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1C5 CDCs Code 6 > Vol 1 UREs > Flashcards

Vol 1 UREs Flashcards

1
Q

which document provides the information necessary to plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective 1c5x1 career field and training program?

A

Career field education and training plan CFETP

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2
Q

actual hands on task performance training best describes which type of training?

A

qualification

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3
Q

the specialty training standard STS is found in which part of the career field education and training plan CFETP?

A

II

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4
Q

which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force

A

Air force enlisted classification directory AFECD

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5
Q

which skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?

A

5

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6
Q

which skill level is required for promotion beyond the rank of staff sergeant?

A

7

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7
Q

a 3 skill level C2BMO operator carries the title of?

A

an apprentice

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8
Q

which classification identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the MILPDS?

A

Special experience identifier SEI

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9
Q

which defense readiness condition DEFCON indicates the normal state of readiness?

A

5

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10
Q

which DEFCON requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness?

A

3

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11
Q

which DEFCON indicates all forces are ready for a wartime situation?

A

1

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12
Q

a DEFCON indicates

A

the state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations

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13
Q

when an attack by hostile aircraft is considered probable, imminent, or taking place upon the continental US or Canada, which declaration is declared?

A

Air Defense Emergency

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14
Q

when an attack by hostile aircraft or missiles is probable which air defense warning condition is declared?

A

yellow

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15
Q

which organization is the principle agent of the DOD for the air defense of the united states?

A

North American Aerospace Defense Command NORAD

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16
Q

who is the authority for emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the 48 contiguous states?

A

Commander, NORAD

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17
Q

How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?

A

8

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18
Q

which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 120 degrees?

A

southeast

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19
Q

an object at bearing of 060 degrees and a range of 135 miles would be reported as

A

zero six zero, one hundred thirty five

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20
Q

an object at a bearing of 005 degrees and a range of 50 miles would be reported as

A

zero zero five, fifty

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21
Q

when you read a latitude and longitude, you should always read from

A

the lower to the higher numbers

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22
Q

what is the width of a MGRS zone?

A

6 degrees

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23
Q

the MGRS is read from the

A

left to right, and then up

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24
Q

which character designates the keypad number when using Global Area Reference System?

A

7

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25
Q

which reference system is theater specific?

A

Common Geographic Reference System (CGRS)

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26
Q

what size is a common geographic reference system CGRS Keypad?

A

10 x 10

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27
Q

a radar cannot determine which aspect of a target?

A

type

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28
Q

which radar component allows a single antenna to serve for transmitting and receiving?

A

duplexer

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29
Q

the radars antennas function during transmission is to

A

concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space

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30
Q

the radars antennas function during reception is to

A

collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver

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31
Q

the number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the

A

pulse rep freq PRF

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32
Q

airborne radars are able to distinguish targets from ground returns

A

because stationary returns do not produce a Doppler shift

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33
Q

concerning the type of effect weather has on radar, the combo of scattering and absorption type is known as

A

attenuation

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34
Q

How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?

A

radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range

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35
Q

which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind spots?

A

trapping

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36
Q

which series of IFF/SIFF transponders do we use today?

A

MARK XII

37
Q

the primary function of iff/siff is

A

Identification

38
Q

mode 3 of the military IFF system is identical to which IFF mode of the civil system

A

Mode A

39
Q

the IFF/SIF mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is

A

C

40
Q

which iff/siff code is generated by an altimeter?

A

Mode C

41
Q

which IFF/SIF code includes an enhanced feature that allows for auto reporting of platform location?

A

Mode S

42
Q

which IFF/SIF mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?

A

4

43
Q

what does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code “7500” mean?

A

Hijackers on board or suffering from unlawful interference

44
Q

what does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code 7600 mean?

A

radio communication failure

45
Q

what allows a pilot to transmit a response that will result in a special display at your console?

