Vol 1 Flashcards
A CCDR’s command authority is exercised through the…
a. wing commanders
b. group commanders
c. IDO
d. commanders of subordinate organizations
d. commanders of subordinate organizations
Identify the functional area that is responsible for setting the policies, procedures, and concepts for the logistics plans support of assigned and programmed forces.
a. Installation
b. NAF
c. SecDef
d. MAJCOM
d. MAJCOM
Which MAJCOM logistics plans functional area ensures that needed logistics resources are identified and programmed in the program objective memorandum (POM)?
a. Programs
b. Functional management
c. Deployment management
d. Expeditionary site planning
a. Programs
Select the senior war-fighting echelon that plays an integral role as a command and control (C2) element during contingency and wartime operations.
a. Wing
b. Squadron
c. MAJCOM
d. NAF
d. NAF
In order to respond to a requirement established by the JCS, which will a commander of a unified or specified command usually prepare?
a. TPFDD
b. IDP
c. ESP
d. OPLAN
d. OPLAN
Which is ensured by combining the OPLAN criteria of feasibility and acceptability?
a. cost-cutting benefits and savings
b. timely deployability of cargo and personnel
c. mission accomplishment with available resources
d. accurate positioning of WRM
c. mission accomplishment with available resources
Identify the criteria that is used to assess an OPLAN’s compliance with the CJCS guidance and joint doctrine.
a. mobility
b. adequacy
c. feasibility
d. acceptability
b. adequacy
Select the OPLAN criterion that is used when considering if the resources made available for planning are used effectively or are sufficient to satisfy plan requirements.
a. mobility
b. adequacy
c. feasibility
d. acceptability
c. feasibility
Which is supported when CCMD and service component staffs develop a detailed flow of resources into a theater?
a. Expeditionary exit strategy
b. Joint feasibility engagement
c. Contingency mobility protocol
d. approved OPLAN concept
d. approved OPLAN concept
When describing a CONOPS, an unnamed day on which a particular operation begins is known as…
a. C-day
b. D-day
c. M-day
d. X-day
b. D-day
Which contingency planning phase objective is to develop a broad outline of the CCDR’s assumption or intent?
a. concept development
b. plan development
c. plan review
d. initiation
a. concept development
Identify the contingency planning phase that makes sure a plan properly incorporates the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and resources.
a. concept development
b. plan development
c. supporting plans
d. plan review
c. supporting plans
JOPES procedures that task military operations for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping, or counter-drug operations are used to write…
a. an exercise plan
b. a functional plan
c. a supporting plan
d. a contingency plan
b. a functional plan
FUNCPLANs are developed by CCDRs…
a. in response to CJCS requirements
b. to organize cargo and prsnl requirements for an exercise
c. in preparation for a theater-wide national disaster
d. to calculate fuel requirements for a theater airlift
a. in response to CJCS requirements
Which type of plan prioritizes delivery of sustainment forces in a combat environment?
a. contingency
b. support
c. functional
d. mobility
b. support
Who provides the services with planning information concerning the origin and availability of nonservice-controlled materiel?
a. secretary of state
b. secretary of JCS
c. CJCS
d. appropriate DoD agencies and the GSA
d. appropriate DOD agencies and the GSA
Which organization or component supports plans according to the instructions of the component HQ with primary planning responsibility?
a. supporting forces
b. supported commander
c. supporting commander
d. supporting MAJCOM
d. supporting MAJCOM
Which war and mobilization plan (WMP) volume provides a single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?
a. WMP-1, Basic plan & support supplements
b. WMP-2, plans listing & summary
c. WMP-3, combat & support forces
d. WMP-4, wartime aircraft activity
a. WMP-1, Basic plan & support supplements
Which volume of the WMP contains UTC availability and all postured UTC capability in the AF?
a. WMP-1
b. WMP-2
c. WMP-3
d. WMP-4
c. WMP-3, combat & support forces
Which additional AFI governs the WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, Part 1 & 2, besides AFI 25-101?
a. AFI 10-403
b. AFI 10-401
c. AFI 10-304
d. AFI 10-104
b. AFI 10-401
What is the very first step for developing the timing flow in LOGMOD?
a. create the events or shell
b. create the chalks
c. enter the aircraft tail number
d. assign the call sign and aircraft mission number
a. create the events or shell
Who is responsible for managing the outflow of cargo and personnel during deployments?
a. FAM
b. CCDR
c. IDO
d. IDNCO
c. IDO
Which organization prioritizes the equipment and personnel to the UTC increment and personnel line number detail?
a. unit
b. unit control center
c. unit deployment office
d. installation personnel readiness
a. unit
Identify the system that is higher than the SIPR network.
