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My Clinical Medicine > Vocab > Flashcards

Vocab Flashcards

1
Q

Autonomy

A

patient’s need for self-determination.

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2
Q

Beneficence

A

The ethical principle that means “do good” for the patient.

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3
Q

Chief Complaint

A

brief statement telling why the patient is seeking care.

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4
Q

HPI

A

Step by step evaluation of surrounding the patients reason for seekin gmedical care

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5
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

The ethical principle that means “do no harm” to the patient

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6
Q

Past Medical History (PMH)

A

Statement of the patient’s overall health prior to the onset of the present complaint

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7
Q

Family History (FMH)

A

Information about the health of family members to identify a possible health risk for the patient; this should include ages (ages at death) and the casues of death.

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8
Q

Social History (SocH)

A

Work, marriage, diet, exercise, sxual and military experiences, uses of alcohol, tobacco and illicit drugs.

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9
Q

Review of Systems (ROS)

A

An area where you question the patient about possible complaints for different body systems.

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10
Q

Utilitarianism

A

A theory that defines the appropriate use of resources as that which results in the greatest good for the greatest number

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11
Q

Values

A

The ideals, customs, institutions and behaviors regarded by a specific group

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12
Q

Acromegaly

A

A growth disorder associated with the pituitary tumor.

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13
Q

Afebrile

A

Without a fever. Between 36-38 degrees C. 97-100.4 degrees F.

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14
Q

Body mass index

A

A parameter used to provide guidance regarding the appropriateness of weight for height.

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15
Q

Failure to thrive

A

A sign defined by growth in an infant or child below the 3rd or 5th percentiles on growth chart

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16
Q

Febrile

A

Greater than 100.4 degrees F or 38 degrees C

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17
Q

Gestational age

A

An indicator of a newborn’s maturity

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18
Q

Head circumfrence

A

Measurement that should be obtained on each visit until 2 years of age.

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19
Q

Hypertensive

A

Increased blood pressure

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20
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

A condition that results from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain or ventricular system

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21
Q

Hypotensive

A

Low blood pressure

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22
Q

Normotensive

A

Normal blood pressure

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23
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Hypotension occuring when a person assumes an erect position. Systolic blood pressure decrease of at least 20 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure decrease of at least 10 mm Hg with a reflex increase in heart rate within three minutes of standing.

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24
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

The variation in blood pressure occuring in an artery during the cardiac cycle; it is the difference between the systolic, or maximum, and diastolic, or minimum, pressures. A reading of 30-50 is considered in the normal range.

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25
Q

Respiratory Rate

A

About 12-20 breaths per minute in adults

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26
Q

Alopecia

A

Hair loss

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27
Q

Angular Cheilosis

A

Reddish inflammation of the lip or lips and production of fissures that radiate from the angles of the mouth.

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28
Q

Anosmia

A

Absence of the sense of smell. It may be due to lesion of the olfactory nerve, obstruction of the nasal fossae, or functional, without any apparent causative lesion.

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29
Q

Caries

A

microbial destruction or necrosis of teeth

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30
Q

Cerumen

A

The soft, brownish yellow, waxy secretion of the ceruminous glands of the external auditory canal. Ear Wax

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31
Q

Cheilitis

A

Inflammation and cracking of the lips

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32
Q

Cholesteatoma

A

A mass of keratinizing squamous epithelium and cholesterol in the middle ear, usually caused by chronic otitis media, with squamous metaplasia or extension of squamous epithelium inward to line an expanding cystic cavity that may involve the mastoid and erode surrounding bone.

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33
Q

Epistaxis

A

Bleeding from the nose

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34
Q

Epstein pearls

A

Multiple small, white, epithelial inclusion cysts found in the midline of teh palate in newborn infants.

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35
Q

Fordyce spots

A

Ectopic sebaceous glands of teh buccal mucosa appearing as small yellow-white raised lesions found on the inner surface and vermilion border of the lips

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36
Q

Frenulum

A

Small fold of tissue that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth.

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37
Q

Gingivitis

A

Inflammation of the gingiva (gums)

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38
Q

Koplik’s spots

A

Small red spots with bluish-white centers on the buccal mucosa opposite the molar teeth appearing in the prodromal stage of measles

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39
Q

Leukoplakia

A

Circumscribed, firmly attached, thick white patches on the tongue and other mucous membranes, often occuring as a precancerous growth. Often this is associated with pipe smoking and snuff.

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40
Q

Oropharynx

A

Area of the throat that is located between the mouth and nasopharynx

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41
Q

Otitis externa

A

Inflammation of teh external auditory canal, usually due to bacterial or fungal infection; swimming, cerumen accumulation, foreign body, and trauma may all be predisposing factors.

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42
Q

Otitis media

A

Inflammation/infection of the mucous membrane and underlying parts of the pharynx

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43
Q

Peritonsillar abscess

A

Deep infection in the space between the soft palate and tonsil.

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44
Q

Pharyngitis

A

Inflammation/infection of the mucous membrane and underlying parts of the pharynx

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45
Q

Presbycusis

A

The impairment of hearing due to aging

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46
Q

Rhinitis

A

Inflammation of the nasal mucosa

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47
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

A thin watery discharge from the nose

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48
Q

Tinnitus

A

An auditory sensation in the absence of sound heard in one or both ears, such as ringing, buzzing, hissing or clicking

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49
Q

Tophi

A

Small, whitish uric acid crystals along the peripheral margins of the auricles in persons who may have gout.

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50
Q

Torus mandibularis

A

A bony protuberance on the lingual aspect of the lower jaw in the canine-premolar region

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51
Q

Torus palatinus

A

A bony protuberance in the midline of teh hard palate

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52
Q

Tympanosclerosis

A

The formation of dense connective tissue in the middle ear, often resulting in hearing loss when the ossicles are involved

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53
Q

Accomodation

A

Adjustment of teh eye for various distances through modifications of the lens curvature

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54
Q

Anisocoria

A

Inequality of the diameter of th epupils; may be normal or congenital. Often normal if inequality is within 1 mm.

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55
Q

Aphakia

A

A condition in which part or all of the crystalline lens of the eye is abscent, usually because of surgical removal for the treatment of cataracts

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56
Q

Aqueous humor

A

The watery transparent liquid containing trace albumin and small amounts of salts produced by the iris, ciliary body, and cornea. It circulates through the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye.

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57
Q

Corneal arcus

A

Opaque white ring about corneal periphery, seen in many individuals older than 60 years of age. This is due to deposit of lipids in the cornea or the hyaline degeneration. May indicate a lipid disorder, most commony type II hyperlipidemia if present before the 40 years of age (if seen in younger people it is called arcus juvenilis).

58
Q

Astigmatism

A

An abnormal condition in which the light rays cannot be focused clearly in a point on the retina because of an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens

59
Q

Cataracts

A

Opacity of the lens, most commonly resulting from denaturation of the lens protein caused by aging

60
Q

Chalazion

A

Small, hard tumor analogous to sebaceous cyst developing on the eye lids, formed by the distention of a meibomian gland with secretion

61
Q

Choriod

A

The middle vascular tunic of the eye lying between the retina and the sclera. Dark brown vascular coat of the eye between the sclera and retina, extending from ora serrata to optic nerve. Consists of blood vessels united by connective tissue containing pigmented cells and is made up of five layers

62
Q

Ciliary body

A

The thickened part of the vascular tunic of the eye that joins the iris with the anterior portion of the choroid. Consist of three zones: ciliary disk, ciliary crown and ciliary muscle

63
Q

Cones

A

The photosensitive, outward-directed, conical process of a cone cell essential for sharp vision and color vision; cones are the only photoreceptor in the fovea centralis and become interspersed with increasing numbers of rods toward the periphery of the retina

64
Q

Conjunctiva

A

The mucous membrane investing the anterior surface of the eyeball and the posterior surface of the lids

65
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by infectious agents or by allergies: Commonly called pinkeye

66
Q

Cornea

A

The clear, transparent anterior portion of the fibrous coat of the eye comprising about one sixth of its surface. It is the3 chief refractory structure of the eye

67
Q

Depth perception

A

Perception of spatial relationships; three dimensional perception. The visual ability to judge depth or distance.

68
Q

Diabetic retinopathy (Background)

A

A condition characterized by dot hemorrhages or microaneurysms and the presence of hard and soft exudates

69
Q

Diabetic retinopathy (Proliferative)

A

A condition characterized by development of new vessels as a result of anoxic stimulation; vessels grow out of the retinatoward the vitreous humor

70
Q

Diopter

A

Refractive power of the lens with focal distance of 1 meter, used as a unit of measurement in refraction.

