Vocabulary Flashcards
What is the primary function of a Control Account in project management? One
A) It is the account used to store the project’s funds and financial resources.
B) It is an account that records all the changes and updates made to the project scope.
C) It is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.
D) It is an account used to track and control communication throughout the project.
C) It is a management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.
Which of the following best describes the technique of Rolling Wave Planning in project management? One
A) A planning technique where every detail of the project is planned before the project begins.
B) A planning technique that involves improvising as the project progresses without any predefined structure.
C) An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the future is planned at a higher level.
D) A planning technique that relies solely on historical data to plan the entire project.
C) An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the future is planned at a higher level.
Which tool is primarily used to establish connections between product requirements and the deliverables that fulfill them, ensuring that all requirements are accounted for throughout the project? One
A) Requirements Traceability Matrix
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Risk Register
D) Project Charter
A) Requirements Traceability Matrix
What is the purpose of the WBS Dictionary in project management? One
A) It outlines the project’s communication plan and stakeholder engagement strategies.
B) It provides detailed information about deliverables, activities, and scheduling for each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
C) It serves as a glossary, defining key terms and acronyms used throughout the project.
D) It documents the project’s risk management plan, including potential risks and mitigation strategies.
B) It provides detailed information about deliverables, activities, and scheduling for each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
Who is described as an individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program, or portfolio? One
A) Project Manager
B) Team Member
C) Stakeholder
D) Sponsor
C) Stakeholder
What is the purpose of a project charter in project management? One
A) To create a detailed plan of all project tasks and activities
B) To formally authorize the existence of a project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
C) To list all the stakeholders involved in a project
D) To outline the project’s budget and financial resources
B) To formally authorize the existence of a project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
A RACI Chart is a type of Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) that uses the statuses Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed to define the involvement of stakeholders in project activities. True or False? One
A) True
B) False
True
Select all statements that accurately describe the Focus Groups technique in the context of gathering information and expectations for a proposed product, service, or result. All
A) Focus Groups involve discussions with prequalified stakeholders to understand their expectations.
B) Focus Groups are an elicitation technique that brings together subject matter experts.
C) Focus Groups are used to gain insights into attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
What is the term for a set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives? One
A) Steering Committee
B) Project Team
C) Stakeholders
D) Project Sponsor
B) Project Team
The Resource Management Plan is a project document that exclusively focuses on identifying project risks and outlining strategies to mitigate them. True or False? One
A) True
B) False
B) False
Select all statements that correctly describe Ground Rules as defined in a team charter. All
A) Ground rules provide a detailed project schedule and budget
B) Ground rules set clear expectations regarding the code of conduct for team members
C) Ground rules outline the specific technical processes to be used in the project.
D) Ground rules help in establishing a common understanding of acceptable behavior within the team.
Predictive or agile?
B) Ground rules set clear expectations regarding the code of conduct for team members
D) Ground rules help in establishing a common understanding of acceptable behavior within the team.
PREDICTIVE!
Questionnaires and Surveys are utilized in a written format to rapidly collect information from a large number of respondents. True or False? One
A) True
B) False
A) True
Which of the following best describes the term “Consensus” in the context of decision-making? One
A) A decision made by the project manager without input from the team members.
B) A decision made by the majority of the team, regardless of the opinions of the minority.
C) A collaborative process to reach a decision that everyone can support.
D) A decision made by a single authoritative figure in the organization.
C) A collaborative process to reach a decision that everyone can support.
Select all statements that accurately describe Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs). All
A) EEFs are conditions completely under the control of the project team
B) EEFs can be internal or external conditions that influence the project.
C) EEFs only impact the project at the organizational level.
D) EEFs can constrain or direct the project at multiple levels, including portfolio, program, or project level.
B) EEFs can be internal or external conditions that influence the project.
D) EEFs can constrain or direct the project at multiple levels, including portfolio, program, or project level.
Which of the following tools is utilized to compare the current and desired engagement levels of stakeholders in a project? One
A) RACI Matrix
B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
C) Stakeholder Register
D) Power/Interest Grid
B) Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
The Scope Management Plan is a component of a project or program management plan that outlines how the project scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated. True or False? One
A) True
B) False
A) True
Select all statements that accurately describe Project Scope. All
A) Project Scope refers exclusively to the financial budget of the project.
B) Project Scope includes the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specific features and functions.
C) Project Scope may encompass the product scope.
D) Project Scope is solely determined by the project’s stakeholders without input from the project team.
B) Project Scope includes the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specific features and functions.
C) Project Scope may encompass the product scope.
Which technique is employed to acquire an understanding of a specific job role, task, or function, with the aim of identifying project requirements through direct study and analysis? One
A) Surveys
B) Focus Groups
C) Observations
D) Document Analysis
C) Observations
Benchmarking involves comparing actual and planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate improvement ideas, and establish a performance measurement basis. One
A) True
B) False
A) True
Which of the following documents provides a detailed description of the project scope, including the major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints associated with the project?
A) Project Charter
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Project Management Plan
D) Project Scope Statement
D) Project Scope Statement
Which of the following are considered Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)? All
A) Knowledge bases specific to the performing organization
B) Policies and procedures used by the performing organization
C) Plans and processes implemented by the performing organization
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Select all statements that accurately describe the technique of Document Analysis in the context of gathering project requirements. All
A) Document Analysis involves creating new documentation to gather project requirements.
B) Document Analysis is a technique used to understand project requirements from existing documentation.
C) Document Analysis is only applicable in the initial stages of a project.
D) Document Analysis can provide insights into current processes and expectations.
B) Document Analysis is a technique used to understand project requirements from existing documentation.
D) Document Analysis can provide insights into current processes and expectations.
What term best describes the component of a project or program management plan that outlines the procedures for how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project lifecycle? One
A) Project Scope Statement
B) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Change Management Plan
D) Requirements Management Plan
D) Requirements Management Plan
What best describes a Planning Package in the context of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? One
A) It is the highest level of the WBS hierarchy, containing the total scope of the project.
B) It is a WBS component that includes detailed schedule activities and specific work packages.
C) It is the WBS component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.
D) It is a document that outlines the entire planning process of the project.
C) It is the WBS component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.
Select all statements that correctly describe Project Requirements. All
A) Project Requirements are solely focused on the financial aspects of a project.
B) Project Requirements include milestone dates that the project needs to meet
C) Project Requirements are the actions, processes, or other conditions the project needs to meet
D) Project Requirements are informal suggestions that do not need to be strictly adhered to.
B) Project Requirements include milestone dates that the project needs to meet
C) Project Requirements are the actions, processes, or other conditions the project needs to meet
Which of the following documents or tools can be described as a list of individuals or organizations who are actively involved in the project, whose interests may be negatively or positively affected by the performance or completion of the project, and whose needs or expectations need to be considered? One
A) Work Breakdown Structure
B) Stakeholder Register
C) Gantt Chart
D) Risk Register
B) Stakeholder Register
Which project management tool provides a hierarchical decomposition of the total project work, helping to achieve project objectives and create the necessary deliverables? One
A) Gantt Chart
B) Risk Register
C) Project Schedule
D) Work Breakdown Structure
D) Work Breakdown Structure
Which of the following best describes the process of obtaining early feedback on project requirements by providing a preliminary working model of the expected product? One
A) Prototyping
B) Risk Analysis
C) Cost Estimation
D) Resource Allocation
A) Prototyping
Which term refers to the numbering system used to uniquely identify each component within the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) of a project? One
A) Cost Baseline
B) Control Account
C) Code of Accounts
D) Cost Aggregation
C) Code of Accounts
In a Predictive Life Cycle, project scope, time, and cost are determined and defined as the project progresses and more information becomes available. One
A) True
B) False
B) False
Select all statements that accurately describe Context Diagrams. All
A) Context Diagrams provide a visual representation of project timelines and schedules
B) Context Diagrams illustrate how people and other systems interact with a business system.
C) Context Diagrams are used to depict the product scope in a visual format
D) Context Diagrams detail the internal workings and structure of a business system
B) Context Diagrams illustrate how people and other systems interact with a business system.
C) Context Diagrams are used to depict the product scope in a visual format
Progressive Elaboration refers to the iterative process of reducing the level of detail in a project management plan as the project progresses. True or False? One
A) True
B) False
B) False
What term describes organized working sessions led by qualified facilitators, designed to bring stakeholders together to collaboratively determine project requirements and reach agreement on project outcomes? One
A) Brainstorming Sessions
B) Focus Groups
C) Facilitated Workshops
D) Stakeholder Meetings
C) Facilitated Workshops
Select all statements that accurately describe Storyboarding. All
A) Storyboarding is a technique that uses textual descriptions to outline a project’s steps.
B) Storyboarding is a prototyping method that utilizes visuals or images
C) Storyboarding helps in illustrating a process or representing a project outcome
D) Storyboarding is primarily used for financial analysis and budgeting
B) Storyboarding is a prototyping method that utilizes visuals or images
C) Storyboarding helps in illustrating a process or representing a project outcome
What is the term for a formal or informal approach used to gather information directly from stakeholders through conversation? One
A) Surveys
B) Brainstorming
C) Observations
D) Interviews
D) Interviews
Which of the following statements accurately describe Resource Calendars? All
A) Resource Calendars identify the working days and shifts for specific resources
B) Resource Calendars provide a detailed list of all project tasks and activities
C) Resource Calendars are used primarily to track the project’s financial expenses
D) Resource Calendars specify when specific resources are made available to the project
A) Resource Calendars identify the working days and shifts for specific resources
D) Resource Calendars specify when specific resources are made available to the project
The Team Charter is a document primarily used for detailing the project schedule, budget, and resource allocation. Is it Predictive or Agile?
A) True
B) False
Predictive!
B) False
Which term best describes a systematic procedure, technique, or process employed to facilitate the transfer of information among project stakeholders? One
A) Communication Channels
B) Communication Methods
C) Informal Management Systems
D) Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix
B) Communication Methods
The Statement of Work (SOW) is typically a brief and high-level overview, providing a quick snapshot of the expected outcomes without going into detail about the products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.
A) True
B) False
B) False
What is the primary purpose of the Schedule Management Plan in project management? One
A) To outline the project’s objectives, stakeholders, and their roles and responsibilities
B) To establish the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.
C) To provide a detailed list of all resources required for the project, including their costs and availability.
D) To identify and analyze the project risks, as well as strategies for mitigating them.
B) To establish the criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.
A Critical Path Activity is defined as any activity that is not located on the critical path in a project schedule.
A) True
B) False
B) False
What is the Scope Baseline in project management? One
A) Approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
B) A preliminary version of the project’s scope statement and WBS that is subject to change as the project progresses
C) The total sum of all tasks, activities, and deliverables required to complete the project
D) The process of gathering and documenting the specific goals, deliverables, tasks, costs, and deadlines of a project
A) Approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
Which of the following best describes a strategic document and plan that guides why a product will be delivered and how the product will meet objectives and the product vision? One
A) Business Case
B) Project Charter
C) Product Roadmap
D) Work Breakdown Structure
C) Product Roadmap
Select all the activities that are included in Project Risk Management as described in the provided definition. All
A) Developing strategies to deal with potential project risks
B) Conducting procurement activities for project resources
C) Identifying and listing potential risks that might affect the project
D) Implementing responses to address identified project risks
E) Creating a communication plan for the project stakeholders
F) Monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of risk responses
A) Developing strategies to deal with potential project risks
C) Identifying and listing potential risks that might affect the project
D) Implementing responses to address identified project risks
F) Monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of risk responses
The Procurement Management Plan only includes information on how goods and services will be acquired from within the performing organization, not from outside sources. One
A) True
B) False
B) False
The Quality Management Plan is a component of the project management plan that outlines the implementation of applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines to achieve the project’s quality objectives. One
A) True
B) False
A) True
In project management, what is meant by the term “Risk Tolerance”? One
A) The process of identifying, analyzing, and responding to risks
B) The amount of risk, measured in terms of probability and impact, that an organization or individual is willing to accept
C) The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward
D) The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and below which risks may be accepted
B) The amount of risk, measured in terms of probability and impact, that an organization or individual is willing to accept
What term best describes the net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor, which can be tangible, intangible, or both? One
A) Return on Investment
B) Business Value
C) Stakeholder Satisfaction
D) Competitive Advantage
B) Business Value
In project management and product development, what term best describes a set of related requirements that enables a user to fulfill a business objective or need? One
A) Task
B) User Story
C) Work Package
D) Feature
D) Feature
Which of the following best describes User Stories in project management? One
A) Short descriptions of required functionality; told from the user’s point of view
B) Detailed technical specifications that outline how a feature should be implemented in a project
C) A list of all the tasks and activities that need to be completed in a project
D) A formal document outlining the project’s objectives, stakeholders, and their roles and responsibilities
A) Short descriptions of required functionality; told from the user’s point of view
In project management, what is a Work Package? One
A) The initial stage of the Work Breakdown Structure where the scope of the project is broadly defined
B) A high-level categorization of project tasks in the Work Breakdown Structure
C) The work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed
D) The total sum of all tasks and activities required to complete the project
C) The work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration are estimated and managed
Select all the statements that accurately describe the Risk Management Plan based on the given definition. All
A) It is a component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan
B) It outlines the structure and procedures for conducting risk management activities
C) It is a standalone document that is not connected to the project management plan
D) All of the above
A) It is a component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan
B) It outlines the structure and procedures for conducting risk management activities
Select all the statements that correctly describe a Risk based on the provided definition. All
A) A risk is always a negative event or condition in a project
B) A risk is an uncertain event or condition that can affect the project’s objectives
C) A risk has a predetermined effect on the project’s objectives
D) A risk can have either a positive or negative effect on project objectives
E) A risk is a certain event that will definitely occur during the project
B) A risk is an uncertain event or condition that can affect the project’s objectives
D) A risk can have either a positive or negative effect on project objectives
Quality is defined as the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfill requirements. One
A) True
B) False
A) True
What is the main purpose of Qualitative Risk Analysis in project management? One
A) To numerically analyze the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives
B) To create a risk management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed
C) To track identified risks, monitor residual risks, and evaluate the effectiveness of risk responses throughout the project
D) To prioritize individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics
D) To prioritize individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics
A Quality Audit involves a casual and informal review of project activities to ensure that they are in alignment with personal preferences and informal practices. One
A) True
B) False
B) False
What does the term “Risk Appetite” refer to in project management? One
A) The process of identifying and analyzing potential risks
B) The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward
C) The specific types of risk that an organization or individual wants to avoid
D) The plan for how to deal with the potential risks identified
B) The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward
In agile project management, how is a very large collection of user stories, which can be spread across many sprints, best described? One
A) Feature
B) Task
C) Backlog
D) Epic
D) Epic
Which of the following are components or aspects of Project Governance as defined in the provided definition? Select all that apply. All
A) A framework guiding project management activities
B) Processes that lead to the creation of a unique product, service, or result
C) Guidelines for meeting organizational, strategic, and operational goals
D) A method for fast-tracking project schedules
E) Functions that oversee project execution and control
A) A framework guiding project management activities
B) Processes that lead to the creation of a unique product, service, or result
C) Guidelines for meeting organizational, strategic, and operational goals
E) Functions that oversee project execution and control
In Disciplined Agile, what term is used to describe the smallest amount of value that can be added to a product or service and still bring benefits to the business? One
A) Minimum Business Increments (MBI)
B) Minimum Viable Product (MVP)
C) Business Value Optimization
D) Incremental Development
A) Minimum Business Increments (MBI)
In project management, what term best describes a significant point or event that represents a major achievement or a pivotal stage in a project, program, or portfolio? One
A) Milestone
B) Task
C) Deliverable
D) Checkpoint
A) Milestone
What term describes the tools used to represent the process of communication, including descriptions, analogies, and schematics, specifically tailored for a project? One
A) Communication Channels
B) Stakeholder Engagement Tools
C) Communication Models
D) Information Distribution Systems
C) Communication Models
What is the name of the component within the project, program, or portfolio management plan that outlines the methods and timings for how project information will be shared and who will be responsible for its distribution? One
A) Communications Management Plan
B) Information Distribution Plan
C) Project Communication Strategy
D) Stakeholder Engagement Plan
A) Communications Management Plan
Histogram
Used to find biggest impact
Flowchart
A diagram that depicts a process, system or computer algorithm.
Matrix Diagram
A tool for displaying and analyzing the relationships between two or more data sets
Affinity Map
A visual tool that helps you organize information from a brainstorming session. You’ll sort ideas into different groups or categories based on their relationships to one another.