a. JWICS
b. NIPR
c. JOPES
d. IDS
a. JWICS
Which system is a 24-hour network designed to meet the requirements for secure multi-media intelligence communications worldwide?
a. IDS
b. SIPR
c. JOPES
d. JWICS
d. JWICS
Identify the result of global force management.
a. single service command in the area of operations
b. centralized force controlled by the SecDef
c. total implementation of the AEF
d. timely allocation of forces and capabilities necessary to execute CCMD missions
d. timely allocation of forces and capabilities necessary to execute CCMD missions
The DOD historically conducted strategic force management through…
a. a decentralized process where the SecDef based decision opportunities on recommendations from CCDR
The JFP uses its component inputs to…
a. validate TPFDD requirements
b. execute the implementation of AEF
c. recommend global sourcing solutions for all forces
d. timely execute CCMD forces
c. recommend global sourcing solutions for all forces
Rotational forces are allocated to a CCMD in order to…
a. execute tasks in their AOR
b. support the AEF construct
c. develop sourcing recommendations for the global force pool
d. validate TPFDD requirements
a. execute tasks in their AOR
AEF teams designated as STRIKE, MOBILITY, C2ISR; space-cyberspace; and special operations are collectively referred to as…
a. combatant teams
b. operational teams
c. AEF support teams
d. special operations teams
b. operational teams
Which process uses relevant parameters and associated metrics to quantify the key characteristics of systems and forces to determine how capable they are of performing the critical tasks needed to accomplish future military objectives?
a. ready for forces
b. joint capabilities document
c. functional solution analysis
d. capabilities-based assessment
d. capabilities-based assessment
Who or what command endorses the request for forces/capability?
a. joint force provider
b. SecDef
c. CCDR
d. POTUS
a. joint force provider
Which crisis action plan phase involves the combatant (supported) commander’s assessment of potential national security implications being submitted to the president, SecDef, and the CJCS?
a. course of action development
b. situation development
c. execution planning
d. crisis assessments
b. situation development
Which order defines the objectives, anticipated missions or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and tentative combat forces available to a commander for planning?
a. WARNORD
b. PLANORD
c. OPORD
d. ALERTORD
a. WARNORD
Select the order that is developed during crisis action planning when the SecDef approves and transmits the selected COA.
a. WARNORD
b. PLANORD
c. ALERTORD
d. OPORD
c. ALERTORD
In a time-sensitive crisis, which order can be issued in lieu of an ALERTORD?
a. EXORD
b. PLANORD
c. DEPORD
d. PTDO
a. EXORD
Which order is issued once the national command authority decides to begin preparations for the conduct of a military operation?
a. DEPORD
b. PLANORD
c. ALERTORD
d. OPORD
a. DEPORD
What is the process called when adding a UTC into the MEFPAK systems?
a. registration
b. function
c. deletion
d. development
d. development
Which type of report reflects standard AF UTC personnel and cargo movement characteristics used by AF planners?
a. TPFDD
b. UTA
c. MEFPAK system summary report
d. manpower report
c. MEFPAK system summary report
Who builds the UTC shell in DCAPES?
a. UDM
b. DCAPES manager
c. LOGMOD manager
d. MEFPAK system manager
d. MEFPAK system manager
Who will be notified when UTC processing is delayed 180 days because of incomplete manpower and/or logistics detail?
a. secretary of AF
b. SecDef
c. CCDR
d. senior AF leadership above HQ AF/A3OD
d. senior AF leadership above HQ AF/A3OD
When right-sized UTCs are integrated with one another, it provides…
a. a smaller airlift footprint used when loading planning
b. a capability to edit OPLANs data without executive branch approval
c. a greater mission capability needed to support an AETF
d. an option to manipulate TPFDD without supported command approval
c. a greater mission capability needed to support AETF
After a UTC is reviewed and updated, who is responsible for updating the MISCAP to indicate the date of the most recent review?
a. UDM
b. MAJCOM functional manager
c. Pilot unit LOGMOD administrator
d. MEFPAK system responsible agency
d. MEFPAK system responsible agency
How often are UTC reviewed and updated?
a. biennially
b. annually
c. semi-annually
d. biannually
a. biennially
Who is the principal adviser to the SECAF on AF activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet CCDR requirements?
a. SecDef
b. CSAF
c. CJCS
d. CMSAF
b. CSAF
Which organization is the OPR for AF deployment and redeployment operations?
a. directorate of logistics readiness
b. directorate of deployment and redeployment
c. deputy chief of staff, logistics, installations, and mission support
d. deputy chief of staff of for air, space and information operations, plans, and requirements
a. directorate of logistics readiness
Which type of MAJCOM has a flying missions that directly supports its combat forces?
