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VNSE > VNSE - revision session > Flashcards

VNSE - revision session Flashcards

to cover the info on the power point

1
Q

what is an endogenous infection ?

A

when micro organisms responsible for infection originate from the same individual

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2
Q

what is an exogenous infection?

A

when microorganisms responsible for the infection originate from another sauce. eg. staff or the environment

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3
Q

what is the definition of contamination?

A

the accidental induction of a microorganism to the body tissues.

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4
Q

what is the definition of colonisation ?

A

a state where microorganisms are present but there is no evidence of disease.

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5
Q

what is the most common organisms found in wound infections ?

A

endogenous staphylococci and streptococci

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6
Q

how could you prevent an endogenous infection and how would you nurse a patient with that infection?

A 
washing hands
wearing gloves 
who hand wash 
designated areas for urination 
barrier nursing
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7
Q

what are the ways that animals could excrete infection ?

A 
ocular discharge
nasal discharge 
saliva
vomit 
milk
genital discharge 
faeces 
urine 
blood 
fluid from skin lesions
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8
Q

what is horizonal transmission ?

A

either the direct or indirect transmission of infection between individual animals of the same generation.

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9
Q

when might horizontal transmission occur ?

A

during the incubation period of an infection when the animal doesn’t exhibit any clinical signs.
when the animal is unwell
or if the animal has recovered but is still a carrier.

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10
Q

what is direct transmission of an infection ?

A

the spread of infection directly from one animal to another eg. grooming, sleeping in close contact, mating, fighting, inhalation.

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11
Q

what is indirect transmission of an infection?

A

refers to infection being transferred via an intermediary .

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12
Q

what is vertical transmission of infection?

A

vertical transmission is where disease is spread from her dam to her offspring. it may occur before or during birth. or via milk.

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13
Q

what are some sources of transmission?

A 
the patient 
the surgical team 
the operating theatre 
the equipment
fomites
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14
Q

factors that increase the risk of surgical cite infections?

A 
clipping 
prepping 
length of general anaesthetic
time of procedure 
surgical tissue handling 
number of people present 
length of stay
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15
Q

why shouldn’t you rely on antibiotics ?

A

high costs, ineffectiveness of antibiotics, outbreaks of drug resistant nosocomial infections

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16
Q

what are the 5 most common nosocomial infections ?

A

surgical site infections

intravenous cannula associated infections

catheter associated urinary tract infections

Diarrhoea

Pneumonia

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17
Q

what does sterilisation mean ?

A

sterilisation is the removal of all viable forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores to achieve acceptable sterility assurance level.

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18
Q

what does disinfection mean ?

A

disinfection is a process designed to remove microbes that may result in an infection.

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19
Q

what are the aims of preoperative skin antisepsis?

A

to reduce bacterial numbers to a level that can be controlled by the patients local defences.

to remove particularly virulent harmful microbes that may cause infection even if present in small numbers

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20
Q

what is anaesthesia?

A

a reversible immobile state, that makes the patient unaware of noxious/ harmful stimuli and induces amnesia.

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21
Q

what are the 3 components of anaesthesia needed to create balanced anaesthesia?

A

unconsciousness
muscle relaxation
pain relief

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22
Q

what is a pre mendicant?

A

a drug given prior to the use of another drug, this can be to counteract side effects.

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23
Q

give an example of a pre mendicant?

A

a sedative drug given prior to an anaesthetic induction agent as part of a planned anaesthetic protocol.
eg. Phenothiazines
Benzodiazepines

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24
Q

what are some analgesics that could be used in pre-mendicants?

A

opioids
Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
local anaesthetics

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25
Q

why are pre mendicants used ? - To calm and control the patient

A
  • easier handling
  • quiet induction
  • muscle relaxation
  • results in reduced levels of catecholamines, eg Adrenaline which will reduce chances of arrhythmias
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26
Q

why are pre mendicants used ? - To relive pain

A

An animal in pain is not settled, they tend to be restless.

Analgesics eg. opioids are given to exert a pre-emptive effect, during surgery and for immediate recovery.

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27
Q

why are pre mendicants used to reduce the amount of anaesthetic agent required for induction and maintenance of anaesthesia?

A

because it reduces unwanted side effects. anaesthetic agents have unwanted side effects, a pre anaesthetic medication can reduce such effects.

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28
Q

what happens if you induce a patient with ketamine?

A

they will have muscle ridgity, this effect can be reduced or abolished with the use of an agent with muscle relaxing properties eg, benzodiazepine or alpha 2 agonist.

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29
Q

what are some other reasons for the use of premediates?

A

It decreases airway secretions

reduces autonomic reflex responses

decreases gastric fluid volume and prevents regurgitation

If a patient is extremely sick then pre meds are very important as it means that less induction agent will be needed.

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30
Q

What are the drug groups of sedative pre mendicants?

A

Phenothiazines
Alpha 2 agonists
Benzodiazepines

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31
Q

give an example of a sedative pre mendicant in the group Phenothiazines?

A

Acepromazine 2mg/ml injectable solution

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32
Q

What is Acepromazine (a Phenothiazine ) most commonly used for?

A 
Most commonly used as a
 Sedative 
Tranquilising properties
Anti-emetic - anti sickness
Spasmolytic 
Anti-histamine 
Alpha-1 adrenergic blockade
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33
Q

what are the uses of the sedative premediates in the phenothiazines group? (Acepromazine)

A

tranquilisation with moderate sedation

maximal sedative action at low doses

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34
Q

what happens if you combine acepromazine (a phenothiazine) with Buprenorphine (an opioid)

A

neuroleptanlagesia can be created when a phenothiazine is combined with an opioid eg. buprenorphine and acepromazine

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35
Q

give an example of how neuroleptanlagesia can be created

A

buprenorphine and acepromazine, combining phenothiazine with an opioid.

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36
Q

what animals respond well to Phenothiazines such as Acepromazine?

A

nervous animals respond well however aggressive animals do NOT respond well at all.

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37
Q

limitations of Phenothiazines? which is a type of pre med sedative.

A 
Bradycardia - slow heard rate 
Cardiac depression 
hypotension 
do not use in hypovolaemic animals
contributes to hypothermia
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38
Q

pre meds are split into 2 groups. sedatives and analgesics. what are the different types of sedatives?

A

phenothiazines
alpha 2 agonists
Benzodiazepines

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39
Q

pre meds are split into 2 groups. sedatives and analgesics. what are the different types of analgesics?

A

opioids
Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
local anaesthetics

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40
Q

what are alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists?

A

a type of sedative pre mendicant , 2 types agonist and antagonists that has a receptor site in the pre synaptic membrane.

41
Q

what are some examples of alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists? - pre med - sedative

A

medetomidine

dexmedetomidine

42
Q

uses of alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists - pre med - sedative such as medetomidine dexmedetomidine

A 
dose dependant sedation and analgesia 
anxiolytic 
provides muscle relaxation 
used as chemical restraint 
will reduce anaesthetic induction by 20-80%
43
Q

side effects of alpha 2 agonists such as medetomidine or dexmedetomidine

A 
bradycardia
hyper then hypotension 
minimal reduction in respiration 
can increase dilute urine 
grey mms
44
Q

when should an alpha 2 adrenoceptor agonists NOT BE USED? such as medetomidine or dexmedetomidine

A 
Congestive heart failure 
respiratory disease 
intracranial pressure 
gastrointestinal tract obstruction
diabetes 
anaemia 
urinary obstruction 
late pregnancy
45
Q

give an example of a alpha 2 adrenoreceptor antagonist ? its a sedative pre med

A

atipamezole

Zoetis

46
Q

what does alpha 2 adrenoreceptor antagonist such as Zoetis or atipamezole do?

A

its a reversal agent and stops the effect of medetomidine and dexmedetomidine

47
Q

what is a Benzodiazepine ?

A

it is a sedative pre mendicant.

48
Q

Give an example of a pre med, sedative , Benzodiazepine drug?

A

Diazepam and Midazolam

49
Q

uses of Benzodiazepine drugs such as Diazepam or Midazolam?

A 
Calming
Anxiolytic
Minor Tranquilizer
Sick, depressed, depilated animal can use them . its an anticonvulsant 
muscle relaxant
50
Q

limitations and side effects of using the sedative pre meds in the Benzodiazepine group such as Diazepam, Midazolam.

A

not reliable sedation
minimal in healthy animals

doesn’t reduce the induction agent a lot

avoid in hepatic patients

51
Q

what are opioids?

A

they are pre meds in the Analgesic category . they are potent analgesics , that stimulate the receptors in the central nervous system.

52
Q

Give examples off partial agonist Opioid ?

A

Buprenorphine

53
Q

give an example of a full agonist Opioid ?

A

Methadone

54
Q

What does an agonist mean?

A

drug occupies receptors and activates them

55
Q

what does antagonist mean ?

A

occupies receptors . doesn’t activate. blocks receptor from agonist.

56
Q

limitations of Opioids?

A

respiratory depression
sedation or excitement
nausea
defecation

57
Q

what group is the opioid methadone in and what schedule is it? who can prescribe it ?

A

Methadone is a full agonist , that is POM V and a schedule 2 drug.

58
Q

what are the limitations of Methadone?

A

cumulative effects
duration of action can be greater than 4 hrs
pain score every hr

59
Q

What group is Buprenorphine ? and what’s is schedule and who can prescribe it?

A

Buprenorphine is a POM-V schedule 3 drug . its a partial mu receptor agonist/antagonist.

60
Q

what can Buprenorphine be used for ?

A

Analgesia for mild to moderate pain ,

its a neuroleptanlagesia when combined with acepromazine.

61
Q

Limitations of Buprenorphine opioid ?

A

unsuccessful for severe pain
avoid liver cases
will cross placenta

62
Q

what group, schedule or prescription is the opioid Butorphanol in?

A

group partial opioid agonist, POM V schedule 4

63
Q

what are the uses of the Opioid Butorphanol ?

A

sedative
antitussive
mild analgesia
antiemetic

NOT USED FOR BAD PAIN, UNPREDICABLE BAD FOR PATIENTS WITH LIVER, PANCREATIC,RENAL,HYPOTHYROIDISM,ADDISONS. can be used in pre med with acepromazine

64
Q

how do general anaesthetics, Opioids and Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonists work?

A

they cause analgesia through their effects on the brain

65
Q

what properties do non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs have?

A

anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties- mainly periphery

66
Q

what do non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs do?

A

inhibits an enzyme called cyclo-oxygenase and prevent formation of prostaglandins

67
Q

a common pre med combination for dogs?

A

Acepromazine, Buprenorphine and Medetomidine.

68
Q

a common pre med combination for cats ?

A

friendly cat - Acepromazine , buprenorphine

morphine

69
Q

what support should be given once pre meds are given?

A 
brachycephalic dogs should be watched
they need warming 
oxygen therapy 
Pheromones 
IVFT- fluid therapy iv
70
Q

key drug groups in triad of anaesthesia

A

pre medicants
inhalational anaesthetics
injectable anaesthetic drugs
neuromuscular blocking agents

71
Q

what are the two types of inhalation anaesthetics

A

gaseous anaesthetics

volatile anaesthetics

72
Q

what is a gaseous anaesthetic?

A

nitrous oxide

73
Q

what are the volatile anaesthetics and which ones are most commonly used?

A

common -Isoflurane
sevoflurane

halothane
desflurane

74
Q

how do inhaled anaesthetics work

A

inhaled into lung, cross alveolar membrane, dissolve into blood, blood go to brain

75
Q

inhalation soluble anaesthetics have a …

A

slow induction
slow recovery
and are very soluble volatile anaesthetic agents

76
Q

inhalation insoluble anaesthetics …

A

have a rapid induction and recovery and are insoluble

77
Q

which inhalation drug takes a long time to recover from?

A

Halothane

78
Q

which inhalation drug takes a short time to recover from?

A

Desflurane

79
Q

what is minimum alveolar concentration?

A

The minimum concentration of anaesthetic needed for the procedure. is a measure of how potent the anaesthetic agent is

80
Q

what are the types injectable anaesthetic drugs ?

A

Barbiturates
steroids
dissociative drugs
Phenols

81
Q

give an example of a injectable anaesthetic drug in the Barbiturates category ?

A

Thiopentone- horses ONLY

82
Q

Give an example of a injectable anaesthetic in the Steroid category?

A

Alphaxalone

83
Q

Give an example of an injectable anaesthetic drug that is a dissociative anaesthetic drug?

A

Ketamine

84
Q

Give an example of an injectable anaesthetic drug in the Phenols category?

A

Propofol

85
Q

what are 3 injectable anaesthetics?

A

Alfaxalone
Ketamine
Propofol

86
Q

what is the group and use of Alfaxalone? (an injectable anaesthetic )

A

Neuroactive steroid

anaesthesia in dogs, cats and rabbits
- has a rapid onset

87
Q

some comments specific to small animals regarding the use of Alfaxalone as a anaesthetic-(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

excellent muscle relaxation
stress free recovery if given pre med
no tissue retraction
no pain on injection

88
Q

what group is ketamine in, and whets it schedule and who can prescribe it?
(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

cyclohexanone derivative, POM V Schedule 2 controlled drugs

89
Q

what are the uses of Ketamine? (an injectable anaesthetic )

A

chemical restraint
dissociative anaesthesia for cats and small mammals
Analgesia infusion in dogs
inhibits NEUROMUSCULAR BLOCKING AGENTS blockade

90
Q

in cats how long does it take for the onset of ketamine when its used as a sedative ? (an injectable anaesthetic )

A

5mins

91
Q

in cats how long does it take for the onset of ketamine when its used as an anaesthetic and a muscle relaxant?
(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

3mins lasting for 25-45 mins

92
Q

limitations and side effects of using ketamine

(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

cranial nerve preservation
can cause seizures as it stimulated central nervous system
if used without alpha 2 agonist they cause body regiity and stiffness
tachycardia
salvation
painful injection

93
Q

what group anaesthetic is Propofol and who can prescribe it?

(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

phenol

POM V

94
Q

What is the anaesthetic Propofol used for?

(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

intravenous induction agent for anaesthesia and to control benzodiazepine resistant seizures

95
Q

what are the limitations and side effects of using the anaesthetic Propofol?

(an injectable anaesthetic )

A

twitching and tremors during anaesthesia and recovery

Rapid injection causes apnoea, cyanosis and severe hypotension

Vomiting and excitement on recovery.

Care exercised in hypovolaemic, cardio-pulmonary, hepatic and renal cases.

96
Q

comments specific to small animals regarding using Propofol?

A

Comments specific to small animal patients:
Rapid recovery
Non irritant to tissues
Pain response on intravenous injection

97
Q

what are the general effects of anaesthetic drugs on major organ systems?

A

Exact mechanism unknown, but causes reversible depression of CNS

Unconsciousness

Reduced sensitivity to concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and reduced respiratory

Reduces cardiac output
reduced oxygenation of tissues
reduced blood flow to major organs
Peripheral vasodilation or vasoconstriction

98
Q

What are Neuromuscular blocking agents NMBA

A

Also known as muscle relaxants

Paralyse all skeletal muscles by working at the neuromuscular junction

Must be used in combination with adequate general anaesthesia

Must be able to provide IPPV

99
Q

Why are Neuromuscular blocking agents used?

A

Relax skeletal muscles for easier surgical access

To gain control of respiration during thoracic surgery

To assist ophthalmic procedures

VNSE (11 decks)

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