Vol 2 URE Flashcards
1
Q
- (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience but Air Force stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?
A
B
2
Q
- (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock the item?
A
D
3
Q
- (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?
A
F
4
Q
- (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?
A
H
5
Q
- (201) What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) time standards by priority groups, and awaiting part (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP?
A
T
6
Q
- (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates item satisfied through lateral support?
A
3
7
Q
- (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurrence?
A
4
8
Q
- (202) What mission capable (MICAP) delete code indicates request reported in error?
A
9
9
Q
- (203) What activity code is used to identify issues processed through the (IMDS) Integrated Maintenance Data System?
A
J
10
Q
- (203) What due-out status code on the transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SH describes a release (due-out release)?
A
2
11
Q
- (204) What listing is used to monitor awaiting part (AWP) end items?
A
D19
12
Q
- (204) To perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation, what listing is used?
A
D23
13
Q
- (204) What Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the transaction identification code (TRIC) “DFM” input?
A
Firm and memo
14
Q
- (205) When monitoring awaiting part (AWP) end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the urgency justification code (UJC)?
A
AR or BR
15
Q
- (205) When the last awaiting part (AWP) due-out is released or canceled, what Due-In from Maintenance (DIFM) status code is assigned as a result of AWP processing?
A
FWP
16
Q
- (206) What required delivery date (RDD) is assigned to output requisition transactions for two-level maintenance (2LM) items?
A
777
17
Q
- (206) What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting?
A
Supply Points
18
Q
- (206) Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point?
A
LRS/Supply Activity
19
Q
- (207) What type of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment is authorized to support a peacetime function that ceases to exist in wartime, thereby allowing the equipment to satisfy a wartime requirement?
A
Joint use
20
Q
- (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base force module?
A
B-150
21
Q
- (208) What Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) component subsystem is an additive set to the B-550i, which increases support to 1,100 people?
A
B-550f
22
Q
- (208) How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) Industrial Operations Set support?
A
3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons
23
Q
- (209) How often is Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorization published?
A
Annually
24
Q
- (209) Which Air Force major command headquarters (HQ) office published Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) authorizations?
A
United States Air Force (HQ USAF/LGX)
25
25. (209) How long is the funded support period for Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) replenishment spares?
30 days
26
26. (210) Who may elect to store items requiring functional check in the normal Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) locations or in a designated functional check holding area?
Accountable officer
27
27. (210) What system do inventory managers use to formulate Readiness Spares Package (RSP) levels?
PC-ASM
28
28. (211) Who has the responsibility for operation of a weapons storage facility?
Materiel Management flight
29
29. (212) Who is responsible for preparing and packaging, inventorying, and maintaining bags?
War Readiness Element
30
30. (212) What personal computer-based program is designed to account for mobility and chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?
MICAS
31
31. (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process does the supported major command (MAJCOM) theater commander in the area of operation determine the best approach to satisfy the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) tasking?
Phase II
32
32. (213) During which phase of the deliberate planning process are support agreements drawn and finalized?
Phase V
33
33. (213) As it applies to wartime capability documents, what computer database tells you who, what, where, when, and how things need to deploy if the operations plan is implemented?
TPFDDL
34
34. (213) For wartime capability, a unit that is not combat ready is identified by a
C-4 Rating
35
35. (214) What Department of Defense (DOD) automated reporting system provides National Command Authority (NCA) and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with basic unit identity and readiness status?
SORTS
36
36. (214) What allows Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) allocated units the ability to report unit-type code (UTC) level readiness data?
ART
37
37. (215) What type of Adjusted Stock Level is identified by type level flag “E"?
Fixed
38
38. (216) How often does the readiness base level (RBL) system run at Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) to push RBLs to both base and depot?
Quarterly
39
39. (216) Readiness base levels (RBL) are forwarded to the base for retail supply system implementation via
An electronic Headquarters AFMC Computed Level Transaction (XCA)
40
40. (217) What shipment results from redistribution orders (RDO) and referral orders?
Directed
41
41. (217) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service?
TRM
42
42. (217) At least how often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (NGV597) run to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria?
Twice a month
43
43. (217) What Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation Listing identifies delayed or lost requisitions that were previously identified as received by Traffic Management Office (TMO); however, not received in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)?
Receipt Acknowledged error listing
44
44. (218) What code identifies equipment items that are accounted for on authorized or in-use details (EAID)?
Equipment management codes (EMC)
45
45. (219) Nonequipment authorization inventory data (EAID) item requests are identified by what expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD)?
NF1
46
46. (219) What menu option in the Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) (C001) is used to enter equipment allowance change requests electronically?
TACR
47
47. (220) Personnel at what Air Force Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity maintains a central file of all weapon items by serial number?
WR-ALC
48
48. (220) Serial numbers for weapon items on hand in the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) are maintained on what type detail?
Serialized control detail (249)
49
49. (220) On what day of the year is the weapons reconciliation scheduled to be performed?
April 30
50
50. (220) What output document reflects the serial numbers for each communication security (COMSEC) transaction?
F117 management notice