a. support
b. exercise
c. operational
d. expeditionary
c. operational
Who is the primary force provider for the AEF serves as the tasking authority for the AEF, and is responsible for execution of the AEF schedule?
a. COMACC
b. COMAMC
c. supporting commander
d. supported commander
a. COMACC
Which is an intermediate echelon of command, directly under the operational and support commands?
a. wing
b. squadron
c. NAF
d. MAJCOM
c. NAF
For day-to-day routine issues most base-level activities communicate directly with the…
a. wing commander
b. NAF
c. MAJCOM
d. HQ Air Staff
c. MAJCOM
Who is the AFMC’s primary POC and corporate advocate for all logistics readiness?
a. HAF
b. AFIMSC
c. NAF
d. MAJCOM
b. AFIMSC
Who provides support on base-level logistics readiness functions and IPE management, support agreements, and mission plan support/site activation task force?
a. wing commander
b. NAF
c. MAJCOM
d. AFIMSC
d. AFIMSC
Which is the last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario?
a. identify total number of D UTC affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and the WAAR
b. task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst-case tasking in LOGMOD
c. create a report detailing all D coded UTCs
d. review the WAAR
b. task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst-case tasking in LOGMOD
What defines local processes, procedures, infrastructure, and resources used to deploy forces?
a. BSP
b. AFI 10-403
c. AFI 10-401
d. IDP
d. IDP
The first step in developing an IDP is to determine the…
a. maximum simultaneous deployment capability
b. infrastructure and personnel
c. number of UDMs
d. glossary and chapters
a. maximum simultaneous deployment capability
Who directs the concept brief?
a. UDM
b. IDO
c. Wing or Installation CC
d. LRS commander
c. Wing or Installation CC
WRM designated as…
a. start stock only
b. swing stock only
c. a combination of start and swing stock only
d. either starter or swing stock, or as a combination of both
d. either starter or swing stock, or as a combination of both
Which command is the force provider for the USTRANSCOM?
a. ACC
b. AMC
c. AFGSC
d. AETC
b. AMC
Which is directly related to the quality and amount of training that individuals receive from the WRMO/WRMNCO?
a. the amount of WRM that can be used for exercises
b. how well a WRMM performs
c. the amount of WRM stored on an installation
d. how well the WRM is utilized during war
b. how well a WRM manager performs
Which system do log planners use to load validated WRM?
a. DCAPES
b. Combat Ammunition System (CAS)
c. LOGMOD
d. Supply ammunition system
b. combat ammunition system (CAS)
The purpose of the WRM review board is to…
a. direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program can support the contingency and wartime mission
b. ensure that the use of an installation’s WRM is the first option for peacetime use
c. deploy WRM to the AOR
d. provide training to the WRM managers
a. direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program can support the contingency and wartime missions
Who selects the members of the installation WRM review board?
a. MAJCOM commander
b. IDO
c. squadron commander
d. wing commander
d. wing commander
Who accompanies the WRMNCO during a WRM surveillance visit?
a. WRMPM
b. IDO
c. WRMM
d. responsible commander
c. WRMM
The WRM surveillance report is provided to the…
a. WRMPM
b. WRMM and his or her commander
c. IDO
d. AFIMSC
b. WRMM and his or her commander
Who determines how to move the requirements and load plans WRM outload?
a. IPR
b. FSS
c. transportation
d. supply
c. transportation
Who identifies the WRM outload requirements and provides information to the transportation section?
a. storing unit
b. IDO
c. GMO
d. AFIMSC
a. storing unit
To whom does the WRMO/WRMNCO submit the WRM budget?
a. base finance officer
b. wing commander
c. group commander
d. GMO
a. base finance office
When can WRM be used in peacetime?
a. extreme circumstances
b. daily operations
c. semi-annually
d. annually
a. extreme circumstances
If required, through whom are WRM indirect mission support requests coordinated for forwarding to the next approval level?
a. WRMPM
b. GMO
c. Commander
d. AFIMSC
b. GMO
Who is responsible for the reconstitution of WRM equipment when it is used as direct mission support?
a. host nation
b. using command
c. storing command
d. WRMO/WRMNCO
c. storing command
WRM used to support JCS taskings is considered…
a. host nation support
b. using command support
c. direct mission support
d. indirect mission support
c. direct mission support
The support agreement process starts when the…
a. DCAPES is updated
b. SAM receives a request for support
c. LRS commander directs it
d. CCDR directs it
b. SAM receives a request for support
To whom is the support agreement impasse letter forwarded if there is an impasse concerning the overall agreement?
