Vol.2 Flashcards
(201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
Deliberate planning.
(201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
Volume 1.
(202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
(202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
Joint force/capability.
(203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
Facility condition.
(203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
Home station mission.
(203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
10-244.
(204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
AFI 10-201.
(204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
Pilot units.
(205) Which is not an initial capability of the open airbase force module?
Explosive ordinance disposal (EOD).
(205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
Secure communications and intelligence.
(205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
Establish the airbase.
(205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
2 days, 14 days.
(205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
Robust the airbase.
(206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
(206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
O-6.
(206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
Command and control.
(206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
16 km.
(207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
Strategy.
(207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
RQ-11B Raven.
(208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
(208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
85 Engineering installation squadron (EIS).
(208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
1998.
(209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
MPTO 00-33A-1001.
(209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
Plan, execute, close, and control.
(209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
Answers, guidance, and education.
(209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
Requirements.
(210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
Cost management plan.