Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

V6 > VMP8 > Flashcards

VMP8 Flashcards

1
Q

Question NO: 1

What services can be configured from the security profile?

 A. Syslog server 
 B. SSH 
 C. DNS 
 D. Management network 
 E. DCUI

Select 3 answers.

A

Answer:

A,B,E

Explanation: These options are available at the host level in the web client under services. Management is configured at the virtual switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Question NO: 2

If strict lockdown mode is enabled without an exception list configured and the connection to vCenter is lost, what must be done to regain management of the host?

A. Use the VMRC
B. Reinstall ESXi
C. Connect directly with the vSphere client
D. Restart management agents

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The only option left here is to reinstall the host. There is no other way to get access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Question NO: 3

Which service is stopped when strict lockdown mode is enabled?

A. Firewall
B. NTP
C. DCUI
D. CIM

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Lockdown mode is taken to the next level and the DCUI service is stopped to prevent direct access to the host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Question NO: 4

After configuring the ESXi host as an NTP client, time synchronization is off. What could cause this issue?

A. The host is not connected to vCenter
B. The NTP daemon is stopped
C. The virtual machines are synchronized with the host
D. Multiple NTP servers with varying times have been specified

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: The NTP daemon can be stopped in the security profile. The host does not need to be connected o vCenter to become an NTP client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Question NO: 5

Which can be edited at the settings of a virtual distributed switch?

 A. Netflow 
 B. MTU size 
 C. Pvlan 
 D. Multicast filtering mode 
 E. Name

Select 3 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D,E

Explanation: Pvlans and netflow are configured at the distributed port group level and can be overridden at the port. MTU, name, and multicast filtering mode are higher level and configured at the switch level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Question NO: 6

An administrator logs into the DCUI with the root username and password. The IP address of the host is mistakenly changed from the 172.20.10.0/24 network to the 172.20.100.0/24 network. What will happen to the ability to manage this ESXi host?

A. The host will automatically rollback to the correct configuration
B. The host will no longer be manageable
C. The host will initiate a HA response
D. Virtual machines will lose network connectivity

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: The rollback feature of ESXi hosts will automatically detect the loss of a management and not allow the change to continue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Question NO: 7

All VMkernel ports for Virtual SAN are configured, and there is unallocated local storage for capacity. What might prevent Virtual SAN from being enabled?

A. There are only three hosts contributing local storage
B. ESXi has been installed on local storage
C. The hosts have only 32GB of memory
D. ESXi has been installed on a SD card

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: For Virtual SAN to work, full control over all of the local disks is given to the kernel. This means that ESXi must be installed somewhere other than on a local LUN. Often in these cases, ESXi will be installed on a USB or SD card.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Question NO: 8

An administrator wants the ability to recover a replication job at different points in time. What replication feature will meet this need?

A. Backups
B. Snapshots
C. Points in time instances
D. Replication schedule

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Points in time instances are used at the target site to maintain the ability to recover a virtual machine at different instances in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Question NO: 10

When will DRS migrate a virtual machine to satisfy Network I/O control?

A. A new Physical adapter has been added to an ESXi host in the cluster
B. Periods of high contention for host bandwidth
C. The bandwidth limit for a virtual machine has been removed
D. The bandwidth reservation has been increased beyond what the host can provide

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: DRS will only make a move if virtual machines cannot obtain the resources that have been guaranteed to them with a reservation. Otherwise, DRS will not take action. Even if there is contention for bandwidth, DRS will not migrate VMs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Question NO: 11

Dependent hardware iSCSI adapters have been purchased for an ESXi host. What aspect of accessing iSCSI storage still must be configured in software?

A. VMkernel port
B. iSCSI initiator
C. initiator binding
D. HBA driver

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Dependent hardware iSCSI has the initiator on the card but does not bypass the need for host networking configuration, so a VMkernel port must be created and bound to the physical adapter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Question NO: 12

An administrator wants to present storage directly to a virtual machine but wants to keep the benefit of vSphere Snapshots. What would meet these needs?

A. VMFS VMDK
B. Physical RDM
C. Virtual RDM
D. NFS 4.1 VMDK

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: By presenting a LUN directly to the virtual machine, instantly the choices are narrowed to the RDM. In this case, the added ability to snapshot from the vSphere side as well as advanced file locking are available with the virtual mode RDM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Question NO: 13

When implementing native multipathing and in NFS 4.1, what nic teaming policy is used?

A. IP Hash
B. Originating Virtual Port
C. Originating MAC Address
D. Round Robin

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To make multipathing work, two IP addresses are associated with the NFS target and we use the IP Hash nic teaming policy to spread the load across the physical adapters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Question NO: 14

What is the maximum size of a virtual volumes storage container?

A. No effective limit in size
B. 64TB
C. 2TB
D. 62TB

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: The virtual volumes storage container is a logical entity configured on the array. The storage container is not limited by size and can span the entirety of the array regardless of size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Question NO: 15

When trying to ensure proper capacity planning, which capabilities should be used in a Virtual SAN storage policy? Choose two.

A. Number of Disk Stripes per Object
B. Force Provisioning
C. Object space reservation %
D. Number of failures to tolerate

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

C,D

Explanation: The higher the number of failures to tolerate, the more capacity will be used, as there will be more copies of those objects with that capability applied. The higher he space reserved for thick provisioning, the more space will be needed for those objects as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Question NO: 16

When configuring a disk group in Virtual SAN, 500GB will be used for storage capacity. What is the minimum recommended size of the SSD for that disk group?

A. 25GB
B. 50GB
C. 100GB
D. 200GB

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The SSD used for caching should be at least 10% of the disk space used for capacity in a disk group. 10% of 500GB is 50GB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Question NO: 17

An administrator wants to change the host default path selection policy to a VMware PSP that will allow active-active use of multiple paths. What command will make this change?

A. esxcli storage nmp satp set –default -psp=VMW_PSP_Fixed
B. esxcli storage nmp satp set –default-psp=VMW_PSP_MRU
C. esxcli storage nmp satp set –default-psp=VMW_PSP_RR
D. esxcli storage nmp satp set –default-psp=VMW_PSP_IPH

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: In this case, the path selection policy that will give us the ability to take advantage of multiple paths is Round Robin. This is not the default for ESXi hosts, so the command to change it is esxcli storage nmp satp set –default-psp=VMW_PSP_RR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Question NO: 18

What is a requirement for an all-flash Virtual SAN configuration?

A. Hosts must have at least 2 SAS/SATA drive or PCIe flash disks
B. 10Gig physical adapter for VSAN must be shared with other traffic
C. 10Gbps physical adapters
D. Only SSD must be on the Virtual SAN HCL

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: A 10Gbps network for Virtual SAN is required for an all-flash configuration. The added performance benefit of the SSDs being used for storage is best taken advantage of with a more powerful network for accessing storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Question NO: 19

To use a SSD for capacity within Virtual SAN, what option must be chosen when adding the disk to a Virtual SAN disk group?

A. Add disk for storage
B. Add disk for capacity
C. Add disk as SSD
D. Add disk as HDD

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: SSDs being used for storage capacity must be manually marked in Virtual SAN. Without being marked as an HDD, Virtual SAN will assume that this is a SSD that will be used for caching. By marking the SSD as an HDD, Virtual SAN will allow it to be added as part of a disk group as storage capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Question NO: 20

What backs the virtual volume?s datastore?

A. Storage container
B. Protocol endpoint
C. VASA provider
D. Presented LUNs

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Software defined storage does away with the idea of LUN-centric storage. The logical entity called the storage container, which is created from the array is what backs the VVol?s datastore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Question NO: 21

With the advent of Storage Policy Based Management, polices have gone from being created based on ______ to ______.

A. LUN, Datastore
B. Array, Local Host
C. Datastores, Virtual Machines
D. Node, LUN

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Without software defined storage, datastores have certain capabilities and it must be ensured that a VM is sitting on the proper datastore. With Software Defined Storage in combination with Storage Policy Based Management, the policy is applied directly at the virtual machine based on the VM?s needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Question NO: 22

Which of these statements is false regarding VMFS datastores?

A. VMFS was specifically created for virtual machines
B. VMFS uses multiple block sizes for optimized storage
C. The size limit for a VMFS datastore is 64TB
D. VMFS datastores must use the entirety of the designated LUN

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Upon datastore creation, the size is determined. Any amount of storage space up to the maximum size of the LUN can be utilized. Native VMFS5 has a block size of 1MB and a subblock of 8kb. The size limit of a VMFS datastore is 64TB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Question NO: 23

A datastore has been unmounted form all ESXi hosts in the environment. What will happen to this datastore?