A

Identification of position I/P

46
Q

why might you receive an IFF/SIFF return from a target and not a radar return

A

the IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return

47
Q

when used in conjunction with radar IFF/SIFF can help improve

A

tacking continuity

48
Q

which few range does the air surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?

A

1,215 to 1,400 MHz

49
Q

how many 2 degree elevation beams does the ADR-4 use

A

10

50
Q

what radar system is used in mobile applications?

A

TPS-75

51
Q

how many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?

A

48

52
Q

the FPS-117 radar can freq hop on up to how many preset freqs?

A

18

53
Q

the FPS-124 radar processes and forwards up to how many tracks per scan?

A

20

54
Q

which type telephone is direct line that does not have dialing capabilities?

A

hot line

55
Q

which piece of equipment is used to secure comms on secure terminal equipment

A

fortezza card

56
Q

which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?

A

Flash

57
Q

the only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the

A

High freq band HF

58
Q

which freqs are normally only useful for distances approx. within line of sight LOS

A

VHF and above

59
Q

what determines the hoping pattern rate in a have quick system?

A

WOD word of day

60
Q

what surface weather event may cause high freq HF black outs

A

X-Rays flares

61
Q

approx, how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?

A

half an inch

62
Q

what should be used to keep voice transmissions as brief and clear as possible?

A

prowords

63
Q

what are the two methods of calling used in radio communications?

A

full and abbreviated

64
Q

in which method of calling are the call signs of the calling and called stations only given once?

A

full

65
Q

under MINIMIZE, what message traffic is considered to be essential?

A

that which deals directly with the success of a mission or safety of life

66
Q

who may cancel of modify MINIMIZE procedures?

A

the imposing authority or an appropriate higher authority

67
Q

The main guideline for including a report in the operational report OPER-3 system is it must

A

be essential to command and control of aerospace forces

68
Q

which OPER-3 report is the initial voice notification is due within 5 minutes after learning of the even

A

pinnacle nucflash

69
Q

which report keeps the joint staff, services, and other national leadership apprised of existing political, military, and operational situations?

A

Commanders Situation report SITREP

70
Q

Commanders SITREP must be submitted no later than

A

0800z

71
Q

what regulation authorizes DOD to provide direct support to other federal agencies on a reimbursable basis?

A

the economy act

72
Q

what regulation provides a means for the federal gov to supplement state resources in major disasters and emergencies when state resources are inadequate?

A

the Stafford act

73
Q

which system uses mission essential task MET and mission essential task list METL the standard measurement criteria?

A

Defense Readiness Reporting System

74
Q

which method allows units the ability to report unit type code UTC level readiness

A

air expeditionary force reporting tool

75
Q

the chief of staff, United States Air force CSAF and subordinate commanders use status of resources and training system SORTS data in assessing their

A

effectiveness in meeting their responsibilities

76
Q

the units designed operational capability DOC statement is used to

A

summarize unit tasking requirements

77
Q

which C-Level indicates that a unit posses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized?

A

c-1

78
Q

Which C-level indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission

A

C-4

79
Q

which measured resource area MRA normally drives a units overall category level

A

the lowest of the four MRAs

80
Q

when a change affects a units overall category level C-level the database must be updated within how many hours?

A

24

81
Q

what is a major us goal for the USMTF system

A

get allied adoption of USMTF standards

82
Q

how many major structural components make up the USMTF system

A

3

83
Q

what is the only portion of a message that is governed by the USMTF system rules?

A

main text

84
Q

what are the three categories of operations checklist

A

normal, emergency, and quick reaction

85
Q

what does the first page of each operations checklist contain

A

a sheet showing the date reviewed and the initials of the reviewer

86
Q

why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as you complete it?

A

prevents you from missing critical steps

87
Q

what color of ink is used for entries in the logbook

A

blue or black

88
Q

which entry is not required in the ops logbook?

A

the intel officer will certify all entries in the logbook

1C5 CDCs Code 6 (5 decks)

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