71
Q

Diplopia

A

The condition in which a single object is perceived as two objects (double vision).

72
Q

Drusen

A

Tiny yellow or white deposits in the retina of the eye or on the optic nerve head.

73
Q

Ectropion

A

Eversion (outward rolling) of an edge or margin; as the edge of the eyelid

74
Q

Entropion

A

Inversion (inward rolling) of an edge or margin; especially the margin of teh lower eyelid

75
Q

Exophthalmos

A

An increase in the volume of the orbital content. causing a protrusion of the globes forward. It may be bilateral or unilateral. The most common cause of bilateral is Graves disease (thyroid disease), but when unilateral protrusion is noted a retro-orbital tumor must be suspected

76
Q

Farsightedness

A

An error of refraction in which, with accomodation completely relaxed, parallel rays come to focus behind the retina

77
Q

Glaucoma

A

A disease of the optic nerve wherein the nerve cells die, producing increased cuppin appearance of the optic nerve, An abnormal condition of elevated pressure within an eye resulting from obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor. Produces defects in the visual field and may result in blindness.

78
Q

Hemianopia

A

Blindness for half the field of vision in one or both eyes

79
Q

Hordeolum (sty)

A

A suppurative inflammation of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid

80
Q

Hyperopia (farsightedness)

A

A refractive error in which light rays entering the eye are focused behind the retina

81
Q

Hyphema

A

Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye in front of the iris.

82
Q

Iris

A

The colored contractile membrane suspended between the lens and cornea in the aqueous humor of the eye, separating the anterior and posterior chambers of the eyeball and perforated in the center by the pupil. By contraction and dilation it regulates the entrance of light

83
Q

Iritis

A

Inflammation of the iris

84
Q

Legal blindness

A

In the United States, a person is usually considered legally blind when vision in the better eye, corrected by glasses, is 20/200 or less or in the case of a constricted field of vision: 20 degrees or less in the better eye

85
Q

Miosis

A

Abnormal contraction of pupils

86
Q

Myopia (nearsightedness)

A

A condition resulting from a refractive error in which light rays entering the eye are brought into focus in front of the retina.

87
Q

Night blindness

A

Decreased ability to see in reduced illumination. Seen in patients with impaired rod function; often associated with a deficiency of vitamin A

88
Q

Nystagmus

A

Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes; the oscillations may be horizontal, vertical, rotary, or mixed

89
Q

Papilledema

A

Edema of the optic disc resulting in loss of disfunction of the disc margin; the cause often is increased intracranial pressure

90
Q

Peripheral vision

A

Vision resulting from retinal stimulation beyond the macula

91
Q

Pinguecula

A

A harmless yellowish triangular nodule in the bulbar conjunctiva on either side of the iris that stops at the limbus

92
Q

Presbyopia

A

Hyperopia (farsightedness) and impaired near vision from loss of lens elasticity, generally developing during middle age.

93
Q

Pterygium

A

A triangular (patch like) thickeningof the bulbar conjunctiva that grows slowly to the outer surface of the cornea, usually from the nasal side, and may cover a portion of the cornea

94
Q

Ptosis

A

The drooping of one or both upper eyelids

95
Q

Punctum

A

The tiny aperture (opening) in the margin of each eyelid that opens to the lacrimal duct

96
Q

Red Reflex

A

A response caused by light illuminating the retina

97
Q

Refraction

A

The act of determining the nature and degree of the refractive errors in the eye and correction of them by lenses

98
Q

Retina

A

The sensory network of the eye that transforms light impulses into electrical impulses, which are transmitted through the optic nerve

99
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa

A

A chronic progressive disease, which may occur in childhood, characterized by degeneration of the retinal neuroepithelium

100
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

An embryonic malignant glioma arising from the retina usually durin gthe first two years of life. Initial diagnostic finding is usually a yellowish or white light reflex seen at the pupil. (Cat’s eye reflex).

101
Q

Rods

A

The photosensitive, outward-directed process of a rhodopsin-containing rod cell in the external granular layer of the retina; many millions of such rods, together with the cones, form the photoreceptive layer of rods and cones

102
Q

Sclera

A

A tough white fibrous tissue which covers the so-called white of the eye. It extends from the optic nerve to the cornea.

103
Q

Scleritis

A

Superficial and deep inflammation of the sclera

104
Q

Strabismus

A

A condition in which both eyes do not focus on the same object simultaneously, however either eye can focus independently

105
Q

Uveitis

A

Inflammation of the iris, ciliary body, and choroid, or the entire uvea.

106
Q

Vitreous Body

A

A transparent jellylike substance that fills the cavity of the eyeball, enclosed by the hyaloid membrane; it is composed of a delicate network (vitreous stroma) enclosing in its meshes a watery fluid (vitreous humor).

107
Q

Adventitious breath sounds

A

Abnormal Auscultated Breath sounds such as crackles, rhonchi, wheezes and fric tion rub

108
Q

Apnea

A

A temporary halt to breathing

109
Q

Atelectasis

A

Incomplete expansion of the lung

110
Q

Barrel Chest

A

Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest, often with some degree of dyphosis; commonly seen with COPD

111
Q

Bronchophony

A

An exaggeration of vocal resonance emanating from a bronchus surrounded by consolidadated lung tissue

112
Q

Bronchoiolitis

A

Inflammation of the bronchioles

113
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

Disease process which causes decreased ability of the lungs to perform their function of ventilation (nonspecific diagnosis that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema)

114
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficult and labored breathing, shortness of breath

115
Q

Egophony

A

The auditory quality associated with an increased intensity of the spoken voice along with a nasal quality (e’s become stuffy broad a’s). May present in any condition that consolidates lung tissue

116
Q

Hemoptysis

A

The coughing up of blood or bloodstained sputum from the respiratory tree

117
Q

Kyphosis

A

An increased convex curvature of the thoracic spine

118
Q

Normal vesicular breath sounds

A

Heard over most of of the lung fields; low pitch, soft and short expirations

119
Q

Normal tubular breath sounds

A

Heard only over trachea, high pitch; loud and long expirations, sometimes a bit longer than inspiration

120
Q

Normal bronchovesicular sounds

A

Heard over main bronchus area and over upper right posterior lung field; medium pitch’ expiration equals inspiration

121
Q

Orthopnea

A

Shortness of breath that begins or increases when the patient lies down

122
Q

Pectoriloquy

A

A striking transmission of voice sounds through the pulmonary structures, so they are clearly audible through the stethoscope, commonly occurs from lung consolidation

123
Q

Pectus Carinatum (Pigeon chest)

A

Forward protrusion of the sternum

124
Q

Pectus excavatum (Funnel chest)

A

depression of the sternum

125
Q

Resonance

A

Quality of the sound heard on percussion of a hollow structure such as the chest or abdomen

126
Q

Tachypnea

A

Rapid, usually shallow, breathing

127
Q

Tactile fremitus

A

A tremor or vibration in any part of the body detected on palpation

128
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy

A

The transmission of a whisper in the same way as that of more readily audible speech, commonly, detected when the lung is consolidated by pneumonia (increase in the volume of voice sounds)

129
Q

Areola

A

Pigmented area surrounding the nipple

130
Q

Galactorrhea

A

Lactation not associated with childbearing

131
Q

Gynecomastia

A

Abnormally large mammary glands in the male; sometimes may excrete milk

132
Q

Lactation

A

The production and secretion of milk from the breast

133
Q

Mastitis

A

Inflammation of the breast

134
Q

Mastodynia

A

Pain in the breast

135
Q

Thelarche

A

The beginning of female pubertal breast development

136
Q

Angina

A

Severe, often constricting pain; caused by reduced arterial blood to the myocardium, which reduces oxygen supplied to the myocardial cells; causes injury and ischemia and the sharp precordial pain directly related to cardiac ischemia; usually refers to angina pectoris

137
Q

Arrhythmia

A

Loss of rhythm; denotes especially an irregularity of the heartbeat

138
Q

Bradycardia

A

Slow beating of the heart, usually at a rate of less than 60 beats per minute

139
Q

Bruit

A

A harsh or musical intermittent auscultatory sound, especially an abnormal one

140
Q

Palpitations

A

Forcible or irregular pulsation of the heart, perceptible to the patient, usually with an increase in frequency or force, with or without irregularity in rhythm

141
Q

Tachycardia

A

Rapid beatin gof the heart, conventionally applied to rates over 100 beats per minute.

My Clinical Medicine (2 decks)

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