).

269
Q

Where do all other FOAs, other DRUs and other orgs submit their nominations to?

A

AF/JAX

270
Q

What does TJAG use Roster for?

A

TJAG uses Roster to download biographies and photos prior to Article 6 visits

271
Q

What do the MAJCOM and NAF offices use Roster for?

A

Determine the number of personnel assigned to an office.

Know how many are deployed.

View biographies and photos.

As well as managing legal offices and SAVs

272
Q

How do LOS/LOMs use Roster?

A

Law office superintendents/managers (LOS/LOM) use the Roster as an office management tool
As LOS/LOMs, they have the option to logon as the JAG office rather than logging into his
or her individual account.

273
Q

What responsibilities does the LOS/LOM have regarding personnel information on Roster?

A

The law office superintendent/manager is responsible for ensuring the information for the office and its personnel is kept accurate and up-to-date. This includes paralegals, attorneys, and civilians.

274
Q

What is used to make formal manpower action decisions?

A

Air Force Manpower databases, NOT ROSTER

275
Q

What can the LOS/LOM use Roster to do?

A

bring new personnel into the office,
move them from one duty section to another,
manage positions within each section,
assign new user accounts,
and match unit personnel management roster (UPMR) position numbers for your personnel.

276
Q

How does the LOS/LOM update position numbers outside of Roster?

A

You must also ensure you contact the military personnel section (MPS) to update the correct position numbers—Roster alone is not enough.

277
Q

How often are Cat Reservists EPRs written?

A

Every two years

278
Q

When is a reservists first EPR due?

A

For SrA and below: after 20 months or more time in service (based on the Date Initial Entry Uniformed Services date) AND the member has not had a report before.

For NCOs +: Two years after accession into the reserves

279
Q

What are the EPR requirements for IMA’s?

A

NCOs+ : Every two years. A special report can also be directed

280
Q

When are LOEs for IMAs required?

A

LOEs are required for AD tours at a legal office other than the member’s unit of attachment

281
Q

What is the PEDB?

A

Paralegal Enlisted Development Board

282
Q

What is the PEDB?

A

The PEDB is a qualitative evaluation of all Cat A and Cat B paralegals and embraces the “whole person” concept.

Information from the PEDB is used to determine retention in current position, as well as quality review of the Reserve paralegal program and personnel; selection for special duties; command assignments, attachments, etc.; and career counseling and feedback, upon request.

Also used to determine the most qualified paralegal for reassignment to higher graded positions.

283
Q

Is the PEDB a promotion board?

A

the board is used as an administrative tool for promotion selections; however, the PEDB is
not a promotion board.

284
Q

What records in the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG) are reviewed by the PEDB?

A

 Personnel records review and point summary.
 Reserve Enlisted Development Plan (R-EDP) on the virtual MPF.
 Point summary/participation.
 Military and civilian education.

285
Q

What do ARC tours consist of?

A

Military personnel appropriation (MPA) days.

Quadrennial tour/home station support.

Annual tour.

Inactive duty training.

Seasoning training.

Unit Training Assembly Participation System (UTAPS).

286
Q

What are MPA days for an ARC member?

A

Military personnel appropriation days
MPA days are used to support the active duty component missions.

287
Q

What is Quadrennial tour/home station support for an ARC member?

A

An ARC paralegal must perform at least two consecutive weeks of training at an active duty
installation-level office every four years.

288
Q

What is the annual tour for an ARC member?

A

The primary purpose of an annual tour is to provide individual and/or unit readiness training, but may support active duty missions and requirements.

The annual tour is the minimal period of active duty training Cat B reserve members must perform each fiscal year to satisfy the training requirements associated with their assignment

289
Q

What is inactive duty training (IDT) for an ARC member?

A

Individual reservist can only earn IDT points for activities preparing them for full-time utilization or mobilization.

An IDT is a minimum of 4-hour period of training, duty, or instruction for which a reservist will receive 1 point. Maximum of two points per day.

290
Q

What is the Seasoning Training program?

A

a training incentive program.

Allows recent 3-skill level paralegals and officer initial skills formal school graduates to voluntarily remain on active duty for training (ADT) orders until they have been trained via on-the-job training (OJT).

291
Q

What is UTAPS? (Unit Training Assembly Participation System?)

A

The program most familiar to Guard and Reserve Airmen is the traditional unit, UTAPS. This
program requires one weekend of inactive duty training every month, referred to as unit training assembly (UTA), and two weeks AD (annual training).