a. UDM
b. IDO
c. MAJCOM counterparts
d. FAAC
c. MAJCOM counterparts
If an impasse cannot be resolved at a MAJCOM who must be notified?
a. UDM
b. IDO
c. HAF/A4L
d. FAAC
c. HAF/A4L
Who conducts a support agreement budget review?
a. FMO
b. SAM
c. IAO
d. Host budget and finance office
a. FMO
During the annual review, a new support agreement funding annex is developed if…
a. there is more than a 5% change to the requested support
b. there is more than a 10% change to the requested support
c. the exchange rate is increased by more than 5%
d. the exchange rate is increased by more than 10%
b. there is more than a 10% change to the requested support
As a minimum, how many days’ notice must be given when a supplier or receiver needs to reduce, modify, or terminate a support agreement?
a. 30
b. 90
c. 120
d. 180
d. 180
In order for the support agreement process to be effective a FAAC must have…
a. proper training
b. at least 2 years on station
c. a signed appointment letter
d. a background in contract management
a. proper training
When training the FAAC, the supplier SAM is assisted by personnel from the…
a. training and supply office
b. plans and programs office
c. contracting and public affairs
d. manpower and financial analysis office
d. manpower and financial analysis office
The purpose of an ACSA is to simplify the interchange of…
a. logistics support between USAF, allied, and friendly forces
b. nuclear weapons between USAF, allied, and friendly forces
c. logistics support between USAF and NASA
d. weapons systems between the USAF and NASA
a. logistics support between USAF, allied, and friendly forces
Which ACSA support category allows for the transfer of rations?
a. commercial food supply
b. meals, ready-to-eat
c. service’s dining
d. food
d. food
Who may execute transactions on behalf of the AF while maintaining a record of all transactions in ACSA AGATRS and provide policy and guidance to field level units?
a. MAJCOM ACSA managers
b. MAJCOM acquisition manager
c. MAJCOM JA
d. NAF ACSA manager
a. MAJCOM ACSA managers
Who coordinates with DFAS on all ACSA related issues and ensures that all billing and collection requirements are completed?
a. MAJCOM ACSA manager
b. MAJCOM FM
c. Installation FAO
d. NAF ACSA manager
b. MAJCOM FM
There are no political or financial risks associated with an ACSA because it is…
a. binding in nature
b. non-binding in nature
c. protected by local SOFA
d. protected by UCMJ
b. non-binding in nature
The execution of transfer authority under an ACSA reduces the US “logistics tail” by…
a. allowing procurement of needed items from a HN
b. encouraging the transfer of high threat weapons systems during a time of war
c. reducing the manning requirements of the DCC
d. allowing procurement of needed items from another military unit to provide the service
a. allowing procurement of needed items from a HN
Who may be called upon to act as part of the OPR for the execution or oversight of transfers under ACSA authority?
a. IPR
b. Deploying contracting office agent
c. Home SAM
d. logistics planner in a deployed LRS
d. logistics planner in a deployed LRS
The ACSA activity report is based on the…
a. value of transactions conducted in the prior fiscal year
b. value of transactions in the prior calendar year
c. amount of requested support by an outside agency not supported in the prior fiscal year
d. amount of requested support by an outside agency not supported in the prior calendar year
a. value of transactions conducted in the prior fiscal year
Who coordinates with the reception base or transit location on unique support requirements, suggested changes, or other impacts on reception planning?
a. HN leaders
b. deploying unit commanders
c. IPR
d. ART monitors
b. deploying unit commanders
All of the following are planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II development of a BSP or ESP except the…
a. global strategy document
b. support agreement request
c. WCDO
d. all forces TPFDD
b. support agreement request
Which planning document is not used in developing the BSP part II?
a. WAAR
b. WRM authorization documents
c. LOGMOD documents
d. contingency in-place requirements
c. LOGMOD documents
The BSP limiting factors are in chapter…
a. 18
b. 23
c. 33
d. 43
d. 43
Who validates and prioritizes the BSP LIMFAC affecting force deployment, reception, employment, and overall mission accomplishment?
a. UDM
b. BSPC
c. Wing commander
d. IDO
b. BSPC
Which provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes actions for a site survey team?
a. operations planning
b. support agreements
c. ESSP
d. the pre-deployment status of forces agreement
c. ESSP
Which provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes actions for a site survey team?
a. operations planning
b. support agreements
c. ESSP
d. the pre-deployment status of forces agreement
c. ESSP
Which does the ESSP process define?
a. capability
b. strength
c. merit
d. cost
a. capability
