Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who establishes the Manual of Operations?

A

The Fire Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What routes of response should Co’s take during civil unrest?

A

Varying routes as to minimize problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What mode of response are Move Ups?

A

Non-emergency, unless directed by MFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What mode of response for specialized CO’s, I.e., HR, HEOs?

A

Non-emergency, unless directed by MFC or the IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Single unit companies must stop at what?

A

All red lights and stop signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When multiple Co’s responding, who shall stop?

A

First resource

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What may following resources do beyond the first Co.?

A

Roll through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the exception to stopping at intersections?

A

Intersections controlled by a traffic officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many feet wide must a street be to require no parking on ONE side of the street?

A

More than 20, no more than 28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many feet wide must a street be to require NO parking on both sides of the street?

A

Less than 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many feet wide must a street be to allow parking on BOTH sides?

A

More that 28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lights and sirens shall be used on all emergency responses except what?

A

Responses on freeway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a category A assignment?

A
1 LF
3 E
1 RA
1 800
1 EMS
1 BC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a category B assignment?

A
2 LF
4 E
1 RA
1 800
1 EMS
1 BC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the required fire flow for an A assignment?

A

Less the 4500GPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the required fire flow for a B assignment?

A

4500 GPM or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is fire flow calculated?

A

(2) 250 GPM lines per company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who has the authority to split engine companies?

A

MFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a engine company permitted to operate only with three members?

A

Only to save a life, or, if lack of action would bring discredit to the department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who can close companies longer than two hours?

A

Division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who must be notified before closing a RA or PA to staff a fire resource?

A

Division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If responding to a known trouble area during Tactical Alert, what must be requested?

A

LAPD, through MFC, to “meet the FD”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who delineates perimeter during Tactical Alert?

A

LAPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who requests activation of the EOC?

A

FC or DDC through Mayor’s Office or Police Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What penal code allows Arson to carry firearms?

A

832

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where must Air operations remain during Tactical Alert?

A

One mile outside civil unrest area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What channel is used for EMS size-ups?

A

Tac 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When acting as captain, you must yield to who?

A

Any regularly appointed officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What BC will be dispatched to an incident?

A

Administrative, then closest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

For a HAZMAT spill on city streets, who is in charge?

A

LAFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What DC will be dispatched, and to what incidents?

A

Administrative, then closest, and all Greater alarms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what type of incidents shall the location of the command post be announced?

A

All greater alarms and major emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If ARFF or CRASH resources are needed, how are they obtained?

A

Request through MFC, TFC at 80’s and 90’s will provide list of available companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who is the Deputy Department Commander?

A

A chief deputy, or deputy chief, usually ESB chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is DDC’s responsibility?

A

Recall, and outside agency requests (above A assignment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Members waiting assignment, other than company commanders, shall wait where?

A

at their apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Who is responsible for safety at emergencies?

A

All members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When shall RIC be established?

A

If any fire companies are requested above initial assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a Greater Alarm?

A

More than 6 Co’s (a B assignment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is added by MFC with more than 6 companies?

A

USAR group, additional EMS, additional TAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When should IC designate a 2nd RIC Company?

A

ASAP after 1st RIC company is deployed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Apparatus shall not be _____ at fires, roadways, hydrants, railroad tracks.

A

Blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If blocked, what must be immediately available?

A

A competent driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A SIG alert should be issued if streets are closed for greater than how long?

A

30 minutes

45
Q

Fire pumps shall not be operated dry for more than how long?

A

30 secconds

46
Q

Who guides members during aerial ladder operations?

A

Company commander, or certified operator

47
Q

Ladder pipe shall be attached with what tip?

A

1 3/4” (800 GPM)

48
Q

Tip may be changed on scene up to what size?

A

2” (1000 GPM), or turbomaster

49
Q

What is the GPM of the turbomaster spray nozzle?

A

350-1000

50
Q

Who is responsible for ladderpipe tip size?

A

Task force commander

51
Q

Wagon batteries must be equipped with what?

A

1 1/2” SBT or 500 GPM or larger Fog Hog, or variable spray tip

52
Q

What tip may companions equip their wagon batteries with if they regularly respond to grass?

A

5/8” SBT

53
Q

When may other tips be used?

A

ONS, at discretion of IC, or captain

54
Q

When may hose be driven over?

A

Only in cases of absolute necessity

55
Q

Aggravated cases must be reported to who?

A

Arson section, within 24 hours

56
Q

If hose is driven over by unauthorized vehicle, request who?

A

LAPD

57
Q

If any member is harassed ONS, an f225 shall be sent to who?

A

Commander, arson section

58
Q

When shall exterior standpipes be used?

A

Above 3rd floor, when practical

59
Q

Fire debris shall not be thrown from heights unless

A

Essential in extinguishment of fire

60
Q

Who shall perform apparatus inventory before leaving incident?

A

Company commander

61
Q

If equipment is missing, who shall be notified?

A

Administrative BC

62
Q

Backfiring is only allowed with approval from who?

A

IC

63
Q

What is permitted by members in repairing inoperable fire alarm systems?

A

ONLY broken glass replacement, or using of the RESET button

64
Q

When receiving an alert for a move up, or assignment, who may change into working uniform and prepare themselves?

A

Non-Officers

65
Q

Who may self dispatch to emergencies?

A

Members w/ assigned duties, members with inspection responsibilities, or for highly unusual incidents, all members but must check in with the IC

66
Q

Who is responsible for reporting, in writing, to the Fire Chief, members who perform meritorious act?

A

All officers

67
Q

What four progress reports shall be made to MFC?

A

Upon arrival, comprehensive size-up, updated size-up, available resources

68
Q

What are the proper terms for PD requests?

A

Meet, Back-up, Assistance, Help

69
Q

Authorization by country flood district is required for sandbag requests in excess of how many bags?

A

25

70
Q

What are the three chlorine kit sizes?

A

“A” 100-150lb, “B” 1 ton container, “C” tank car and tank trucks

71
Q

Connecting of hydrant to supply piping systems requires the approval of who?

A

Any chief officer

72
Q

Inquiries into breaks in sewage lines should be referred to who?

A

Bureau of sanitation

73
Q

What type of extinguisher shall be used on US Postal boxes?

A

CO2 or Dry Chem

74
Q

Who has responsibility to determine cause of fire?

A

IC

75
Q

Cause determination is categorized into one of what four categories?

A

Incendiary, suspicious, undetermined, other known causes

76
Q

A-unit notification required at an undetermined fire when dollar loss is in excess of?

A

$25,000

77
Q

We-tip posters shall be posted no more than?

A

90 days

78
Q

What designates a heli-spot?

A

12A in triangle for B12, first helispot

79
Q

What designates a staging area?

A

S12A in circle, for B12 first staging

80
Q

Who is in charge of helicopters at incidents?

A

Pilot

81
Q

If difficulty in contacting helicopters, what may be used?

A

E90, or commander of Air Ops

82
Q

Who determines response mode of specialty companies….I.e, Hook, EA1?

A

Requesting member

83
Q

What are the LAFD state mutual aid #’s?

A

1000-1074

84
Q

If MFC forms S/T, TTF, MTF, or TF, what numbers?

A

1000-1030

85
Q

If IC forms S/T, TTF, MTF, or TF, what numbers?

A

1031-1074

86
Q

If a C1 will be responding on the truck for a specified amount of time, who must be notified?

A

Concerned BC

87
Q

What is the difference between S/T1001 and LFD S/T1001?

A

LFD used when responding outside city

88
Q

Dept personnel may not contact any previous patient without approval from who?

A

Administrative Ops Cheif Deputy

89
Q

What is the maximum commitment of engine co’s outside the city for brush?

A

30

90
Q

When 10 or more Co’s are dispatched outside city, the ratio of BC’s to Co’s shall be what?

A

1BC to 5 Fire Co’s

91
Q

When back filling other agencies stations, the city resources should not exceed what?

A

50% of the normal, on duty resources

92
Q

When will an EMS Captain be dispatched?

A

If 3 or more ambulances, or 2 or more paramedic ambulances

93
Q

What is the definition of greater alarm?

A

Fire CO’s more than 6, less then 16

94
Q

When will a safety officer be dispatched?

A

10 Fire Co’s or more

95
Q

What is the definition of major emergency?

A

More than 15 Fire Co’s

96
Q

How many positions on an LAFD IMT?

A

12

97
Q

How many EOC activation levels are there?

A

Levels 1,2 and 3

98
Q

How many members for each level?

A

4, 7, 11

99
Q

When responding to an escalating incident, report to who?

A

Base/staging on Div Tac

100
Q

During business hours, who implements recall?

A

Underground tanks unit

101
Q

If after hours, who?

A

An MFC dispatcher and a Fire Co

102
Q

How many phases of recall are there?

A

4

103
Q

What is level 1?

A

Preparedness

104
Q

What is level 2? (Limited recall)

A

41-71 Co’s, or 20-25 RA’s

105
Q

What is level 2? (Shift Recall)

A

72-100 Co’s, or 26-39 RA’s

106
Q

What is level 4? (Department wide recall)

A

100+ Co’s or 39+ RA’s

107
Q

If it is obvious that reporting to work is required and there are no communications, report to where?

A

Dodger Stadium

108
Q

Who is ineligible for Recall?

A

SK, SP, Leave no pay, ACCT