Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

VNSE > VNSE - revision session > Flashcards

VNSE - revision session Flashcards

to cover the info on the power point

1
Q

what is an endogenous infection ?

A

when micro organisms responsible for infection originate from the same individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is an exogenous infection?

A

when microorganisms responsible for the infection originate from another sauce. eg. staff or the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the definition of contamination?

A

the accidental induction of a microorganism to the body tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the definition of colonisation ?

A

a state where microorganisms are present but there is no evidence of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the most common organisms found in wound infections ?

A

endogenous staphylococci and streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how could you prevent an endogenous infection and how would you nurse a patient with that infection?

A 
washing hands
wearing gloves 
who hand wash 
designated areas for urination 
barrier nursing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the ways that animals could excrete infection ?

A 
ocular discharge
nasal discharge 
saliva
vomit 
milk
genital discharge 
faeces 
urine 
blood 
fluid from skin lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is horizonal transmission ?

A

either the direct or indirect transmission of infection between individual animals of the same generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when might horizontal transmission occur ?

A

during the incubation period of an infection when the animal doesn’t exhibit any clinical signs.
when the animal is unwell
or if the animal has recovered but is still a carrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is direct transmission of an infection ?

A

the spread of infection directly from one animal to another eg. grooming, sleeping in close contact, mating, fighting, inhalation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is indirect transmission of an infection?

A

refers to infection being transferred via an intermediary .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is vertical transmission of infection?

A

vertical transmission is where disease is spread from her dam to her offspring. it may occur before or during birth. or via milk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some sources of transmission?

A 
the patient 
the surgical team 
the operating theatre 
the equipment
fomites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

factors that increase the risk of surgical cite infections?

A 
clipping 
prepping 
length of general anaesthetic
time of procedure 
surgical tissue handling 
number of people present 
length of stay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why shouldn’t you rely on antibiotics ?

A

high costs, ineffectiveness of antibiotics, outbreaks of drug resistant nosocomial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 5 most common nosocomial infections ?

A

surgical site infections

intravenous cannula associated infections

catheter associated urinary tract infections

Diarrhoea

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does sterilisation mean ?

A

sterilisation is the removal of all viable forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores to achieve acceptable sterility assurance level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does disinfection mean ?

A

disinfection is a process designed to remove microbes that may result in an infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the aims of preoperative skin antisepsis?

A

to reduce bacterial numbers to a level that can be controlled by the patients local defences.

to remove particularly virulent harmful microbes that may cause infection even if present in small numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is anaesthesia?

A

a reversible immobile state, that makes the patient unaware of noxious/ harmful stimuli and induces amnesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 3 components of anaesthesia needed to create balanced anaesthesia?

A

unconsciousness
muscle relaxation
pain relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a pre mendicant?

A

a drug given prior to the use of another drug, this can be to counteract side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

give an example of a pre mendicant?

A

a sedative drug given prior to an anaesthetic induction agent as part of a planned anaesthetic protocol.
eg. Phenothiazines
Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are some analgesics that could be used in pre-mendicants?

A

opioids
Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
local anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
why are pre mendicants used ? - To calm and control the patient
- easier handling - quiet induction - muscle relaxation - results in reduced levels of catecholamines, eg Adrenaline which will reduce chances of arrhythmias
26
why are pre mendicants used ? - To relive pain
An animal in pain is not settled, they tend to be restless. | Analgesics eg. opioids are given to exert a pre-emptive effect, during surgery and for immediate recovery.
27
why are pre mendicants used to reduce the amount of anaesthetic agent required for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia?
because it reduces unwanted side effects. anaesthetic agents have unwanted side effects, a pre anaesthetic medication can reduce such effects.
28
what happens if you induce a patient with ketamine?
they will have muscle ridgity, this effect can be reduced or abolished with the use of an agent with muscle relaxing properties eg, benzodiazepine or alpha 2 agonist.
29
what are some other reasons for the use of premediates?
It decreases airway secretions reduces autonomic reflex responses decreases gastric fluid volume and prevents regurgitation If a patient is extremely sick then pre meds are very important as it means that less induction agent will be needed.
30
What are the drug groups of sedative pre mendicants?
Phenothiazines Alpha 2 agonists Benzodiazepines
31
give an example of a sedative pre mendicant in the group Phenothiazines?
Acepromazine 2mg/ml injectable solution
32
What is Acepromazine (a Phenothiazine ) most commonly used for?
``` Most commonly used as a Sedative Tranquilising properties Anti-emetic - anti sickness Spasmolytic Anti-histamine Alpha-1 adrenergic blockade ```
33
what are the uses of the sedative premediates in the phenothiazines group? (Acepromazine)
tranquilisation with moderate sedation | maximal sedative action at low doses
34
what happens if you combine acepromazine (a phenothiazine) with Buprenorphine (an opioid)
neuroleptanlagesia can be created when a phenothiazine is combined with an opioid eg. buprenorphine and acepromazine
35
give an example of how neuroleptanlagesia can be created
buprenorphine and acepromazine, combining phenothiazine with an opioid.
36
what animals respond well to Phenothiazines such as Acepromazine?
nervous animals respond well however aggressive animals do NOT respond well at all.
37
limitations of Phenothiazines? which is a type of pre med sedative.
``` Bradycardia - slow heard rate Cardiac depression hypotension do not use in hypovolaemic animals contributes to hypothermia ```
38
pre meds are split into 2 groups. sedatives and analgesics. what are the different types of sedatives?
phenothiazines alpha 2 agonists Benzodiazepines
39
pre meds are split into 2 groups. sedatives and analgesics. what are the different types of analgesics?
opioids Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs local anaesthetics
40
what are alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists?
a type of sedative pre mendicant , 2 types agonist and antagonists that has a receptor site in the pre synaptic membrane.
41
what are some examples of alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists? - pre med - sedative
medetomidine | dexmedetomidine
42
uses of alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists - pre med - sedative such as medetomidine dexmedetomidine
``` dose dependant sedation and analgesia anxiolytic provides muscle relaxation used as chemical restraint will reduce anaesthetic induction by 20-80% ```
43
side effects of alpha 2 agonists such as medetomidine or dexmedetomidine
``` bradycardia hyper then hypotension minimal reduction in respiration can increase dilute urine grey mms ```
44
when should an alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists NOT BE USED? such as medetomidine or dexmedetomidine
``` Congestive heart failure respiratory disease intracranial pressure gastrointestinal tract obstruction diabetes anaemia urinary obstruction late pregnancy ```
45
give an example of a alpha 2 adrenoreceptor antagonist ? its a sedative pre med
atipamezole | Zoetis
46
what does alpha 2 adrenoreceptor antagonist such as Zoetis or atipamezole do?
its a reversal agent and stops the effect of medetomidine and dexmedetomidine
47
what is a Benzodiazepine ?
it is a sedative pre mendicant.
48
Give an example of a pre med, sedative , Benzodiazepine drug?
Diazepam and Midazolam
49
uses of Benzodiazepine drugs such as Diazepam or Midazolam?
``` Calming Anxiolytic Minor Tranquilizer Sick, depressed, depilated animal can use them . its an anticonvulsant muscle relaxant ```
50
limitations and side effects of using the sedative pre meds in the Benzodiazepine group such as Diazepam, Midazolam.
not reliable sedation minimal in healthy animals doesn't reduce the induction agent a lot avoid in hepatic patients
51
what are opioids?
they are pre meds in the Analgesic category . they are potent analgesics , that stimulate the receptors in the central nervous system.
52
Give examples off partial agonist Opioid ?
Buprenorphine
53
give an example of a full agonist Opioid ?
Methadone
54
What does an agonist mean?
drug occupies receptors and activates them
55
what does antagonist mean ?
occupies receptors . doesn't activate. blocks receptor from agonist.
56
limitations of Opioids?
respiratory depression sedation or excitement nausea defecation
57
what group is the opioid methadone in and what schedule is it? who can prescribe it ?
Methadone is a full agonist , that is POM V and a schedule 2 drug.
58
what are the limitations of Methadone?
cumulative effects duration of action can be greater than 4 hrs pain score every hr
59
What group is Buprenorphine ? and what's is schedule and who can prescribe it?
Buprenorphine is a POM-V schedule 3 drug . its a partial mu receptor agonist/antagonist.
60
what can Buprenorphine be used for ?
Analgesia for mild to moderate pain , | its a neuroleptanlagesia when combined with acepromazine.
61
Limitations of Buprenorphine opioid ?
unsuccessful for severe pain avoid liver cases will cross placenta
62
what group, schedule or prescription is the opioid Butorphanol in?
group partial opioid agonist, POM V schedule 4
63
what are the uses of the Opioid Butorphanol ?
sedative antitussive mild analgesia antiemetic NOT USED FOR BAD PAIN, UNPREDICABLE BAD FOR PATIENTS WITH LIVER, PANCREATIC,RENAL,HYPOTHYROIDISM,ADDISONS. can be used in pre med with acepromazine
64
how do general anaesthetics, Opioids and Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonists work?
they cause analgesia through their effects on the brain
65
what properties do non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs have?
anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties- mainly periphery
66
what do non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs do?
inhibits an enzyme called cyclo-oxygenase and prevent formation of prostaglandins
67
a common pre med combination for dogs?
Acepromazine, Buprenorphine and Medetomidine.
68
a common pre med combination for cats ?
friendly cat - Acepromazine , buprenorphine | morphine
69
what support should be given once pre meds are given?
``` brachycephalic dogs should be watched they need warming oxygen therapy Pheromones IVFT- fluid therapy iv ```
70
key drug groups in triad of anaesthesia
pre medicants inhalational anaesthetics injectable anaesthetic drugs neuromuscular blocking agents
71
what are the two types of inhalation anaesthetics
gaseous anaesthetics | volatile anaesthetics
72
what is a gaseous anaesthetic?
nitrous oxide
73
what are the volatile anaesthetics and which ones are most commonly used?
common -Isoflurane sevoflurane halothane desflurane
74
how do inhaled anaesthetics work
inhaled into lung, cross alveolar membrane, dissolve into blood, blood go to brain
75
inhalation soluble anaesthetics have a ...
slow induction slow recovery and are very soluble volatile anaesthetic agents
76
inhalation insoluble anaesthetics ...
have a rapid induction and recovery and are insoluble
77
which inhalation drug takes a long time to recover from?
Halothane
78
which inhalation drug takes a short time to recover from?
Desflurane
79
what is minimum alveolar concentration?
The minimum concentration of anaesthetic needed for the procedure. is a measure of how potent the anaesthetic agent is
80
what are the types injectable anaesthetic drugs ?
Barbiturates steroids dissociative drugs Phenols
81
give an example of a injectable anaesthetic drug in the Barbiturates category ?
Thiopentone- horses ONLY
82
Give an example of a injectable anaesthetic in the Steroid category?
Alphaxalone
83
Give an example of an injectable anaesthetic drug that is a dissociative anaesthetic drug?
Ketamine
84
Give an example of an injectable anaesthetic drug in the Phenols category?
Propofol
85
what are 3 injectable anaesthetics?
Alfaxalone Ketamine Propofol
86
what is the group and use of Alfaxalone? (an injectable anaesthetic )
Neuroactive steroid anaesthesia in dogs, cats and rabbits - has a rapid onset
87
some comments specific to small animals regarding the use of Alfaxalone as a anaesthetic-(an injectable anaesthetic )
excellent muscle relaxation stress free recovery if given pre med no tissue retraction no pain on injection
88
what group is ketamine in, and whets it schedule and who can prescribe it? (an injectable anaesthetic )
cyclohexanone derivative, POM V Schedule 2 controlled drugs
89
what are the uses of Ketamine? (an injectable anaesthetic )
chemical restraint dissociative anaesthesia for cats and small mammals Analgesia infusion in dogs inhibits NEUROMUSCULAR BLOCKING AGENTS blockade
90
in cats how long does it take for the onset of ketamine when its used as a sedative ? (an injectable anaesthetic )
5mins
91
in cats how long does it take for the onset of ketamine when its used as an anaesthetic and a muscle relaxant? (an injectable anaesthetic )
3mins lasting for 25-45 mins
92
limitations and side effects of using ketamine | (an injectable anaesthetic )
cranial nerve preservation can cause seizures as it stimulated central nervous system if used without alpha 2 agonist they cause body regiity and stiffness tachycardia salvation painful injection
93
what group anaesthetic is Propofol and who can prescribe it? | (an injectable anaesthetic )
phenol | POM V
94
What is the anaesthetic Propofol used for? | (an injectable anaesthetic )
intravenous induction agent for anaesthesia and to control benzodiazepine resistant seizures
95
what are the limitations and side effects of using the anaesthetic Propofol? (an injectable anaesthetic )
twitching and tremors during anaesthesia and recovery Rapid injection causes apnoea, cyanosis and severe hypotension Vomiting and excitement on recovery. Care exercised in hypovolaemic, cardio-pulmonary, hepatic and renal cases.
96
comments specific to small animals regarding using Propofol?
Comments specific to small animal patients: Rapid recovery Non irritant to tissues Pain response on intravenous injection
97
what are the general effects of anaesthetic drugs on major organ systems?
Exact mechanism unknown, but causes reversible depression of CNS Unconsciousness Reduced sensitivity to concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and reduced respiratory Reduces cardiac output reduced oxygenation of tissues reduced blood flow to major organs Peripheral vasodilation or vasoconstriction
98
What are Neuromuscular blocking agents NMBA
Also known as muscle relaxants Paralyse all skeletal muscles by working at the neuromuscular junction Must be used in combination with adequate general anaesthesia Must be able to provide IPPV
99
Why are Neuromuscular blocking agents used?
Relax skeletal muscles for easier surgical access To gain control of respiration during thoracic surgery To assist ophthalmic procedures

VNSE (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions