Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

(001) What is the core component of combat logistics support?

A. Logistics planning function
B. Light, lean, lethal forces
C. Time definite resupply
D. Agile logistics

A

A. Logistics planning function

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2
Q

(001) Which logistics plans program is one of the biggest reimbursement generators for a base?

A. Deployments
B. Support planning
C. Support agreements
D. War readiness material

A

C. Support agreements

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3
Q

(002) How many core functions are there for logistics plans?

A. Ten
B. Six
C. Five
D. One

A

B. Six

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4
Q

(002) Which process facilitates the transition between execution functions of deployment and employment?

A. Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)
B. War readiness material (WRM)
C. Base support & expeditionary (BAS&E)
D. Planning

A

A. JRSOI

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5
Q

(002) What are the three components of base support & expeditionary (BAS&)?

A. Base support plan (BSP), expeditionary sit planning (ESP), and logistics module (LOGMOD).
B. LOGMOD, WRM, and ESP
C. BSP, ESP, and quick reaction survey plan (QRSP)
D. Acquisition and cross-servicing agreements (ACSA), BSP, and QRSP

A

C. BSP, ESP, and quick reaction survey plan (QRSP)

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6
Q

(002) What form is used to document recurring support?

A. DD Form 1144
B. DD Form 1145
C. AF Form 1144
D. AF Form 1145

A

A. DD Form 1144

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7
Q

(003) In the enlisted force structure, how many tiers are there?

A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Three

A

D. Three

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8
Q

What does the CFETP ensure?

A. individuals receive training at the appropriate time
B. military members have training records
C. training records are kept current
D. training is progressive

A

A. individuals receive training at the appropriate time

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9
Q

A trainee may perform a task unsupervised when…

A. approved by the commander
B. deemed safe by the trainer
C. allowed by the supervisor
D. task certified

A

D. task certified

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10
Q

(004) What must a craftsman complete to be awarded a 7-skill level?

A. ancillary and CFETP training
B. ancillary and ADLS training
C. 7-level CDC and CFETP
D. 7-level CDC and 7-level core tasks

A

D. 7-level CDC and 7-level core tasks

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11
Q

(004) What position can 9-skill level personnel be expected to fill?

A. NCOIC WRM
B. IDO
C. Support agreement
D. Superintendent

A

D. Superintendent

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12
Q

(005) Which section is a base-level logistics plans function?

A. WRM management
B. UCC management
C. Functional management
D. Programs

A

A. WRM management

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13
Q

(005) Who will provide training with the assistance of the finance and manpower offices to the FAAC?

A. WRM manager
B. Support agreement manager (SAM)
C. Wing CC
D. Unit

A

B. Support agreement manager (SAM)

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14
Q

(005) To which organizational level do the managing base support plans (BSP) logistics planner forward limiting factors (LIMFAC)?

A. ACC
B. PACAF
C. NAF
D. Unit

A

C. NAF

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15
Q

(005) Who reports directly to the MFM and is responsible for technical development of 2G0X1 personnel?

A. Senior ranking 2G at the host base LRS
B. Senior ranking NCOIC at the host base LRS
C. Support agreement manager (SAM)
D. Installation site manager

A

A. Senior ranking 2G at the host base LRS

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16
Q

(006) What is the title of an individual who leads a unified command?

A. Wg CC
B. CCDR
C. NAF CC
D. MAJCOM CC

A

B. CCDR

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17
Q

(006) Which subordinate organizations is aligned under the AF Installation and Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)?

A. AF Civil Engineer Center
B. AF Support Agreement Center
C. AF Deployment Center
D. AF War Reserve Material Center

A

A. AF Civil Engineer Center

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18
Q

(007) Which classification process incorporates, paraphrases, restates, or generates markings that apply to the source information?

A. Derivative
B. Data compilation
C. Derivative compilation
D. Data classification

A

A. Derivative

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19
Q

(007) In which process is data searched, gathered, and presented in a report-based, summarized format to achieve specific objectives or processes and/or conduct human analysis?

A. Markings
B. Data aggregation
C. Security
D. Planning

A

B. Data aggregation

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20
Q

(008) What is required for all documents containing originally classified information?

A. Standard stamps
B. Standard signatures
C. Standard markings
D. Standard banner

A

C. Standard markings

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21
Q

(008) Properly marking a classified document is the responsibility of the…

A. holder
B. original classification authority (OCA)
C. SecDef
D. security manager

A

B. OCA

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22
Q

(009) Where do you store classified information?

A. Locked desk drawer
B. Secured filing cabinet
C. On a desk in the deployment control center
D. In GSA-approved safes or vaults

A

D. In GSA-approved safes or vaults

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23
Q

(009) Which form is used to document close of day security checks to ensure classified materials are stored properly?

A. SF 701
B. SF 702
C. SF 703
D. SF 704

A

A. SF 701

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24
Q

(010) Who authorizes appropriately cleared couriers to hand-carry classified materials on commercial flights or other means?

A. UDM
B. Unit CC
C. Unit security manager
D. Unit emergency manager

A

B. Unit CC

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25
Q

(011) What type of planning is the deliberate process of determining how to use military capabilities in time and space to achieve objectives while considering the associated risks?

A. contingency
B. crisis action
C. joint
D. peacetime

A

C. joint

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26
Q

(011) Who are the advisors at the National Security Council (NSC)?

A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
B. Director of National Intelligence only
C. The CJCS and director of National Intelligence
D. National Military Strategy (NMS)

A

C. The CJCS and director of National Intelligence

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27
Q

(011) What outlines the defense, economic, internal, and international security objectives of the US?

A. National Security Strategy (NSS)
B. National Security Council (NSC)
C. Joint strategic planning community (JSPC)
D. National Military Strategy (NMS)

A

A. NSS

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28
Q

(011) What system is the primary means by the CJCS when performing joint strategic planning?

A. NMS
B. Joint Task Force (JTF)
C. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS)
D. Joint Strategic Planning Community (JSPC)

A

C. JSPS

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29
Q

(011) Which plan provides guidance to the CCDR, service chiefs, and defense agencies to accomplish tasks and missions based on near-term military capabilities?

A. Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS)
B. Joint Strategic Review (JSR)
C. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP)
D. Joint Strategic Planning Community (JSPC)

A

C. JSCP

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30
Q

(012) Which type of plan is an abbreviated format of an operation plan (OPLAN)?

A. Operational
B. Supporting
C. Functional
D. Concept

A

D. Concept

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31
Q

(012) Which type of plan may or may not have an associated time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)?

A. Concept
B. Adaptive
C. Supporting
D. Functional

A

A. Concept

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32
Q

(013) What are the first two joint planning process (JPP) steps?

A. planning initiation and mission analysis
B. mission analysis and development
C. planning initiation and development
D. planning initiation and order development

A

A. planning initiation and mission analysis

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33
Q

(014) What type of process is used to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability?

A. Teaming
B. Global Force Management
C. Request for forces (RFF)
D. TPFDD allocation

A

B. Global Force Management (GFM)

34
Q

(014) A grouping of combat and expeditionary combat support (ECS) unit type codes (UTC) with accompanied supplies and required non-unit re-supply and personnel necessary to sustain forces is called…

A. global force management (GFM)
B. request for forces (RFF)
C. teaming
D. force presentation

A

D. force presentation

35
Q

(015) Which planning process is used when time is not a critical factor?

A. Joint strategy
B. Crisis Action
C. Concept
D. Contingency

A

D. Contingency

36
Q

(015) Contingency planning starts when a commander receives…

A. a warning order and ends after the deployment briefs.
B. a task assignment and ends after the supported commander approves the supporting plans
C. an execute order and ends after the TPFDD is built
D. a task assignment and ends after the TPFDD is built

A

B. a task assignment and ends after the supported commander approves the supporting plans

37
Q

(016) Which planning directive provides essential planning guidance and directs development, adaptation, or refinement of a plan/order?

A. Deployment Order (DEPORD)
B. Warning Order (WARNORD)
C. Planning Order (PLANORD)
D. Execution Order (EXORD)

A

C. Planning Order (PLANORD)

38
Q

(016) What does the Secretary of Defense approve and transmit to the supported commander and Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) announcing the selected course of action?

A. Alert Order (ALERTORD)
B. Warning Order (WARNORD)
C. Planning Order (PLANORD)
D. Execute Order (EXORD)

A

A. Alert Order (ALERTORD)

39
Q

(017) What is the posturing code (P-code) assigned to starter stocks in the unit type code availability (UTA)?

A. WS
B. WR
C. WM
D. WW

A

A. WS

40
Q

(018) War reserve material (WRM) is packaged by…

A. unit line number (ULN)
B. capability unit type code (UTC)
C. support category
D. posturing code (P-code)

A

B. capability unit type code (UTC)

41
Q

(018) What are the three war reserve material (WRM) critical operational support areas?

A. fuel support, equipment support, and warehouse support
B. flightline support, personnel support, and aircraft support
C. flightline support, fuel support, and infrastructure support
D. flightline support, personnel support, and infrastructure support

A

D. flightline support, personnel support, and infrastructure support

42
Q

(019) What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to assess alternative ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support attainable within fiscal constraints?

A. planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (PPBE)
B. deployment
C. reception
D. sourcing

A

A. planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (PPBE)

43
Q

(019) How many distinct but overlapping processes does planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (PPBE) have?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

A

C. four

44
Q

(020) Who provides training to the war reserve material manager (WRMM) and function managers (FAM) on their duties as they relate to commodity management and program objectives?

A. MAJCOM material management personnel
B. Command WRMNCO only
C. Command WRMO/CWRMNCO
D. MAJCOM WRM personnel

A

C. CWRMO/CWRMNCO

45
Q

(021) What does the war plans additive requirements report (WPARR) authorize?

A. fuel
B. rations
C. vehicles
D. gun barrels

A

C. vehicles

46
Q

(021) What level of command uses part one of the war plans additive requirements report (WPARR)?

A. base level
B. NAF
C. MAJCOM
D. WRM storing unit

A

C. MAJCOM

47
Q

(022) What system is used to compute war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) requirements?

A. DCAPES
B. JOPES
C. LOGFAC
D. LOGMOD

A

C. LOGFAC

48
Q

(023) The wartime aircraft activity report (WAAR) describes specific aircraft activity in support of current plans of…

A. a MAJCOM’s entire fleet
B. a theater of operations
C. a specific aircraft type
D. an installation

A

D. an installation

49
Q

(024) What inventories are set by the inventory management plan (IMP)?

A. gun barrels
B. munitions
C. petroleum
D. rations

A

C. petroleum

50
Q

(024) Which functional area must logistics planners work with when dealing with the inventory management plan (IMP)?

A. material management
B. vehicle management
C. munitions
D. fuels

A

D. fuels

51
Q

(025) What war reserve material (WRM) document is the master vehicle vehicle report (MVR) created from?

A. war plans additive requirements report (WPARR)
B. war consumables distribution objective (WCDO)
C. wartime aircraft activity report (WAAR)
D. inventory management plan (IMP)

A

A. war plans additive requirements report (WPARR)

52
Q

(025) When dealing with the master vehicle report (MVR), what use codes are logistics planners mainly concerned with?

A. A or B
B. C or D
C. J or K
D. L or M

A

D. L or M

53
Q

(026) Who is ultimately responsible for making every effort to ensure approved levels of support are requisitioned, stored, and maintained ready for use?

A. MAJCOM
B. Installation CC
C. Group CC
D. Unit CC

A

B. Installation CC

54
Q

(026) If discrepancies are found when reconciling WRM documents, who should be contacted?

A. HAF/A4
B. Unit WRMM
C. CCDR
D. MAJCOM

A

D. MAJCOM

55
Q

(027) Who is responsible for establishing a WRM training program?

A. WRMO/WRMNCO
B. WRMPM
C. IDO
D. Installation CC

A

A. WRMO?WRMNCO

56
Q

(028) Who has the overall responsibility to ensure WRM outload is properly coordinated?

A. WRMNCO
B. WRMM
C. CCDR
D. HAF/A4

A

A. WRMNCO

57
Q

(029) Who is responsible to coordinate, compile, analyze, and submit an annual budget for WRM?

A. WRMO/WRMNCO
B. WRMPM
C. WRMM
D. finance personnel

A

A. WRMO/WRMNCO

58
Q

(030) If an item of WRM is frequently used for indirect mission support, the unit that is frequently using it should…

A. pay each time the item is used to continue funding WRM
B. source the item from multiple WRM storing units
C. add or increase the item’s peacetime stock levels
D. contract for the item locally

A

C. add or increase the item’s peacetime stock levels

59
Q

(031) Who is responsible for costs associated with WRM reconstitution after indirect mission support use?

A. Using unit
B. Using command
C. storing command
D. CCDR

A

A. Using unit

60
Q

(031) Who is responsible for costs associated with WRM reconstitution after direct mission support use?

A. using unit
B. using command
C. storing command
D. CCDR

A

C. storing command

61
Q

(033) What type of agreement is made between an AF supplier and an Army receiver?

A. inter-service on intra-agency agreement
B. intra-service agreement
C. inter-agency agreement
D. inter-service agreement

A

D. inter-service agreemetn

62
Q

(034) Who is responsible for requesting support, and how is the support initially requested?

A. receiver, in writing or verbally
B. supplier, in writing or verbally
C. receiver, in writing
D. supplier, in writing

A

C. receiver, in writing

63
Q

(035) The funding annex should contain enough information to satisfy financial concerns of the…

A. receiver
B. supplier
C. legal office
D. support agreement manager

A

A. receiver

64
Q

(035) What is a working capital fund designed to generate?

A. revenues that will greatly exceed costs
B. sufficient revenues to generate a small profit
C. revenues in-line with those of civilian businesses
D. sufficient revenues to recover operating expenses

A

D. sufficient revenues to recover operating expenses

65
Q

(036) If an impasse relating to an entire agreement cannot be resolved at base level, then the…

A. SAM and receiver send the impasse to their MAJCOM for resolution
B. agreement is sent to the base CC to resolve the impasse and approve the agreement
C. SAM sends the impasse information to the base legal office for adjudication
D. receiver should pursue another source of support

A

A. SAM and receiver send the impasse to their MAJCOM for resolution

66
Q

(036) An impasse is elevated to HAF when it cannot be resolved by the…

A. base installation SAM
B. Functional Area Agreement Coordinator
C. NAF
D. MAJCOM

A

D. MAJCOM

67
Q

(037) Functional area agreement manager (FAAC) have the intimate knowledge of their areas’ costs and…

A. manpower
B. functional managers
C. commander’s requirements
D. incremental reimbursements

A

A. manpower

68
Q

(037) Manpower and finance personnel should provide training on…

A. how to obtain extra money and manpower regardless of support provided
B. deployment commitments and their relation to support agreements
C. reimbursable and non-reimbursable support
D. impasse negotiation tactics

A

C. reimbursable and non-reimbursable support

69
Q

(038) Acquisition and cross-servicing agreements (ACSA) authorities can reduce the US “logistics tail” by allowing procurement of items from…

A. other military services
B. the US
C. a host nation
D. the government

A

C. a host nation

70
Q

(039) The two principal documents within acquisition and cross-servicing agreement (ACSA) program include the…

A. implementing instruction and order/receipt form
B. ACSA and order/receipt form
C. order/receipt form and equipment lists
D. equipment lists and ACSA

A

B. ACSA and order/receipt form

71
Q

(039) All acquisition and cross-servicing agreement (ACSA) transactions are…

A. reimbursable
B. collected
C. billed
D. payed

A

A. reimbursable

72
Q

(040) ACSA are required to be tracked and funds must be accounted for…

A. monthly
B. quarterly
C. semi-annually
D. annually

A

D. annually

73
Q

(041) Which is not a support function that the AF Common Output Level Standards (AF COLS) addresses?

A. public affairs
B. base legal support
C. facility sustainment
D. WRM

A

D. WRM

74
Q

(042) The second tier of service in AF COLS system provides for a…

A. highest standard
B. slightly reduced standard
C. moderate standard
D. greatly reduced standard

A

B. slightly reduced standard

75
Q

(043) BSP are primarily developed for locations that are…

A. reserve and guard AF installations only
B. without permanent AF presence
C. with permanent AF presence
D. main operating base

A

C. with permanent AF presence

76
Q

(044) What functional responsibility related to BAS&E planning tool manages BSP and ESP site reviews?

A. MAJCOM BSP/ESP manager
B. Functional data manager
C. BAS&E user
D. Site manager

A

D. site manager

77
Q

(045) What functional area coordinates all site survey requests with the plans and integration function?

A. IDO
B. Base/Wg level units
C. Wg CC
D. Unit commander

A

B. Base/Wg level units

78
Q

(046) When are units required to update a BSP?

A. biennially
B. monthly
C. annually
D. semi-annually

A

A. biennially

79
Q

(047) The difference between required resources and those apportioned to a CCDR is a…

A. shortfall
B. resource limitation
C. unfunded requirement
D. requirements deficiencies

A

A. shortfall

80
Q

(048) How many types of teams compose the expeditionary site surveys process integrated site survey?

A. nine
B. six
C. five
D. two

A

D. two