292
Q

How many points do Cat A, “traditional reservists” get for completing all UTAs?

A

Cat A reservists who complete all required UTAs receive 48 points (one point per four-hour training period).

293
Q

What is the tool used to track workload of Reserve Component JA’s and paralegals?

A

ARCStaRS (Air Reserve Component Statistical Reporting System)

294
Q

What is the UT&W?

A

utilization and training workshop (U&TW)

295
Q

What is the UT&W used for?

A

a forum and quality control tool to determine and manage career field education and training requirements as they apply to mission needs.

helps to ensure accuracy and viability to the Air Force specialty’s (AFS) training, and allows career fields to determine training requirements and formal course constraints.

296
Q

What does the CFETP specify?

A

guide you through career progression, outline requirements that must be satisfied at appropriate points throughout your career path,

specify the mandatory task qualification requirements for award and maintenance of an AFSC, and identify deployment/unit type code (UTC) task requirements to assist commanders in prioritizing training.

297
Q

What do MAJCOM functional managers do through the UT&W?

A

MAJCOM functional managers review all functional area job tasks and match them to the applicable skill level.

298
Q

How are functional area job tasks obtained?

A

through a process called the Occupational Survey Report (OSR).

298
Q

How are functional area job tasks obtained?

A

through a process called the Occupational Survey Report (OSR).

299
Q

What happens during the Occupational Survey Report (OSR)?

A

the Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron produces a career field task listing
with the associated frequency attributes and who performs the tasks based on the field results of the
survey.

300
Q

Besides MAJCOM functional managers, who else may attend the UT&W?

A

SMEs

301
Q

What is the outcome of a completed UT&W?

A

a completed CFETP

302
Q

How is the CFETP used?

A

guide the career field’s training efforts toward a comprehensive and cohesive training program to form well-rounded, effective personnel.

303
Q

What AFI is used to identify life-cycle education and training requirements?

A

AFI 36-2651, Air Force Training Program

304
Q

What does Part I of the CFETP provide?

A

Part I provides information necessary for the overall management of the specialty and is divided into five sections.

305
Q

What does Part II of the CFETP provide?

A

Part II is commonly known as the specialty training standard or STS. Part II details the training requirements and is divided into five sections.

306
Q

What does the STS identify?

A

The most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force Specialty that requires training.

Helps standardize the formal training of Amn to make sure that all user-command, mission-related training requirements are ID’d
Lists tasks and knowledge req’d f/ upgrade and qualification trng.

307
Q

When does an STS become a JQS (Job Qualification Standard)?

A

when used to record the qualifications of a specific individual. JQS’s are used when more detailed information than the STS must be provided.

308
Q

What is the Air Force Job Qual. Standards (AFJQS)?

A

comprehensive tsk list that functional managers prepare to describe a particular job type or duty positions (i.e. defense paralegals, enlisted court reporters, etc).

309
Q

How may the Command Job Qual. Standard (CJQS) be used/

A

To supplement an STS or AFJQS when necessary to specify command-specific qualification requirements (i.e. NAF or MAJCOM paralegals duties)

310
Q

What is the AF Form 797?

A

Job Qual. Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

311
Q

What’s the purpose of a AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS?

A

Add duty section tasks that need to be trained, but are not included in the STS or in an estb. JQS

312
Q

What is an AF Form 623?

A

Individual Training Record Folder

313
Q

Who must an AF Form 623 be maintained for?

A

Each airman in upgrade trng
individuals in the grades of AB-TSgt and for SNCO’s when retraining.

314
Q

What documents must be contained in the AF Form 623?

A

CFETP.

STS or AFJQS (if applicable).

AF Form 797 (if applicable).

CDC enrollment card, answer score sheets, and scorecards (if enrolled in CDCs).

AETC Form 156, Student Training Report.

AF Form 2096, Classification/On-The-Job Training Action.

315
Q

What are the documents that may be contained in the AF Form 623?

A

AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations.

AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.

Automated products and other suitable non form substitutes are authorized in lieu of all other training documents, except the STS.

316
Q

What is the purpose of a work center (or master) training plan?

A

to ID duty & trng requirements to ensure completion of all work center duty positions requirements

317
Q

What are the minimum items includes in the training plan?

A

Master task list (MTL).

Master training plan (MTP).

Current CFETP or AFJQS.

AF Form 797 (if applicable).

318
Q

What is the MTL (Master Task List)?

A

list of all day-to-day tasks required in a workcenter, to include core tasks, in garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed.

319
Q

What should an MTP include?

A

When tasks should be trained (priority/milestones).

How the tasks should be trained (resource/method).

Approximately how long it should take to train an individual on a task or set of tasks.

320
Q

What are the three components of an AF OJT program?

A

Job knowledge - is satisfied by CDCs that provide basic knowledge across a wide spectrum of career field subjects

Job proficiency is the hands-on training provided on the job.

Job experience This is usually gained during and after upgrade training and builds confidence and competence

321
Q

What AFI governs AF Law Libraries?

A

AFI 51-105, Legal Info Services

322
Q

What is a LLAO?

A

Law Library Accountable Officer

323
Q

What is another helpful resource for information on a Law Library?

A

Unified Law Library Handbook

324
Q

What is NetRAMS?

A

online database system used by legal offices to track Unified Law Library (ULL) assets centrally purchased by AFLOA/JAS.

First resource for LLAO duties.

325
Q

What are AFLOA/JAS responsibilities regarding a ULL (Unified Law Library)?

A

Establish corps-wide policies and procedures for the operation and management of the ULL.

Evaluate, plan for, and purchase the best combination of electronic and paper legal research resources within authorized funding levels.

Provide guidance and supervision of all AF law libraries.

Centrally order and track core law library system materials.

Approve disposition of excess law library materials, including materials from scheduled office closures.

Ensure the Unified Law Library Handbook is available on the NetRAMS Home Page and that the handbook establishes procedures for managing centrally purchased library materials.

326
Q

What are MAJCOM SJA (including field supt centers, Operating agencies, and equivalents) responsibilities regarding a ULL (Unified Law Library)?

A

Appoint in writing a MAJCOM, FOA, regional or equivalent LLAO, and furnish a copy of the appointment to the Air Force Legal Operations Agency Resource Management and Personnel Division (AFLOA/JASR). This person serves as the contact between AFLOA/JAS and subordinate-level LLAOs.

Ensure the appointment of the LLAO is updated in NetRAMS to reflect the current LLAO.

At AFLOA/JAS request, survey law offices within their commands to find out whether other offices can use excess law library publications.

Serve as the approving official for legal offices (or equivalents) desiring to discontinue receipt for AFLOA/JAS centrally purchased law library materials.

327
Q

What are other SJAs and their functional equivalents responsibilities regarding a ULL (Unified Law Library)?

A

SJAs and their functional equivalents appointed below the MAJCOM are responsible for the following:

Appoint LLAOs and ensure appointments are updated in NetRAMS to reflect the current LLAO for their office.

Budget and request local funding for purchase of law library materials not provided by AFLOA/JAS.

Ensure library resources are maintained in good condition.

Follow Report of Survey (ROS) procedures in handling missing, damaged, or destroyed library materials when appropriate.

328
Q

Who can be the LLAO?

A

Anyone in the office, there are no grade requirements

329
Q

Who appoints the LLAO?

A

The SJA, in writing

330
Q

Who is a copy of the LLAO appointment memorandum forwarded to?

A

AFLOA/JAS

331
Q

Where must the LLAO change also be updated?

A

NetRAMS

332
Q

What two things must occur when there is a LLAO change?

A

Accomplishing a complete inventory.
When the inventory is complete, a certificate of transfer

333
Q

What responsibilities does the LLAO have?

A

Maintain records and conduct inventories as required by AFI 51–105 and local procedures.

Dispose of nonserviceable or obsolete publications as provided by AFI 51–105.

Conduct annual inventory and validation of law library materials in NetRAMS during the month of April each year.

MAJCOM or equivalent LLAOs coordinate on requests for additional centrally purchased library materials from law offices within their commands.

LLAOs will monitor NetRAMS to stay aware of publications currently on order for their
respective libraries and update the information once the publication arrives or of any discrepancy between what was ordered and what was received.

Provide law library budgetary needs to the SJA. Although AFI 51–105 states the SJA is
responsible to budget for additional law library materials, the LLAO must be prepared to provide the SJA with anticipated budget needs for books not otherwise purchased by AFLOA/JAS.

334
Q

When is the annual inventory of law library materials?

A

April

335
Q

What’s the process for establishing a law library?

A

LLAO must be appointed

LLAO contacts AFLOA/JAS, specifically the ULL to setup the unit’s NetRAMS account and order core library materials

AFLOA/JAS updates NetRAMS with order status

Once books are received, check to verify proper inventory by using NetRAMS.

When books are accounted for, stamp “US Government property” on inside cover and front edge of pages.

Update NetRAMS once books are accounted for.

336
Q

Why was Article 6, UCMJ enacted?

A

To ensure the Military Justice system is administered properly, supports good order, morale, and discipline; and operates free from unlawful command influence.

337
Q

What is the overall intent of the UCMJ?

A

which is to provide a fair and responsive legal system to maintain the good order
and discipline of our armed forces.

338
Q

TJAG is required by what law to “direct the officers of the AF designated as JA’s in the performance of their duties”?

A

Title 10 U.S.C. §8037 (c) (2)

339
Q

Who else can conduct an Article 6 inspection?

A

Inspections and Standardization Division (JAI).

340
Q

What other inspection is the Article 6 inspection sync’d with?

A

Synchronized with the Inspector General’s Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

341
Q

Who makes up the Art 6 inspection team?

A

JA and paralegal rep. from AF/JAI and a JA and paralegal rep from the MAJCOM of the unit being inspected.

342
Q

When must members receive the Art 137 UCMJ briefing?

A

14 calendar days on AD, completion of 6 months of AD, within 30 calendar days of every reenlistment

343
Q

What is the purpose of the Art 137 briefing?

A

inform military members that the purpose of military law is to promote justice; maintain good order and discipline; promote efficiency and effectiveness; and to strengthen U.S. national security.

344
Q

How often do members of the Reserve get the Art 137 brief?

A

receive the initial explanation within 14 calendar days of initial entrance on a duty status with a reserve component.

They will receive it again after completing basic training, and at the time of
reenlistment.

345
Q

What are the required explanations in the Art 137, UCMJ briefing?

A

Types of punitive and administrative discharges.

Bases for characterizing service.

Articles 2, 3, 7-15, 25, 27, 31, 37, 38, 55, 77-134, and 137-139, UCMJ.

The benefits, disadvantages, and possible future effects of each type of service
characterization.

The denial of certain benefits to most persons who fail to complete at least two years of an original enlistment (Title 38 U.S.C. Veterans’ Benefits, § 5303A, Minimum Active-Duty Service Requirement).

A detailed explanation of the applicable laws and regulations governing sexual conduct by members of the armed forces.

346
Q

What is the AFI that establishes roles, assigns responsibilities and sets forth policies for official records?

A

AFI 33-322, Records Management Program

347
Q

Where do you find information on how records are created, where they will be stored, preserved, or backed up, and how records will be protected and ID’d?

A

AFI 33-322, Records Management Program

348
Q

What is AFI 33-364, Records Disposition Procedures and Responsibilities?

A

The guidance regarding how and
when records will be disposed of and will need to be reviewed in detail before disposing of any law library materials.

349
Q

Who is the BRM and what are their major duties?

A

Base Records Manager administers the installation records management program.
1. Providing assistance.
2. Managing staging areas.
3. Training.

350
Q

As a paralegal, what is giving legal advice?

A

UPL, unauthorized practice of law

351
Q

What is misrepresentation of one’s status considered?

A

UPL

352
Q

When is delegation of work to paralegals proper?

A

Maintaining a direct relationship with clients.

Supervising the paralegals in the performance of the delegated work.

Retaining complete responsibility for the work product.

353
Q

What does the term attorney-client priviledge mean?

A

a lawyer shall not reveal information relating to representation of a client unless the client consents after consultation, except
for disclosures that are implicitly authorized in order to carry out the representation.

354
Q

Define legal competence

A

Legal competence is the legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness, and preparation reasonable necessary
for the representation of a client.

355
Q

Define legal diligence

A

Legal diligence is the constant and earnest effort to accomplish what is undertaken; it is the persistent
exertion of body or mind.

356
Q

Define conflicts of interest

A

a situation that interferes with an attorney’s ability to fulfill basic duties of
candor, confidentiality, and loyalty to a client.

357
Q

A lawyer shall not represent a client if the representation involves a concurrent conflict of interest. Name examples of concurrent conflict of interest.

A

 The representation of one client will be directly adverse to another client; or
 There is a significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the attorney’s responsibilities to another client, a former client or a third person or by a personal interest of the lawyer.

358
Q

When should an attorney or judges conduct be reported?

A

 Is in violation of the rules.
 Calls their integrity/trustworthiness into question.
 Calls their ‘fitness’ to practice law into question.

359
Q

Who do complaints about trial judges get submitted to?

A

The Chief Trial Judge (CTJ)

360
Q

Where do complaints about the chief trial judge go to?

A

TJAG

361
Q

Where do complaints about an attorney go to?

A

The attorneys Senior Supervising Attorney (SSA).

362
Q

Who does the SSA notify of complaints about an attorney’s conduct?

A

TJAG’s professional responsibility administrator (TPRA)

363
Q

What can violations or misconduct result in for attorney’s or judges?

A

Violations or misconduct could result in no action, corrective counseling or formal inquiry, loss of AFSC for enlisted or loss of license for attorneys.

364
Q

When did congress enact HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) ?

A

1996

365
Q

What was the purpose for HIPPA?

A

To simplify the administration of health care.

To improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, to combat fraud, waste and abuse
in health care delivery, and to improve access to long-term care services and coverage.

366
Q

What is the general prohibition under HIPPA?

A

personally identifiable or protected health information (PHI) of individuals, living or deceased, shall not be used or disclosed except for specifically permitted purposes.

367
Q

What does HIPPA allow?

A

PHI to be used freely for treatment, payment, and health care operations

368
Q

Who does HIPAA allow providers and health plans to give PHI to and why?

A

“business associates,” who are those who act on behalf of the military treatment facility (MTF), and provides for the disclosure of PHI to individuals, other than the MTF personnel, who require such information to do their job.

369
Q

How do business associates provide assurance they will comply with HIPPA?

A

by signing a business associate agreement (BAA)

370
Q

What is the AF’s BAA?

A

Department of Defense Manual (DODM) 6025.18, Implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability
Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule in DOD Health Care Programs

371
Q

Name some programs not covered by HIPPA

A

 Drug testing program.
 Provision of health care to foreign national beneficiaries.
 Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repository.
 Provision of health care to enemy prisoners of war (POW) and other detainees.
 Education records maintained by DOD schools.
 Records maintained by DOD day care centers.
 The military entrance processing stations (MEPS).
 Reserve component medical activities outside the MTF.

372
Q

When may an MTF disclose info without an individuals authorization?

A

 As required by any law (includes AFIs and DOD regulations).
 To avert serious threats to health and safety (i.e., disclose information to security forces squadron (SFS) to prevent or lessen a threat).
 For specialized governmental functions (i.e., separations or discharges).
 For judicial and administrative proceedings, including courts-martial.
 For law enforcement purposes to identify or locate a suspect, fugitive, material witness, or a
missing person, (includes Air Force Office of Special Investigation [AFOSI], SFS, and JA).
 For organ donation purposes.
 For victims of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence.
 For inmates in correctional institutions or in custody.
 For worker’s compensation.
 For research involving minimal risk.
 For public health and health oversight activities.

373
Q

Does HIPAA apply to information for the deceased?

A

Yes

374
Q

When may a coroner or medical examiner disclose information?

A

for the purposes of identifying the deceased person, determining the cause of death, or other duties as authorized by law. Other disclosure purposes require consent from next of kin

375
Q

What is the Joint Ethics Regulation?

A

DODD 5500.07-R

376
Q

Under 5 CFR 2635.704, Use of Gov. Property, an employee has a duty to what?

A

protect and conserve government property and to not use such property or allow its use for other than authorized purposes.

377
Q

What is government property?

A

any form of real or personal property in which the government has an ownership, leasehold, or other property interest, as well as any right or other intangible interest that is purchased with government funds, including the services of contractor personnel.

378
Q

Define Authorized Purposes

A

Those purposes for which government property is made available to members of the public or those purposes authorized in accordance with law or regulation.

379
Q

Describe “official use”

A

Any use that furthers the organization’s mission.
The application of the term depends on office functions and the employee’s role; what is official business for one employee may not be official for another employee.

380
Q

Describe “authorized use”

A

Authorized use initially looks like personal use, but it is not personal because someone has determined the use directly or indirectly benefits the employee’s organization.

381
Q

Describe unauthorized use

A

Something that is not related to the employee’s job; it is something the employee
undertakes for his or her benefit or for the benefit of another person or entity.

382
Q

Under DOD 5500.07-R, Section 2–301.b., Other Federal Government Resources, noncommunication
resources, including equipment and property, shall be used by DOD employees for what?

A

official purposes only.

383
Q

Who is an agency designee and what can they do?

A

An agency designee is the first supervisor who is a commissioned military officer or civilian above a
general schedule (GS)/general manager (GM)–11 in the chain of command or supervision of the
employee concerned.

The agency designee may authorize his/her employees to make limited personal
use of government resources (with the exception of personnel), such as typewriters, calculators,
libraries, and other similar resources and facilities

384
Q

What criteria must be met before an agency designee can authorize limited personal use of gov. resources?

A

 The use does not adversely affect the performance of official duties by the employee or the employee’s organization.
 The use is of reasonable duration and frequency, and made only during the DOD employee’s personal time (e.g., after duty hours or lunch periods).
 The use serves a legitimate public interest (e.g., supporting local charities or volunteer services to the community; enhancing the professional skills of the DOD employee; job searching in response to federal government downsizing).
 The use does not put federal resources to uses that would reflect adversely on DOD or the DOD component (e.g., involving commercial activities; unofficial advertising, soliciting, or selling; violation of statute or regulation; and other uses that are incompatible with public service).
 The use creates no significant additional cost to DOD or the DOD component.

385
Q

Under DOD 5500.7-R, Section 3–300.b., Professional Associations and Learned Societies, agency
designees may permit what?

A

excused absences for reasonable periods of time for employees to voluntarily participate in the activities of nonprofit professional associations and learned societies.

the agency designee may permit employees to make limited use of federal government equipment or administrative support services to prepare papers to be presented at association or society events or to be published in professional journals

386
Q

Are all provisions of the JER punative?

A

No

387
Q

How is misuse of gov prop charged against a military member?

A

Article 92, UCMJ.
If they are an officer, can be charged as Art 133, conduct unbecoming an officer.
If gov property is damaged or destroyed, charges can be under Art 108 (Mil Prop of the US - Sale, Loss, Damage, Destruction or Wrongful Disposition.

388
Q

How is a civilian disciplined for violating the JER?

A

can result in action taken under AFI 36–704, Discipline and Adverse Actions of Civilian Employees.

389
Q

List the general rule for gifts federal employees cannot accept

A

Federal personnel may not accept gifts offered because of their official positions or
offered by a “prohibited source.”

390
Q

Regarding gifts, who is a prohibited source?

A

 Seeks official action by the employee’s agency;
 Does business or seeks to do business with the employee’s agency;
 Conducts activities regulated by the employee’s agency;
 Has interests that may be substantially affected by the employee’s performance (or nonperformance) of duty; or
 Is an organization whose membership is composed of persons described above.

391
Q

What are the exceptions for when a supervisor may accept gifts from subordinates or federal personnel who receive less pay?

A

 Exception #1: On an occasional basis, including those on which gifts are traditionally given, supervisors may accept non-cash gifts valued at $10 or less from a subordinate.
 Exception #2: Supervisors may accept food and refreshments shared in the office and may share in the expenses of an office party.
 Exception #3: If a subordinate is invited to a social event at the supervisor’s residence, the subordinate may give the supervisor a hospitality gift of the type and value customarily given on such an occasion (e.g., host/hostess gift).

392
Q

What are the 3 branches of the government?

A

Judicial, legislative and executive

393
Q

What are primary sources of legal literature and name some examples

A

Primary sources of legal literature are recorded rules of human behavior enforced by the state or
federal government.

Judicial reports (United states reports, supreme court reporter)
Statutes (US code)
Administrative Law Materials (MCM)

394
Q

What are some examples of secondary sources?

A

Legal encyclopedias, treatises, law reviews, and restatements of the law.

395
Q

Are secondary sources persuasive or mandatory?

A

Persuasive

396
Q

What is the Case method of manual research?

A

The case method is used when the name of a particular case is known (i.e., US v. Raniero).

397
Q

What is the index and topic method of manual research?

A

With the index method, you look in the index of the book; with the topic method, you look in the
table of contents, which is in the front of the book.

398
Q

What is the word and phrase method of manual research?

A

solving the issues of your research problem hinged upon a legal definition of a particular word or phrase.
your first step would be to reference a publication called Words and Phrases.

399
Q

What is the Shepardizing method of manual research?

A

make sure the case being referenced is still good law.
Shepardizing is the process used to trace the judicial history of a case by using reference works called Shepard’s Citations

400
Q

Regarding an involuntary separation, when does a legal review NOT have to be done?

A

Entry level discharges

401
Q

administrative separations are processed through what system?

A

Web-based Administrative Separation Program (WASP)

402
Q

While not all legal reviews will have the same exact format, they should all

A

Be extremely well organized; flow clearly and logically.

Clearly summarize relevant facts, apply correct law in a reasonable manner, address all issues
raised, and resolve them completely.

Be free of any grammatical errors.

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