A. It will be marked as inactive and the files will remain intact
B. It will be marked as inactive and the files will be deleted
C. The datastore will be deleted along with the files
D. The datastore will be deleted but the files will remain on the LUN

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Though inactive, the files have not been deleted from this datastore and the datastore has not been deleted either. With no hosts accessing it, the state becomes inactive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Question NO: 24

Where are shares configured for storage I/O control?

A. At the Storage I/O control enabled datastore
B. Under the manage tab of Storage I/O control
C. At the virtual machine
D. Under the manage tab of the ESXi host

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: When viewing the related objects in a storage I/O control enabled datastore, the share values will be shown. To edit the share value, in the edit settings of the VM, expand the virtual disk and change the share value associated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Question NO: 25

What is bypassed when using direct path I/O?

A. Physical adapters
B. VMkernel
C. Virtual machine
D. PCI device

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Direct path I/O is specifically used to skip over the kernel and is usually reserved for incredibly I/O intensive virtual machines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Question NO: 26

Four vCenters are in enhanced linked mode. The vCenter license is about to expire. An administrator obtains a four instance vCenter license key. How many times must this key be entered to properly license these vCenters?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

Answer:

NONE OF THE ABOVE

Explanation: Because these vCenters are in enhanced linked mode, the key only needs to be entered one time. The license service which exists as a part of the platform services controller will manage the license from a central location.

You answered this question correctly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Question NO: 27

What is the command used to place a host into maintenance mode?

A. vim-cmd hostsvc/maintenance_mode_exit
B. vim-cmd hostsvc/maintenance_mode_enter
C. esxcli hostsvc/maintenance_mode_enter
D. vim-cmd hostsvc/maintenance_mode_strict

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Use the command vim-cmd hostsvc/maintenance_mode_enter to place the host into maintenance mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Question NO: 28

When upgrading the vCenter appliance to 6.0, which two must be properly configured for a successful upgrade?

A. Ensure vCenter Server appliance is registered with an External vCenter Single Sign-on Server
B. DNS
C. Ensure the ESXi Host are version 4.x or higher
D. Time synchronization

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: A stable and successful deployment of vCenter are dependent on a stable NTP source and a valid FQDN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Question NO: 29

One PSC is deployed and three vCenters are associated with it through a SSO domain. What is this configuration called?

A. Enhanced linked mode
B. Linked mode
C. Embedded mode
D. Distributed mode

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Any time two vCenters are associated with the same PSC in the same SSO domain, they are considered in enhanced linked mode automatically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Question NO: 30

Which is not an improvement that comes with virtual machine hardware version 11?

A. Up to 128 vcpus
B. USB 3.0 support
C. Hot add across NUMA nodes
D. Up to 20 vnics

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Even with hardware version 11 there is still a maximum on 10 vnics per VM. All of the other features are new for hardware version 11.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Question NO: 31

What is the earliest version of VCSA that can be upgraded to 6?

A. 5.1 update 3
B. 5.5
C. 5.1 update 2
D. 4.1

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Any VCSA version 5.1U3 and beyond can be upgraded directly to vCenter 6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Question NO: 32

A resource pool with 1000 shares has a sibling and a child pool. The sibling pool has a share value of 500 and one virtual machine (VM1) running in the pool. The child pool has a share value of 1000 and two virtual machines: Child Pool VMA has 500 shares and Child pool VMB has 1000. When VMB of the child pool and the VM within the sibling pool compete for resources, which VM will get more resources?

A. VM1 of the sibling pool
B. VMB of the child pool
C. The parent pool
D. The child pool

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Use fractions. VM1 gets all 500 of its resource pool and VMB gets 2/3 of 1000 shares or 667. VM b gets 667 vs VM1 500 shares on that level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Question NO: 33

Two virtual machines are created. VMA is provisioned with 10GB of memory and given a limit of 5GB. VMB is provisioned with 10GB of memory but no limit is enforced. What is the effective overall limit of these virtual machines?

A. 5GB
B. 10GB
C. 15GB
D. 20GB

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The effective limit is simply what the virtual machine has been provisioned with. In this case, it is 10+5= 15GB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Question NO: 34

Which statement is false?

A. If a reservation is set to expandable, resource consumers can look to the parent pool for more shares
B. If configured at every level in the hierarchy, expandable reservations can go up to the root resource pool
C. If a reservation is set to expandable, resource consumers can look to sibling pools for more shares
D. Expandable reservations are not possible at the root resource pool

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Resource consumers can look to the parent for resources if the reservation is expandable, but not to siblings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Question NO: 36

A snapshot of a virtual machine with no previous snapshots is taken. What is the base disk comprised of?

A. All of the data up to the point in time that the snapshot was taken
B. All of the data including the first snapshot
C. All of the data within the first snapshot
D. The fist copy of the data

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Snapshot delta files only contain the changes that are made after the snapshot was taken. The base disk is everything leading up to the moment where the first snapshot is taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Question NO: 37

Which are true when snapshotting a virtual machine?s memory state? Choose two.

A. The snapshot operation will complete faster
B. The snapshot operation will use more storage
C. The operation will quiesce the guest I/O
D. The ability to revert to a powered on virtual machine

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: Snapshotting the memory adds the ability to revert to a powered on virtual machine but it will utilize more storage and take longer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Question NO: 38

VMware Data Protection is comprised of which three components?

A. Data Protection Appliance, Data Protection Proxy and App Agent
B. Data Protection Appliance, Data Protection Proxy and VMTools Driver
C. vCenter, Data Protection Appliance, and App Agent
D. vCenter, Data Protection Appliance and Data Protection Proxy

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: VDP is comprised of the Data Protection Appliance, Data Protection Proxy and App Agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Question NO: 39

What are two advantages of using the FastLz compression library for vSphere replication?

A. Speed
B. Compression efficiency
C. High CPU overhead
D. Only has to be deployed at the source site

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

A,B

Explanation: FastLz provides a balance of speed, minimal CPU overhead, and compression efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Question NO: 40

Which is true for using VMware Data Protection to backup vCenter and PSC instances?

A. If vCenter or a PSC goes down, it can be restored to any ESXi host
B. vCenters and PSC instances should be backed up on a rotating schedule
C. VMware tools is not required for backups
D. All backups must be full backups

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Backups restored only to the host running the VDP appliance, VMware tools required, backup at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Question NO: 42

How many virtual machines can be replicated with each additional replication server?

A. 100
B. 200
C. 250
D. 500

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The initial replication appliance can handle 2000 VMs and each additional server adds the ability to replicate 200 more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Question NO: 43

What works within the VMkernel to make sure virtual machines get the virtual resources they request?

A. Serial Port
B. VMM
C. CIM
D. VMware Tools

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The two main components involved in delivering resources are the kernel and the Virtual Machine Monitor. Collectively, the VMM processes make up the virtual machine, with other worlds for specific virtual hardware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Question NO: 45

Which port is used for enhanced linked mode between vCenter instances?

A. 443
B. 902
C. 636
D. 9443

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Port 636 is used between vCenter instances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Question NO: 46

When deploying vCenter server it is unable to connect with the preciously deployed PSC. What may be the issue?

A. The PSC specified in the installation process used an IP address while the new PSC was installed with a FQDN
B. The vCenter appliance and the PSC were installed on the same trunked VLAN
C. The vCenter appliance time was synced to an ESXi host
D. The vCenter IP address was assigned by a DHCP server

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To avoid deployment issues in vCenter 6, have DNS configured across all instances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Question NO: 47

If a high priority vMotion fails but a regular priority vMotion is successful, what may be the cause?

A. Over utilized virtual machine
B. Network saturation
C. Resource contention on the target host
D. 1Gbps NICs rather than 10Gbps NICs

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The vMotion priority level chosen is dependent on the resource utilization at the target host. This setting is determinate on the ability for the virtual machine to get the resources it needs on the target, not what is happening on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Question NO: 48

Which of these cases call for the use of VOMA?

A. Outage of a Storage adapter
B. Inability to access files on a VMFS datastore
C. Corruption of an NFS datastore
D. Issues adding an extent to a VMFS datastore

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The on disk metadata analyzer is going to provide more detail and give insight on why a VMFS datastore is inaccessible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Question NO: 49

How many concurrent shared-nothing vMotion migrations can take place at the same time for a datastore?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Shared nothing vMotion are also migrating files, so the maximum is two. This also counts against the ability to migrate files with a storage vMotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Question NO: 50

Which CPU metric may indicate memory contention on an ESXi host?

A. %MLMTD
B. SWW/s
C. SWCUR
D. %SWPWT

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The first clue is to look for the % symbol which will denote CPU metrics, and the correct answer here is %SWPWT which is how the CPU is affected by swapping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Question NO: 51

Which two esxtop storage metrics will help distinguish if latency is within the kernel or at the storage array?

A. QUED
B. KAVG
C. GAVG
D. DAVG

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: DAVD shows disk latency at the array and KAVG shows latency of the Kernel. The two combined gives the GAVG value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Question NO: 52

Which of the following are vRealize Operations Manager node types? (choose 3)

 A. Master node 
 B. Proxy node 
 C. Data node 
 D. Copy Node 
 E. Remote collector node

Select 3 answers.

A

Answer:

A,C,E

Explanation: Node types include Master, Data, and Remote collector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Question NO: 53

Which CPU metric might indicate that performance could be improved if vcpus were removed from the virtual machine?

A. Ready
B. Co-stop
C. Wait
D. Swap wait

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Skew value that leads to co-stopping is only a factor for multiprocessor virtual machines. The more vCPUs a virtual machine has, the harder the scheduler has to work to keep skew value low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Question NO: 54

Which memory reclamation technique is always running within virtual machines and is enabled by default.

A. Transparent Page Sharing
B. Swapping
C. Ballooning
D. Compression

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Intra-VM TPS is always running and enabled by default. Inter-VM TPS must be enabled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Question NO: 55

In which state does the ESXi host begin compression?

A. High
B. Clear
C. Soft
D. Hard

A

Answer:

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Question NO: 56

When a Guest OS runs out of memory, what file will be used?

A. Balloon
B. Vswp
C. Guest OS page
D. vFlash

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The VM running out of memory is not the same as the host running out of memory. Think about what a physical machine would do if it ran out of memory and realize that a VM does not know that it is virtualized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Question NO: 57

An administrator wants to explore anomalies in the vSphere environment. What major badge in vRealize operations manager should be explored?

A. Faults
B. Risk
C. Efficiency
D. Health

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The three major badges are Health. Risk, and Efficiency. Anomalies resides under the health badge. Faults is also a minor badge under Health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Question NO: 58

When viewing statistics in ESXTOP, high %DRPTX and %DRPRX values are observed. What does this mean for the environment?

A. All packets are being processed normally
B. The CPU is experiencing issues
C. The vSwitch queue is exhausted
D. Memory contention may be occurring

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The %DRPTX and %DRPRX are measures of dropped send and receive packets. This is an indication that the network is too busy and the vSwitch queue is too long and packets are being dropped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Question NO: 59

What is the highest level vSphere object in vRealize Operations Manager?

A. vSphere World
B. vCenter
C. Datacenter
D. Cluster

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: The vSphere World object contains all monitored vCenters and their associated lower level objects within the vRealize Cloud Operations console.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Question NO: 60

Which of the following is not a chart within the overview of a host?

A. Memory Ballooning
B. CPU Ready
C. Disk Latency
D. Network Utilization

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: From the host monitoring view, there are select default charts displaying host statistics. To view CPU Ready times an advanced chart can be created, but all of the others are in the overview charts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Question NO: 61

A virtual machine is not running a CPUID compatible application. What kind of failure may this cause?

A. SMP
B. Ability to communicate with VMkernel
C. CPU statistics monitoring
D. EVC vMotion

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Without the ability to detect the feature set of the physical CPU, and application cannot properly mask out the features to migrate across an enhanced vMotion compatibility cluster, when the ability to make instruction sets is critical. The VMM communicates with the kernel and the virtual machine can still function under non EVC conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Question NO: 62

Name two host requirements for an Enhanced vMotion Compatibility cluster to be created.

A. ESXi 6
B. Execute protection
C. Redundant management networks
D. Hardware virtualization

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: Hardware virtualization and NX/XD must be enabled on the hosts in the cluster in order to enable EVC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Question NO: 63

Which is true about an EVC cluster?

A. Virtual machines can hide the nx/xd flag individually within the cluster
B. As long as a virtual machine has the features defined in the baseline for the cluster, it can run in that cluster
C. EVC Baselines are created based on the most feature-rich CPU in the cluster
D. The highest number of cores helps to determine an EVC baseline

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Masking the AMD No eXecute (NX) and the Intel eXecute Disable (XD) bits prevents the virtual machine from using these features, but provides compatibility that allows migrations of virtual machines to ESXi hosts that do not include this capability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Question NO: 65

When configuring boot from SAN, which of the following is true?

A. Each ESXi host needs its own datastore
B. Each ESXi host needs its own raw LUN
C. Multiple hosts can utilize one LUN
D. Multiple hosts can utilize one datastore

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: A raw LUN is needed for each host that is being configured to boot from SAN. Just like it would need its own non-formatted LUN on a local disk, it needs it on the SAN as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Question NO: 66

From where is a host profile delivered in auto-deploy?

A. SAN
B. PXE server
C. TFTP server
D. vCenter Server

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: vCenter is responsible for maintaining the host profile that will be applied to the hosts that are stood up with auto-deploy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Question NO: 67

Which is false regarding the installation of auto deploy?

A. Auto deploy can be installed on the same windows machine as vCenter Server
B. Auto deploy cannot be enabled in the vCenter server appliance
C. Auto deploy can be installed on a machine separate virtual machine from vCenter
D. Auto deploy can be installed on a physical machine separate from vCenter

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Use of the vCenter appliance is fully supported with auto deploy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Question NO: 68

What will an answer file supply for a host profile?

A. IP addresses for VMkernel ports
B. IP addresses for virtual machine vNICs
C. IP addresses for the host uplink ports
D. Unique names for host switches

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To make hosts that take advantage of host profiles unique, an answer file can be provided to customize the IP addresses of VMkernel ports so that IP conflicts are avoided.

64
Q

Question NO: 69

Which is not a valid way to attach a host profile in the web client?

A. Select the host profile in the Navigator pane and click the Attach/Detach Hosts and Clusters button
B. Right-click the host profile in the Navigator pane and click Attach/Detach Hosts and Clusters
C. From the hosts and clusters view, select a cluster to view the summary. Select Host Profiles > Attach Host Profile
D. Select Actions > Attach/Detach Hosts and Clusters

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Host profiles are not a feature available from the cluster summary.

65
Q

Question NO: 71

Which High Availability advanced option that can change the default grace period for network isolation?

A. Das.hostisolationdelaysec
B. Das.isolationdelay
C. Fdm.hostsilationdelay
D. Fdm.isolationpolicydelaysec

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: To prevent false positives, the fdm.isolationpolicydelaysec can be customized to give the desired grace period for network isolation.

66
Q

Question NO: 72

When using host failures cluster tolerates HA admission control policy, what determines the slot size for a virtual machine with no reservations?

A. Shares
B. Limits
C. VM overhead
D. Provisioned resources

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Slot size is based on reservations that would provide worst case scenario failure. If no reservations are configured, the slot sizes will be based on VM overhead.

67
Q

Question NO: 73

What is the determining factor for choosing a host isolation response for the cluster?

A. Reservation %
B. Slot Size
C. The Master Host
D. Physical configuration

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The host isolation response to choose is highly dependent on how your physical hosts are configured in terms of network connectivity and separation as well as connection to storage for datastore heartbeats.

68
Q

Question NO: 74

Which is not a configurable VMkernel port feature?

A. Replication NFC
B. Fault Tolerance
C. High Availability
D. Virtual SAN

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: High availability does not require a separate dedicated VMK port to be created. HA is enabled by checking off the checkbox in the cluster settings to enable HA and utilizes the management network for heartbeating.

69
Q

Question NO: 76

To allow DRS to place virtual machines on a host at power on but only give suggestions for migration, which DRS mode should be used?

A. Manual
B. Fully Automated
C. Partially Automated
D. Placement

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Partially automated mode with perform initial placement automatically but will not migrate virtual machines automatically. Manual mode will only give suggestions and fully automated mode will migrate virtual machines automatically as well as perform initial placement.

70
Q

Question NO: 77

Which is true about datastore heartbeats?

A. Recommended practice is to use a single datastore for heartbeating
B. If storage is on the same physical network as management, datastore heartbeats do not offer additional redundancy
C. If datastore heartbeats go down, the management heartbeats will also go down
D. Without management network redundancy, there is no benefit to datastore heartbeats

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: If management and storage exist on the same wire, if it happens to go down, management and storage traffic will be lost, effectively cutting off both types of heartbeat.

71
Q

Question NO: 78

An ESXi Host has a quad socket quad core physical configuration. Hyper-threading has been enabled in the bios. What is the maximum number of vCPUs available for a virtual machine running on this host?

A. 32
B. 64
C. 16
D. 8

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Quad core quad socket = 16 cores, which is what we are concerned about. Then with hyper-threading enabled, we double that number to give us the maximum logical number of 32 vCPUs.

72
Q

Question NO: 79

What protocol is used to keep content library objects synchronized?

A. Simple versioning
B. vSphere Replication
C. Replication NFC
D. Update Tracking

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Simple versioning uses changes in a .json file to track if a change has been made to an object in the content library. If there is a change, the version changes and the object is synchronized with the VCSP.

73
Q

Question NO: 80

What is the purpose of configuring the number of sockets and cores for a virtual machine?

A. Added processing power
B. Optimizing performance
C. Added resource monitoring ability
D. Maintaining licensing agreements

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: This option in a VM was originally created for licensing, but testing has shown that a VM with a corespersocket configuration that matches the physical host will aid in NUMA functionality for that virtual machine and can have an impact on performance.

74
Q

Question NO: 81

What authentication service is the password for a content library associated with?

A. DNS
B. Single Sign On
C. Active Directory
D. None of these

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The content library password stands on its own for subscription and is not associated with any other authentication including SSO or AD.

75
Q

Question NO: 82

A virtual machine has more vcpus than one physical socket in the ESXi host. What is this virtual machine considered?

A. Long
B. Narrow
C. Wide
D. Tall

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: A VM that spans more than one NUMA node is considered wide in terms of NUMA.

76
Q

Question NO: 83

What is the default automatic synchronization period for a subscribed content library?

A. 1 day
B. 1 week
C. 1 hour
D. 10 minutes

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: When in the automatic synchronization mode, the time is 24 hours. Synchronization with a published library can also take place manually.

77
Q

Question NO: 84

vCloud air comes with preconfigured virtual machine _______.

A. Templates
B. Resource Pools
C. Clones
D. Hardware

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: CentOS, Linux, and Windows templates are preconfigured and available for use with vCloud Air.

78
Q

Question NO: 85

Which tool does vCloud Air Disaster Recovery Service use to protect virtual machines?

A. Site Recovery Manager
B. vSphere Data Protection
C. vSphere Replication
D. Disaster Recovery Manager

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: vSphere replication works in combination with vCloud Air Disaster Recovery service to replicate VMs to the cloud as a target.

79
Q

Question NO: 86

A user reports that he cannot migrate a VM with vMotion. You determine that the problem is due to insufficient permissions. Which of the following privileges must the user be granted?

A. Resource>Migrate Powered on Virtual Machine on the source ESXi host, cluster or resource pool.
B. Resource>Assign Virtual Machine to Resource Pool on the source ESXi host, cluster or resource pool.
C. Resource>Migrate Powered on Virtual Machine on the destination ESXi host, cluster or resource pool.
D. Resource>Assign Virtual Machine to Resource Pool on the destination ESXi host, cluster or resource pool.

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: To migrate a VM using vMotion, a user must be granted Resource>Migrate Powered on Virtual Machine and Resource>Assign Virtual Machine to Resource Pool on the VM or the VM folder and Resource>Assign Virtual Machine to Resource Pool on the destination host, cluster, or resource pool.

80
Q

Question NO: 87

You need to replace the VMware Directory Service certificate. Which of the following commands could be used to copy a certificate to the proper location in a virtual appliance based PSC deployment?

A. cp vmdir.crt /usr/bin/vmware-vmdir /config/vmdircert.pem
B. cp vmdir.crt /usr/lib/vmware-vmdir/ /config/vmdircert.pem
C. cp vmdir.crt /usr/lib/vmware-vmdir/share/config/vmdircert.pem
D. cp vmdir.crt /usr/bin/vmware-vmdir/share/config/vmdircert.pem

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: In vSphere 6.0 the proper path to the vmdir configuration is /usr/lib/vmware-vmdir/share/config/ and the certificate filename is vmdircert.pem.

81
Q

Question NO: 88

What is the minimum virtual machine hardware version that supports 64 virtual cores?

A. hardware version 11 (ESXi 6.0 and later compatibility)
B. hardware version 10 (ESXi 5.5 and later compatibility)
C. hardware version 9 (ESXi 5.1 and later compatibility)
D. hardware version 8 (ESXi 5.0 and later compatibility)

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Hardware version 8 supports 32 virtual cores. Hardware version 9 and above support 64 virtual cores.

82
Q

Question NO: 89

Which of the following is not a valid store in VECS?

A. ESXi certificates store
B. Machine SSL certificates store
C. Trusted roots store
D. vpxd-extensions

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: VECS does not store ESXi certificates. ESXi certificates are stored locally on the ESXi Host, in the /etc/vmware/ssl directory. VECS does include a store for machine SSL certificates, trusted roots, and solution users, such as vpxd-extensions.

83
Q

Question NO: 90

Which of the following can be used when joining vCenter Server instances in Enhanced Linked Mode in vSphere 6?

A. Microsoft ADAM
B. Two SSO domains and just one PSC instance
C. PSC instances and two SSO domains
D. Two PSC instances that share a single SSO domain

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The vCenter Servers in Enhanced Linked Mode must share the same SSO domain. Earlier versions of vSphere required Microsoft ADAM, but vCenter Server 6.0 does not use ADAM.

84
Q

Question NO: 91

Which of these events may trigger host based networking rollbacks (pick 3)?

A. Updating teaming and failover policies or traffic shaping policies of a standard port group that contains the management VMkernel network adapter
B. Updating the VLAN of a standard port group that contains the management VMkernel network adapter
C. Increasing the MTU of management VMkernel network adapters and its switch to values not supported by the physical infrastructure
D. Changing the MTU of a distributed switch
E. Changing the following settings in the distributed port group of the management VMkernel network adapter: Teaming and Failover, VLAN, and Traffic Shaping.
F. Blocking all ports in the distributed port group containing the management VMkernel network adapter

Select 3 answers.

A

Answer:

A,B,C

Explanation: ESXi hosts may automatically rollback changes that cause ESXi server management connection to be unreachable , such as network teaming changes, VLAN changes, and MTU changes for standard switches and VMkernel ports (VMkernel virtual network adapters). The rollback does not apply to changes to distributed switches that are owned by vCenter Server.

85
Q

Question NO: 92

You are configuring a Fibre Channel SAN for use by vSphere 6. You want to ensure the storage administrator can control which storage devices (LUNs) are presented to each ESXi host. Which mechanism is the best practice?

A. LUN masking using the vSphere Client
B. LUN masking on the storage array
C. CHAP authentication
D. An esxcli command

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The best practice with LUN masking is to configure it on the storage array. The storage administrator configures which hosts have access to a LUN using masking. Performing masking on an ESXi host, whether using a GUI or a command, is not a best practice. But, if you chose to mask LUNs on an ESXi host, VMware recommends using a CLI command rather than the vSphere Client.

86
Q

Question NO: 93

In vSphere 6.0, which of the following is not supported with NFSv4.1?

A. standard lockd deaemon
B. pNFS (parallel NFS)
C. Kerberos user authentication
D. non-root user authentication

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: vSphere 6.0 does not support pNFS (parallel NFS), which is a feature of NFSv4.1. It does support standard lockd daemons, Kerberos authentication and non-root user authentication

87
Q

Question NO: 95

The vSphere environment has a single vDS configured, with five different dvPort groups configured as illustrated below. There is a requirement for a VM in the dvTest dvPort group to monitor VM traffic, but VMkernel traffic should not be monitored. Assuming Promiscuous Mode has already been enabled on the dvPort group Which of the following three settings would facilitate this? (Select two)
dvProduction - Production VM traffic- VLAN 101
dvTest - Test VM traffic - VLAN 102
dvManagement - Management VMkernel traffic- VLAN 500
dvMotion - vMotion VMkernel traffic - VLAN 600
dvStorage - IP Storage VMkernel traffic - VLAN 1000

 A. VLAN type: VLAN trunking 
 B. VLAN type: VLAN 
 C. VLAN: 4095 
 D. VLAN: 0 
 E. VLAN trunk range: 101-102 
 F. VLAN trunk range 0-4094

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

A,E

Explanation: In order to allow a dvPort group to have the ability to see multiple VLANs of traffic, Promiscuous Mode must be enabled as well as the VLAN trunking range set to include the VLAN IDs that the port group should be able to see, excluding VLANs that are not supposed to be visible. VLAN 4095 is not valid on a dvPort group, but would be valid on a standard vSwitch.

88
Q

Question NO: 97

You are the vSphere administrator of a school, and are rolling out a VDI infrastructure for the school. All students will be using virtual desktops, and you want to make sure that none of the students can see or communicate with any of the other students? virtual desktops in the school. It is decided that PVLANs will be used to segment the traffic logically. In which type of Secondary PVLAN should the student desktops be placed?

A. Community
B. Primary
C. Isolated
D. Promiscuous

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The Isolated Secondary PVLAN isolates all of the virtual machines that are placed in it. None of the VMs in the Isolated Secondary PVLAN can communicate with each other, but they could communicate to VMs in a Promiscuous PVLAN, provided that they are in the same Primary PVLAN.

89
Q

Question NO: 98

The vSphere administrator has determined that the vSphere environment should be using TCP Segmentation Offload. Using the ESXi shell, which command could be used to determine whether TSO has been enabled?

A. esxcli system settings advanced list -l /Net/UseHwTSO
B. esxcli system settings advanced list -o UseTSO
C. esxcli system settings advanced list -o /Net/UseHwTSO
D. esxcli system settings advanced list HwTSO

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The command to determine whether TSO is enabled is: esxcli system settings advanced list -o /Net/UseHwTSO and is issued from the ESXi shell, or SSH. In the command output, verify that the Int Value property is equal to 1.

90
Q

Question NO: 99

The vSphere Administrator has determined that TCP Segmentation Offload (TSO) be enabled for a Windows server virtual machine with a single virtual network adapter. What would have to be added to the virtual machine’s .vmx file to allow for this?

A. TSO.Enabled=true
B. TSO.Enabled=false
C. ethernet1.features - 0x2
D. ethernet0.features - 0x2

A

Answer:

D

Explanation:
The Windows VM’s .vmx file has to have the line: ethernet0.features - 0x2 added to it in order to enable TSO.

91
Q

Question NO: 100

If Ephemeral port binding is configured, what is the maximum number of ports that can be created for a dvPort group on a vDS?

A. 10,000
B. 4,096
C. 1,024
D. 1,016

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The maximum number of static or dynamic ports that can be configured for a vDS is 10,000, whereas the maximum number of ephemeral ports per vDS is 1,016.

92
Q

Question NO: 101

What is the maximum amount of bandwidth that can be reserved for NIOC?

A. 100% of the available bandwidth
B. 50% of the available bandwidth
C. 80% of the available bandwidth
D. 75% of the available bandwidth

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: When NIOC reservations are set, administrators cannot define a reservation for the full amount of the network bandwidth – there is a cap at 75% of the total bandwidth of the physical uplinks.

93
Q

Question NO: 102

What information could an administrator NOT obtain from a vDS by looking at the System traffic under Resource Allocation?

A. Minimum reservation allowed
B. Total bandwidth capacity
C. Configured reservation
D. Maximum reservation allowed

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: From system traffic, under resource allocation, the following information is available: Total bandwidth capacity, maximum reservation allowed, configured reservation, available bandwidth, whether NIOC is enabled or disabled, the version of NIOC configured, the number of physical uplinks contributing to the vDS, and the slowest physical uplink attached to the vDS.

94
Q

Question NO: 104

Which feature would prevent use of NIOC?

A. SR-IOV
B. DRS
C. SRM
D. User-defined network resource pools

A

Answer:

A

Explanation:
NIOC can only be enabled on vDS, Enterprise Plus licensing is required, and VMs cannot be configured for SR-IOV, bypassing the virtual switches.

95
Q

Question NO: 105

What Advanced System Setting would need to be modified if a vSphere administrator wanted to prevent a physical uplink from participating in NIOC?

A. Net.NIOC.Uplink.Disable
B. Net.IOControlUplinkOff
C. Net.IOControlPnicDisable
D. Net.IOControlPnicOptOut

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: In order to remove a physical uplink from participating in NIOC, the Advanced System Setting Net.IOControlPnicOptOut has to be modified. Then, administrators would add the physical uplink by vmnic name to be excluded from NIOC.

96
Q

Question NO: 106

Which of the following adapters does not support bi-directional CHAP authentication?

A. Software Initiator
B. Independent Hardware Initiator
C. Dependent Hardware Initiator
D. Dependent Software Initiator

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: Only the Software and Dependent Hardware iSCSI Initiators support bi-directional CHAP authentication.

97
Q

Question NO: 107

The vSphere administrator is creating a PowerCLI script to create 100 datastores, and the administrator doesn’t want to rescan storage after each datastore is created. Which of the following Advanced Settings should be defined to prevent to rescans?

A. config.vpxd.filter.hostRescanFilter set to false
B. config.vpxd.filter.hostRescanFilter set to true
C. config.vpxd.filter.hostScanFilter set to false
D. config.vpxd.filter.datastoreRescan set to true

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To prevent the automatic rescanning for datastores after a datastore is created, the advanced vCenter Server Setting: config.vpxd.filter.hostRescanFilter can be set to false.

98
Q

Question NO: 108

What is the maximum number of LUNs that can be presented to an ESXi host?

A. 1024
B. 128
C. 4096
D. 256

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The maximum number of LUNs that can be presented to an ESXi host is 256.

99
Q

Question NO: 109

A vSphere environment is using vSAN for all of its storage and consists of 4 blade chassis with multiple ESXi hosts per blade chassis. Which of the following would allow an entire blade chassis to fail, and still ensure all of the VM files are available to restart the VMs that were on the ESXi hosts in the failed blade chassis?

A. Set Anti-Affinity rules between all of the hosts in two of the blade chassis
B. Create 4 DRS groups, one for each blade chassis. Add all of the hosts in each of the 4 DRS groups. Set anti-affinity rules between groups of 4 VMs at a time, until this has been done for each of the VMs. Add all of the VMs into a DRS group.
C. Define the HA Policy, Use Dedicated Failover Hosts
D. Create 4 fault domains: one for all hosts in each blade chassis

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Fault Domains prevent both copies of the virtual machines from residing on the same fault domain (which is defined on a group of ESXi hosts)

100
Q

Question NO: 110

When configuring vSAN storage policies, what does the setting Number of Disk Stripes per Object define?

A. The number of host, network, or disk failures to be tolerated
B. The number of times the VM objects are to be written to disk
C. The number of objects a VM has
D. The number of disks that the VM objects are written across

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Stripes per object define how many disks the VM objects are written across.

101
Q

Question NO: 111

If an ESXi host enters an APD state, how long until it transitions to a PDL state?

A. 120 seconds
B. 140 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 240 seconds

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: An ESXi host will be in an APD state for 140 seconds before transitioning to a PDL state.

102
Q

Question NO: 112

Which of the following is not a VAAI capability?

A. Full copy
B. Software-assisted locking
C. Hardware-assisted locking
D. Block zeroing

A

Answer:

B

103
Q

Question NO: 113

Which of the following is not true of a VMFS3 datastore that has been upgraded to VMFS5?

A. File block size stays the same on VMFS5 as it was on VMFS3
B. The MBR changes to GPT format when the datastore is expanded beyond 2TB
C. Changes the sub-block size to 8KB
D. Uses ATS+SCSI locking

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: When a VMFS3 datastore is upgraded to VMFS5, the file block sizes and sub-block sizes stay the same. If the datastore is formatted to VMFS5 instead, the block size is 1 MB and sub-block size is 8KB.

104
Q

Question NO: 114

Which command can be used to list multipathing modules?

A. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugins
B. esxcli storage core plugins list
C. esxcli storage core devices plugins list –plugin-class=modules
D. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP

A

Answer:

D

Explanation:
The command to list multipathing modules is: esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP

105
Q

Question NO: 115

What is the mechanism that allocates a proportional throughput using shares?

A. vClock
B. mClock
C. SI scheduler
D. vIO Clock

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The mClock scheduler algorithm allocates storage resources to the VM in proportion to its shares.

106
Q

Question NO: 116

Which of the following is true of SIOC?

A. It is enabled by default
B. It requires Enterprise Plus licensing
C. It has a default latency of 60 ms
D. It was initially introduced in vSphere 4.1

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: SIOC was initially introduced in vSphere 4.1, requires Enterprise licensing, is disabled by default, is enabled on a datastore, monitors and throttles VMs only when latency exceeds the set threshold, and has a default latency of 30 ms.

107
Q

Question NO: 117

How can an administrator set reservations for SIOC?

A. In the vSphere Web Client
B. With the vCLI command: esxcli storage core vm sioc reserve
C. With the PowerCLI cmdlet: StorageIOAllocation.reservation
D. With the PowerCLI cmdlet: SIOC.reservation.set

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Reservations for SIOC can be set using the PowerCLI cmdlet StorageIOAllocation.reservation

108
Q

Question NO: 118

The vSphere administrator wants to do a silent upgrade of VMware Tools for a Windows OS. What must be entered into the Advanced Options text box to allow for this?

A. /s /v /qn /l c:\windows\filename.log
B. /s /a /qn /r c:\windows\filename.log
C. vmwaretools -install -silent c:\windows\filename.log
D. /s /v /a /r qn c:\windows\filename.log

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To perform a silent upgrade of VMware Tools for a Windows OS, the following line has to be added to the Advanced Options text box: /s /v /qn /l c:\windows\filename.log. The upgrade creates a log file in the location specified in this string.

109
Q

Question NO: 119

A cluster of ESXi servers is being updated using Update Manager and remediation is set to the default: one host at a time. What happens when a failure occurs on one of the ESXi hosts in the cluster?

A. That host is skipped, and the rest of the ESXi hosts get upgraded
B. An error gets generated, and the upgrade process is rolled back for all of the hosts
C. The remediation process stops, and no further hosts are upgraded
D. The Update Manager service crashes

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: If Update Manager remediation is set to one host at a time for a cluster, and the upgrade process fails for a host, the process stops, and no further ESXi hosts are upgraded. Hosts that have already been upgraded, remain upgraded.

110
Q

Question NO: 120

Which of the following is not a supported method to upgrade an ESXi host to version 6?

A. Update Manager 6.0
B. Interactive upgrade from the DCUI
C. Using the esxcli command-line utility
D. Scripted upgrade

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The following are supported methods for upgrading an ESXi host to version 6: Update Manager 6.0, interactive upgrade from CD, DVD, or USB drive, Auto Deploy to redeploy the host with the new ESXi image, using the esxcli command-line utility, and a scripted upgrade.

111
Q

Question NO: 121

In order to upgrade a vCenter virtual appliance to version 6, what has to be installed on the system the appliance is being deployed from before the upgrade process can begin?

A. Upgrade the Windows vSphere Client
B. Delete the old vCenter Appliance
C. Log into the vCenter Appliance administrative console
D. Install the Client Integration Plug-In

A

Answer:

D

Explanation:
The Client Integration Plug-In has to be installed in a browser before the appliance can be upgraded.

112
Q

Question NO: 122

What are the memory share values for a virtual machine by default?

A. 20 shares per MB of configured RAM
B. 100 shares per MB of configured RAM
C. 10 shares per MB of configured RAM
D. 200 shares per MB of configured RAM

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: VM shares for memory are 10 shares per MB of configured RAM at the default share setting of ?Normal?..

113
Q

Question NO: 125

vFRC has been enabled on all of the ESXi hosts in the cluster and is being used for .vswp files. Which of the following happens when an administrator attempts to migrate a VM using vMotion?

A. vFRC is turned off for the VM, the .vswp file recreated on the destination host, the VM migrates, and then the new host re-enables vFRC
B. The administrator is prompted to either move the cache, or not to move the cache
C. vMotion is not supported when vFRC is configured for .vswp files
D. The cache is automatically migrated to the new host, causing the vMotion migration to take a little longer

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: When a VM is using vFRC for its .vswp files, the administrator will be prompted during the vMotion migration wizard with whether they choose to migrate the cache or not. If the cache is migrated, it is moved to the new ESXi host and the VM is migrated. This causes the migration to take a little longer as a result of the cache also being copied.

114
Q

Question NO: 126

What happens to VMs inside a resource pool when the resource pool is deleted?

A. All VMs inside the pool are deleted
B. All VMs inside the pool are distributed to other pools at random
C. A popup appears, informing the administrator that the pool cannot be deleted while there are VMs present in the pool
D. All VMs inside the pool are placed in the parent resource pool

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: When a resource pool deleted, any VMs inside the pool are automatically placed in the parent pool.

115
Q

Question NO: 127

In which scenario would a vSphere administrator consider implementing CPU limits?

A. To define the amount of CPU a virtual machine users would like to have
B. To define the minimum amount of CPU that a virtual machine needs 100% of the time
C. To define the maximum amount of CPU that a virtual machine could consume
D. To prevent other virtual machines from monopolizing resources during periods of contention

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Limits effectively limit access to a physical resource causing the virtual machine to be capped at the defined limit.

116
Q

Question NO: 128

Which of the following statements about reservations is false?

A. Expandable reservations allow resource pools to borrow resources from their parent pools if the reservations exceed the pools unreserved capacity
B. Reservations, if set too high too often, can limit the amount of virtual machines that can power on.
C. Reservations are used only during periods of contention
D. A VM can only power on if its reservation can be met

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: Reservations are used to define the guaranteed amount of a resource that is allocated to a virtual machine 100% of the time, regardless of whether or not there is contention.

117
Q

Question NO: 129

Which of the following cannot be backed up using VDP?

A. Powered off VMs
B. Templates
C. Primary fault-tolerant VMs
D. vCenter Server Appliance

A

Answer:

B

Explanation:
VDP cannot backup:

VDP appliances, vSphere Storage Appliances, VMware Data Recovery Appliances, Templates, Secondary fault-tolerant VMs, Proxies, or Avamar Virtual Edition servers.

118
Q

Question NO: 130

Which of the following disk types are not supported by VDP?

A. Dependent virtual disks
B. Dependent virtual compatibility mode RDMs
C. Virtual disks using vFRC
D. Physical compatibility mode RDMs

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: Since VDP uses vSphere snapshots to be able to backup virtual machines, if the data cannot be manipulated by vSphere snapshots, then it cannot be backed up. Independent disks or RDMs are unaffected by vSphere snapshots, so cannot be backed up. Physical compatibility mode RDMs cannot be backed up using VDP. vFRC may lower the performance of VDP backup jobs, but doesn’t prevent the data from being backed up.

119
Q

Question NO: 131

After restoring a vCenter server, the vSphere administrator wants to point the restored vCenter server to a Platform Services Controller other than the one in the restored image. Which command would allow this?

A. cmsso-util repoint psc_fqdn
B. cmsso-util repoint –repoint-psc psc-fqdn
C. psc-restore psc-repoint psc-fqdn
D. cmsso-util repoint-psc new psc-fqdn

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: The command to point a vCenter server to a different platform services controller is:
cmsso-util repoint –repoint-psc psc-fqdn

120
Q

Question NO: 132

Which of the following is not supported by vSphere Replication? (Select two)

A. Application Quiescing in Windows Server 2008
B. Application Quiescing on Virtual Volumes
C. Application Quiescing on Windows 7
D. File System Quiescing on Windows Server 2003
E. File System Quiescing on Windows Vista

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,C

Explanation: Application quiescing is not supported on Windows 2003, Windows Vista, Windows 7, or Windows 8 in vSphere Replication 6.0. File system quiescing is supported in all operating systems, provided VMware tools is installed.

121
Q

Question NO: 133

A VM in an HA Cluster is unable to power on. It displays the following error message: Insufficient failover resources. Which of the following could be done to be able to power on the virtual machine?

A. Decrease the virtual machine reservations
B. Set the virtual machine limits
C. Increase the number of shares for the virtual machine
D. Migrate the virtual machine to another datastore

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: If a VM cannot power on due to the error message displayed above, three things can be done to try to resolve the issue: Decrease the VM reservations, change or disable the HA admission control, stop other virtual machines that have reservations set too high.

122
Q

Question NO: 134

When attempting to navigate to the Hosts and Clusters inventory view in the vSphere Web Client, the interface displays the following error message: Unexpected status code: 503. What should be the first way to attempt to fix this error?

A. Reboot the vCenter server
B. Restart the vCenter Server service
C. Reboot the vCenter database
D. Restore the vCenter database from a backup

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: If the vSphere Web Client displays errors in the interface relating to navigating the different inventory views, the vCenter Server service should be restarted.

123
Q

Question NO: 135

The vSphere administrator is trying to investigate an issue, but has determined that the current logging level is not capturing enough data. If the logging is set to the default setting, to what level should the administrator set the logging level to collect one more level of information than is currently being gathered?

A. Informational
B. Trivia
C. Verbose
D. Warning

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The default logging level for vCenter is Informational. To gather more logs by one level, logging should be set to verbose. In order from least logs to most logs, the levels are: none, error, warning, informational, verbose, and trivia.

124
Q

Question NO: 136

What command could be run to gather the logs directly from the ESXi shell (or SSH)?

A. vm-support
B. vmware-support
C. get-logs
D. /var/log export

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: The vm-support command can be used to gather log information from the ESXi host.

125
Q

Question NO: 137

The vCenter performance graphs are not displaying properly. The vSphere administrator determines that the rollup jobs are running slowly due to the size of the vCenter database. Which tables should the vSphere administrator have the database administrator truncate? (Select two)

 A. VPX_HIST_STAT1 
 B. VPX_DATA_STAT1 
 C. VPX_SAMPLE_DATE1 
 D. VPX_SAMPE_TIME1 
 E. VPX_SAMPLE_DATA1

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

A,D

Explanation: The tables that can be truncated in the vCenter database are the VPX_HIST_STAT1 and the VPX_SAMPE_TIME1 tables.

126
Q

Question NO: 138

What command could be used to verify the metadata consistency of a VMFS datastore?

A. vmkfstools
B. esxcli storage core
C. voma
D. vmfstools

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The voma command, or vSphere On-disk Metadata Analyzer can be used to verify the metadata consistency of a VMFS datastore.

127
Q

Question NO: 139

A user is trying to use Wireshark inside a virtual machine to monitor traffic on the virtual switch, but is unable to monitor any of the traffic. What could be the cause of this?

A. Promiscuous mode is set to reject
B. MAC Address changes is set to reject
C. Network traffic shaping is misconfigured
D. The physical NIC settings (speed and duplex) are misconfigured

A

Answer:

A

Explanation:
If a VM is unable to analyze traffic using a network monitoring tool, the first thing an administrator should check is that promiscuous mode is set to accept.

128
Q

Question NO: 140

Users are reporting that after an administrative change, virtual machines on one ESXi host are performing extremely slowly. Which of the following could cause the slow or unusable performance?

A. The proper storage adapter driver is not installed on the ESXi host
B. Zoning is improperly configured on the Fibre Channel switches
C. The storage multipathing is misconfigured
D. The LUN masking on the array is not properly set

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: If the storage I/O performance of an ESXi host is terrible or unusable, it is most likely caused by misconfiguration of storage multipathing.

129
Q

Question NO: 141

An ESXi server has had its management VMkernel ports misconfigured and has been disconnected from the vCenter server. From the DCUI, which of the following is not an option that could be used to restore network connectivity?

A. Restore Network Settings
B. Restore Standard Switch
C. Restore Management Network
D. Restore vDS

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The three settings available to restore network connectivity in the event of a management misconfiguration, are: Restore Network Settings, Restore Standard Switch, and Restore vDS.

130
Q

Question NO: 142

Which of the following is not a valid memory state for an ESXi host to be in assuming the ESXi host is at version 6.0?Which of the following is not a valid memory state for an ESXi host to be in assuming the ESXi host is at version 6.0?

A. High
B. Clear
C. Min
D. Hard

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The 5 memory states in vSphere 6.0 are: High, Clear, Soft, Hard, and Low.

131
Q

Question NO: 143

A vSphere administrator wants to increase the amount of memory the balloon driver can reclaim to 75% of the allocated VM memory instead of the default 65%. Which of the following ESXi server setting would have to be modified to allow this?

A. Mem.CtlMaxPercent
B. Sched.Mem.MaxMemCtl
C. Mem.MaxBalloonReclaim
D. Mem.BalloonMaxPct

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: Mem.CtlMaxPercent limits the maximum amount of memory reclaimed from any virtual machine using vmmemctl, based on a percentage of its configured memory size.

132
Q

Question NO: 144

An administrator wants to run ESXTOP in batch mode and collect data at 10 minute (600 second) interval and export the output to a file called performance.csv. Which command would the administrator run?

A. esxtop -b -d 10min > performance.csv
B. esxtop -b -d 600 | performance.csv
C. esxtop -b -a -d 600 > performance.csv
D. esxtop -b 600 > performance.csv

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The syntax for running ESXTOP in batch mode is esxtop -b -a -d duration_in_seconds > output_filename.

133
Q

Question NO: 145

The vSphere administrator is trying to examine performance charts, but the vSphere Web client is temporarily unavailable. As a result, the administrator uses the Windows-based vSphere Client to attach directly to an ESXi host and looks at the performance charts through that interface. What timespan is the administrator able to view? (select two)

 A. Past week 
 B. Past day 
 C. Past month 
 D. Real time 
 E. Past year

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: The Windows vSphere Client attached directly to an ESXi host can be used to view performance charts, but the timespan cannot be set to past week or higher, because vCenter is required for that level of information.

134
Q

Question NO: 146

A user is reporting that their virtual machine is performing slowly. You suspect that there is CPU contention, since this is a 4 vCPU VM. Which counter would prove CPU contention?

A. High CPU Wait time
B. High CPU Ready time
C. Disk writes
D. High swap usage

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: CPU Ready measures the amount of time that the vCPU is ready to run, but cannot be scheduled against an LCPU due to contention. High CPU Ready times are an indication that a virtual machine is having scheduling problems.

135
Q

Question NO: 147

Which of the following is not one of the major badges in vRealize Operations Manager?

A. Health
B. Risk
C. Workload
D. Efficiency

A

Answer:

C

Explanation:
The three major badges are: Health, Risk, and Efficiency.

136
Q

Question NO: 148

You are setting up connectivity to a vCloud Air catalog on premises. It is determined that IPsec should be used to secure VPN connections. Which of the following must be configured?

A. vMotion encryption
B. Peer Networks
C. Management network encryption
D. Remote Endpoint

A

Answer:

B

Explanation:
To configure an IPsec VPN, the following must be configured:

Peer Networks, Local Endpoint, Peer ID, and Local ID.

137
Q

Question NO: 149

Your vSphere environment has a cluster object with HA, DRS, and vSAN all enabled. Which network will be used for HA heartbeating?

A. VMkernel port marked for managment traffic
B. VMkernel port marked for vMotion traffic
C. VMkernel port marked for vSAN traffic
D. VMkernel port marked for HA heartbeating

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: When vSAN is configured on an HA cluster, the vSAN network is used for HA heartbeating instead of the management VMkernel network.

138
Q

Question NO: 150

When configuring VMCP, which of the following is NOT a valid configuration option for Response for Datastore with Permanent Device Loss (PDL)?

A. Disabled
B. Issue events
C. Power off and restart VMs
D. Shutdown and restart VMs

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The options available under Response for Datastore with Permanent Device Loss (PDL) are: Disabled, Issue events, and Power off and restart VMs. If a datastore is in a PDL condition, the VMs on that datastore are most likely crashed and not responding. As a result, shut down is not an option, because the VMs wouldn’t respond to a shutdown command.

139
Q

Question NO: 151

The vSphere Web Client may list HA as being in a particular state. Which of the following is NOT a state in which the HA Agent can be?

A. Unreachable
B. Uninitialized
C. Network Partitioned
D. Install error

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The following are states in which the HA Agent may be: Unreachable, Uninitialized, Initialization Error, Uninitialization error, host failed, network partitioned, network isolated, configuration of hosts times out.

140
Q

Question NO: 152

Which of the following would cause the HA Agent to return an Initialization Error? (select two)

A. The ESXi host is unreachable by vCenter
B. The HA Agent on the ESXi host has failed
C. The network is partitioned
D. There is less than 75 MB of free space on the ESXi host’s local storage

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

A,D

Explanation: Initialization error can be caused by the ESXi host being unreachable by vCenter when the agent is being installed, and also if there is less than 75 MB of space available on the ESXi host’s local storage.

141
Q

Question NO: 153

If a DRS cluster has resource pools present, what happens when DRS is disabled?

A. The VMs are orphaned
B. An error message appears. You will be prompted to back up the resource pool hierarchy to a .snapshot file
C. VMs are automatically placed in the cluster root resource pool
D. An error message appears preventing DRS from being turned off

A

Answer:

B

Explanation:
If a DRS cluster has resource pools present, when DRS is disabled, an error message states there are resource pools in the cluster and you will be prompted to back up the resource pool hierarchy to a snapshot file.

142
Q

Question NO: 154

It has been determined that FT should be enabled for a virtual machine with only 1 vCPU, so you decide you want to use legacy FT and not use the newer version of FT. How can this be accomplished?

A. Modify the VM’s Configuration Parameters and add the option: vm.uselegacyft and set the value to true.
B. Right-click the VM and choose Fault Tolerance -> Enable Legacy FT
C. Modify the VM’s Configuration Parameters and add the option: vm.legacyftenable and set the value to true
D. Modify the VM’s Configuration Parameters and add the option: vm.legacyft and set the value to yes

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To enable legacy FT, the VM’s Configuration Parameters has to be modified to add the field: vm.uselegacyft and the value has to be set to: true

143
Q

Question NO: 156

Which two are valid VIB Acceptance levels? (select two)

 A. PartnerCertified 
 B. VMwareCertified 
 C. VMwareSupported 
 D. PartnerSupported 
 E. PartnerCertified

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

B,D

Explanation: The four valid VIB Acceptance levels are: VMwareCertified, VMwareAccepted, PartnerSupported, and CommunitySupported.

144
Q

Question NO: 157

The current VIB Acceptance level has been determined to be too low, and is PartnerSupported. The ESXi server’s acceptance level is currently set to VMwareAccepted. Which of the following would be an acceptance level should the ESXi host be changed to in order to allow the VIB to be used? (Select two)

A. VMwareAccepted
B. VMwareCertified
C. PartnerSupported
D. CommunitySupported

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

C,D

Explanation:
The acceptance level of the VIB to be used must be the same level or higher than the ESXi host acceptance level. The VIB acceptance level cannot be changed, but the ESXi acceptance level can be changed if needed.

145
Q

Question NO: 158

Which PowerCLI cmdlet could be used to get a list of available software packages?

A. Get-EsxSoftwarePackage
B. List-EsxSoftwarePackage
C. Get-EsxPackage list
D. Get-EsxSoftwarePackages -all

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: The command Get-EsxSoftwarePackage can be used to get a list of available software packages.

146
Q

Question NO: 159

Which of the following can vCenter Converter NOT convert to a vSphere virtual machine?

A. VMware Consolidated Backup (.vmx)
B. Physical Linux machine
C. Symantec LiveState Recovery Image (.sv2i)
D. RHEV virtual machine

A

Answer:

D

Explanation:
vCenter Converter can convert the following to a VMware virtual machine:

Physical Windows or Linux machines, VMware virtual machines (.vmx), VMware Consolidated Backup (.vmx), Microsoft Virtual PC or Virtual Server virtual machines (.vmc), Symantec LiveState Recovery Image (.sv2i), Acronis True Image Backup (.tib), StorageCraft ShadowStor (.spf), Parallels Virtualization Products (.pvs), and Hyper-V virtual machines.

147
Q

Question NO: 160

Which of the following can be modified during the conversion of a physical machine to a virtual machine? (Select two)

A. Change automatic services to be disabled
B. Resize two hard drives, by making one larger and the other smaller
C. Configure memory reservation
D. Change the boot.ini file
E. Patch the OS

Select 2 answers.

A

Answer:

A,B

Explanation: During the conversion of a physical machine to a virtual machine, the following can be modified:
� which disks to copy and whether to resize any or all of them

� which memory and CPU allocation to give the new VM, and which disk controller to use

� to which network the network adapters should attach, which network adapters to use, and how many network adapters to use

� which services will be running or set to automatic/manual/disabled.

148
Q

Question NO: 161

The vSphere administrator attempted to convert a Windows 2012 machine to a virtual machine, but the conversion process failed. What is the location of one the log files that can be checked to investigate what went wrong?

A. C:\All Users\Temp
B. C:\ WINDOWS \Temp\converter
C. C:\ WINDOWS \Temp\Converter Logs
D. C:\WINDOWS\Temp\vmware-converter

A

Answer:

D

Explanation:
In Windows 8 and Server 2012, the log files are located in:

C:\ProgramData\VMware\VMware vCenter Converter Standalone\Logs

C:\WINDOWS\Temp\vmware-converter

C:\WINDOWS\Temp\vmware-temp

149
Q

Question NO: 162

administrator wants to override the HA warning message that there is only one heartbeat datastore. Which HA Advanced parameter would accomplish this goal?

A.
das.heartbeatdatastorewarning

B.
das.ignoreHbdatastorewarning

C.
das.ignoreInsufficientHbDatastore

D.
das.isolationaddress0

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The HA Advanced parameter to ignore the warning message of insufficient heartbeat datastores, is das.ignoreInsufficientHbDatastore and the value needs to be set to true.

150
Q

Question NO: 163

There are a few operating systems in the vSphere environment that take longer than 5 minutes to shut down. As a result, if there is an HA isolation event, those VMs are being powered off before the OS has shut all the way down. Which of the HA Advanced parameters can be used to extend the amount of time HA waits to power off virtual machines?

A. Set the das.isolationShutdownTimeout option to a value larger than 300
B. Set the fdm.isolationpolicydelaysec option to a value larger than 300
C. Set the vpxd.das.completemetadataupdateintervalsec to a value larger than 300
D. Set the das.shutdowndelayinsec option to a value larger than 300

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: To increase the amount of time that HA waits to power off a virtual machine, after it has sent a shut down command to the OS, the HA advanced option das.isolationshutdowntimeout has to be added, with a value set to a number larger than 300 (which is the default).

151
Q

Question NO: 164

A vSphere HA Cluster has VM Monitoring enabled for virtual machines. What happens if the OS stops sending heartbeats to HA, but the OS is still running?

A. HA checks to see if there is any VM disk or network I/O within 120 seconds
B. HA restarts the VM on the same host
C. HA restarts the VM on a different host
D. HA checks to see if there is any VM network I/O within the next 60 seconds

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: If HA no longer receives heartbeats from the VM, it will monitor whether there is network or disk activity in the I/O stats interval, which is 120 seconds. This can be modified with the advanced option: das.iostatsinterval.

152
Q

Question NO: 165

If Distributed Power Management is to be used, how does it wake up ESXi hosts that it has shut down? (Select three correct answers)

 A. Wake On LAN 
 B. IPMI 
 C. iLO 
 D. DMTF 
 E. BMC

Select 3 answers.

A

Answer:

A,B,C

Explanation: DPM uses the IPMI or iLO to bring up ESXi servers after they have been powered off for power savings. If the server does not have IPMI or iLO, it can send Wake On LAN packets instead.

153
Q

Question NO: 166

Which of the following settings would prevent DRS from trying to migrate VMs to balance resource distribution?

A. VMs do not meet vMotion requirements
B. The DRS migration threshold is set to most conservative
C. The DRS migration threshold is set to most aggressive
D. The vMotion network is being shared with the VMkernel network for management

A

Answer:

B

Explanation: If the DRS migration threshold is set to the most conservative, it will only apply priority 1 migrations, which means it will only migrate VMs if there are affinity/anti-affinity, or required DRS group rules forcing VMs to be separated or kept together. It will not migrate VMs based on resource distribution in this case. Also, if VMs do not meet vMotion requirements, DRS would still try to migrate the VMs if the threshold was set to be less conservative. Since DRS would be unable to move these machines, however, it would generate faults.

154
Q

Question NO: 167

Which of the following does USB passthrough not support?

A. DPM
B. vMotion
C. DRS
D. HA

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: USB passthrough supports vMotion and DRS, but doesn’t support DPM or FT.

155
Q

Question NO: 168

The admin of a virtual machine running Linux is reporting that characters are being echoed when they type in the console. What Advanced Configuration Parameter can be added to the VM to help correct for this?

A.
keyboard.repeat.delay.set

B.
keyboard.echo.off

C.
isolation.tools.disable

D.
keyboard.typematicMinDelay

A

Answer:

D

Explanation: The VM Advanced Configuration Parameter can be added to the VM through Edit Settings: keyboard.typematicMinDelay. This would then be set to a time value in microseconds. For example, 1000000 would be one second.

156
Q

Question NO: 169

The vSphere environment is built on Cisco UCS using VM-FEX (Cisco Virtual Machine Fabric Extender). DirectPath I/O has been configured for several virtual machines. Which of the following features are not available?

A. Suspend and resume
B. vMotion
C. Record and replay
D. Snapshots

A

Answer:

C

Explanation: The following features are only supported if UCS and VM-FEX is used:
� Hot-adding and hot-removing virtual devices

� Suspend and resume

� Fault Tolerance

� High Availability

� vMotion

� Snapshots

Record and replay is not supported with DirectPath I/O even if Cisco UCS and VM-FEX is used.

157
Q

Question NO: 170

Where are the credentials for the content libraries stored?

A. vCenter Database
B. Active Directory
C. vSphere SSO
D. vCenter local account

A

Answer:

A

Explanation: The user account and password are not associated with AD and are stored in the vCenter Database.

V6 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions