viva Flashcards

1
Q

what precautions would you normally take before dilating a px prior to indirect ophthalmoscopy

A

H&S previous allergic reactions, 4D drug test drug dose date disposal, Does patient have any condition that could be aggravated by the mydriatic e.g. phenylephrine 10% should not be given to patients with severe cardiac disease, can cause systemic vasoconstriction
Does px report sxs of angle closure- severe unilateral eye pain, h/a, halos, nausea, vomiting
if px has used pilocarpine for treatment of glaucoma (commonly used for acute angle closure so dont), iris- clip IOL, translated crystalline lens or IOL, , marfans syndrome pxs could have a misalined crystalline lens.- look at iris colour - darker irides may need increased dose
For phenylepherine noted that patients on trycyclic antidepressants and MOA inhibitors could be at risk of a rise in blood pressure if drug instilled, and take care with patients with systemic hypertension

First check the va+ pupil reflexes, near muscle balance and accom once installed cant assess these
Measure openness of anterior chamber depth, van herricks, grade 2 or less,measure IOP
Check tonometry before so you can compare w after instillation- rise of more than 5 monitored
Consent- Discuss tasks px should avoid until drugs worn off eg driving, info what to do upon reaction- inform px’s of prodomal symptoms = haloes, ocular pain in dim lighting as acute closed angle glaucoma most likely when drug is wearing off = gap between iris and lens is smallest.
Advise them how long effects will last, unable to drive or cycle. photophobia

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2
Q

what would you do after assessing eyes of px you have dilated

A

Mesaure iop again- A rise of more than 5mmHg should be monitored until it returns to normal
Consider referral if difference over 5, monitor, high iop may indicate closed angle glaucoma
Measure openness of anterior chamber angle using van herricks, measure VA see if it has changed
Give px written material info about drug+ tell them signs and symptoms of adverse reactions to drug
what px should do if reaction, inform them of sxs- haloes, h/a, nausea, vomiting, severe unilat pain
ask px to wear sunglasses to reduce photophobia until effects have worn off, not to drive or operate heavy machinery, advise px they may experience blurry vision for couple of hours mydriasis lasts 8-10 hours but cyclooplegic effects last 2-4 hours.

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3
Q

apart from pxs with extremely narrow angles who else would you not dilate and why

A

Px using pilocarpine for treatment of glaucoma as causes miosis so cancels out dilation and its used to lower iops and dilating the pupils may temporarily increase iop
iris clip IOL- could rip iris and displace IOL and block angle=secondary glaucoma
translated crystalline lens/IOL or IOL that has moved eg mardans syndrome- could dislodge the lens
previous allergic reaction
pxs who have to operate heavy machinery or drive soon after dilation
somebody with genetic disorder eg marfans sydnrome who have ectopia lentis= displacement of lens which may move again causing blocked angle
for phenylephrine- not to use if px on tricyclic antidepressants, MAO inhibitors, hypertension as sympathomimetic could cause an increase in blood pressure as causes vasoconstriction.
Pxs with increased IOP- could cause angle closure

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4
Q

what could you use to dilate a px prior to examining them w indirect ophthalmoscopy

A

Tropicamide 0.5 percent to 1 percent depending on colour of iris, 1 percent with darker iris as pigment absorbs drug= (anti muscarinic that blocks receptors preventing contraction of sphincter muscle unopposed dilation. better as more rapid onset 20 mins and effects last less long.

Phenylephrine hydrochloride 2.5 or 10 percent, avoid 10 percent with young and elderly= sympathomimetic- dilates pupil by stimulating radial muscles of iris dilator pupillae to contract. acts directly on adrenoreceptors = slower onset, use both synergistically for maximal dilation
Cyclopentolate hydrochloride- anti muscarinic, not usually used just for dilation alone- relaxes accom
Atropine- muscarinic, blocks action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors- causes dilator muscles of iris to contract leading to dilation
Combination of drugs- tropicamide and phenylephrine- use lower concentrations

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5
Q

which drug gives maximal dilation

A

tropicamide or a combination of tropicamide with phenylephrine hcl

0.5 percent or 1.0 percent tropicamide in conjunction with 2.5 percent phenylephrine.
can also use topical anaesthetic to increase uptake of mydriasis.

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6
Q

what could you do to speed up the dilation process

A

use a combination of tropicamide with phenylephrine hcl

turn off or dim the room lights which cause pupils to dilate naturally and speed up dilation process
press firmly on lacrimal sac just medial to inner canthus to mimimise systemic absorption.
use anaesthetic before inserting dilation drops as this can reduce lacrimation and thus reduce drug washout and also this can increase mydriasis. = increases corneal permeability.
use a higher conc of drug

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7
Q

what are the 4ds with regard to safe use of ophthalmic drugs

A

drug (name of drug), dose (conc), date (expiry), disposal (toxic waste bins)

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8
Q

name the typical instruments used to examine the central 45 degrees of the retina

A

direct ophthalmoscope
indirect ophthalmoscope
welch allen or keeler wide angle or head mounted BIO
monocular indirect
opthalmoscopy with +20D lens
slit lamp bio with +20D lens
fundus contact lens

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9
Q

What are the advantages of direct ophthalmoscopy compared to indirect ophthalmoscopy?

A

Px does not need to be dilated
- Not as bright light source, therefore more px compliance
- More portable, does not require condensing lenses
- Less expensive
- Direct has higher mag, produces erect and upright image
- Easy to use
good for kids
indirect is inverted and alterally reversed
indirect requires additional lenses making it harder to achieve a clear image

Because the examiner’s eye is positioned relatively close to the patient’s eye, direct ophthalmoscopy provides a higher magnification view of the fundus. The close proximity allows for a more detailed examination of small structures in the retina.

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10
Q

What are the disadvantages of direct ophthalmoscopy compared to indirect ophthalmoscopy?

A

Direct gives us a decreased field of view indirect more
- Indirect does allow us to control the magnification by altering the power of the condensing lens and the power of the eye pieces.
- Ametropia has an effect on the size or quality of the image seen while using direct ophthalmoscope. Myopes = experience greater magnification and therefore less field of view. Hyperopes = experience less magnification and more field of view.
- Indirect can by pass media opacities due to the greater intensity of light while direct cannot. Poor image quality if px has lens or media opacities with direct.
- Indirect has a greater working distance than direct. Therefore patient comfort is more
- Direct ophthalmoscopy does not give stereoscopic view of fundus while binocular indirect does
astigmatism decreases quality of image in direct
working distance w direct is very close

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11
Q

Compare and contrast the 78D and 90D hand held slit-lamp indirect (Volk)

A

Higher the power the lower the mag and the greater the fov.

90D lens has a lower mag 0.75x than the 78D which has a mag of 0.93X.

90D has a greater fov though it has 94 degrees compared to the 78D’s 84 degrees.

78D provides a greater wd of 8.0mm whereas 90D is 6.0mm so 78D is more comfortable for the px.

the 78D is bigger 31mm and 90D is smaller 21.5mm. 90D is best for smaller pupils and 78D is best for general diagnostic lenses.

78D= higher mag, smaller fov can be held bit farther away. 90D lower mag but larger fov.

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12
Q

Name some of the more common hand held slit-lamp indirect (Volk) lenses available, and any specific advantages they have

A

+60D lens: better for examination of disc and macula and has greatest magnification.

+66D high definition view of disc and macula

  • +78D lens: best for general diagnostic view.
  • +90D lens: best for smaller pupils.
  • Superfield NC is approx. +90D, good all rounded lens, mag is 0.71 , FOV 120 degrees, wd 6 to 6.5 mm and lens size is 26 mm.
  • +81 aspheric lens view similar to the 78D lens in one way and a view similar to the +90 lens the other way
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13
Q

Name any attachments or accessories for Volk lenses, and their purpose

A

Yellow retina protector glass: minimizes risk of phototoxic retinal damage due to prolonged exposure to the focused beam. Also provides patient comfort.

  • Lens holder/mount: provides stability and easier fundus observations to a novice user.
  • Lid adapter: helps to keep the lids apart during observation and also keeps the lens at the correct wd
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14
Q

What are the advantages of hand-held slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy compared to direct ophthalmoscopy?

A
  • stereoscopic view as examiner uses both eyes - easier to assess elevated areas
  • large field of view
  • can alter magnification by changing condensing lens used and less effected by the type of ametropia, astigmatism or lens or vitreous opacities.
  • increased working distance
    mechanical stability
  • less affected by presence of lens or vitreous opacities
    additional lenses can be used providing a variety of diff views of fundus w all own advantages
    contact lens fits are available w slit lamp, large mag and fov
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15
Q

What are the disadvantages of hand-held slit-lamp ophthalmoscopy compared to direct ophthalmoscopy?

A

Dilation is required, which causes near vision blur, discomfort and increases sensitivity to light and time consuming. Direct does not require dilation.

  • The slit lamp uses a brighter light source, which increases discomfort and photophobia.
  • Additional lenses increase reflections, making is more difficult to achieve a clear retinal image and no additional lenses are required for the direct method.
  • Inverted and laterally reversed image - has to be interpreted
  • More expensive.
  • Not portable.
  • Not good for people with spinal problems
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16
Q

What advantages does head-mounted BIO have over other indirect techniques?

A
  • portable
  • stereoscopic view
  • can be used on all patients and on px’s lying down
  • provides largest field of view of central and peripheral retina
    greater working distance
    can be used on all pxs unlike slit lamp methods eg kids or paralysed etc
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17
Q

What disadvantages does head-mounted BIO have over other indirect techniques?

A

difficult technique to do
hard for hijabis
- small magnification
- very small movement can distort image
bright light required= px discomfort
dilation is also needed
requires additional lenses, inverted and laterally reversed image compared to monocular indirect
can get diplopia due to bad setup

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18
Q

What is a scleral indenter, what is it used for, and which ophthalmoscopic technique would usually accompany its use?

A
  • A scleral indenter is a thimble type instrument used to indent the sclera. It applies pressure to the sclera to view the far peripheral retina.
  • This allows extreme peripheral views (i.e. ora serrata) and confirmation of holes/tears in the peripheral retina in especially px who are high myopes.
  • Best used with head-mount indirect ophthalmoscopy. One hand is used to hold condensing lens, the other hand holds the scleral indenter. While the illumination source is mounted on the head

Useful for pxs with high myopia- more likely to suffer from tears in retina
Ora serrata is the strongest point of attachment but area where tears are most likely to occur

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19
Q

When would you examine the peripheral retina under dilation?`

A

If possible signs in retinal detachment and diabetic retinopathy
- In high myopes as there is a greater risk of retinal detachment.
- Flashes and floaters
- Traumatic eye or head injury suffered by the px
- Suspected tumour in periphery (locate size, type and location)
- Monitoring fundus changes in px who have glaucoma
optic disc changes so eg raised ONH with papilloedema, disc drusen etc

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20
Q

What optic disc features would you assess during ophthalmoscopy?

A

C:D ratio, colour and contour cup
- Disc margins, well defined?
- Neural retinal rim (NRR), whether ISNT rule applies
- Disc anomalies
- Peripapillary anomalies - area surrounding ONH
- depth of cup, deeper in myopes
Presence of any normal variations- scleral, myopic crescent, pigment cresent

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21
Q

What retinal vessel features would you assess during ophthalmoscopy?

A
  • A/V ratio- relative thickness of arteries vs veins, normal is 2:3
  • nipping -underlying vein appears pinched by arterial passing over- sign of high bp
    crossing of blood vessels
  • tortuosity
    Narrowings
    dilated blood vessels
    Also the broadening of arteriolar light reflex- sign of arteriosclerosis (change in appearance of these arterioles if more light reflecting off them may be due to thickening or hardening
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22
Q

What macula features would you assess during ophthalmoscopy?

A
  • Foveal reflex (present or not- mainly in young px’s)
  • Void of blood vessels.
  • Healthy pigmentation.
  • Raised or depressed areas
    -drusen present-yellow deposits of lipids between bruch’s membrane & RPE- often associated with amd
    see if there is a flat appearance
    Look for abnormalities eg- Haemorrhages or drusen present, oedema, raised or depressed areas, exudates, abnormal pigmentation.
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23
Q

A 50 yr old, -8.00D myope attends your practice complaining of recent onset flashes of light, and a number of small black dots in her vision. What techniques would you perform, and what would you expect to find

A

High myope (-8D) is more likely to have retinal detachment.
Flashes are a sign of retinal detachment or tear.
Black dots are floaters and a sign of retinal detachment.

Diagnosis is that person is suffering from retinal detachment. Px at risk of retinal detachment and urgency is increased, could also e a pvd as px is older so also looking for weiss ring and shafers sign which would confirm rd. check va to give indication whether macula is intactc or not, perform tonometry low IOP= suspicion. Assess visual fields, anterior slit lamp assessent measure anterior chamber van herricks dilate look for shafers sign. View of peripheral fundus to check for retinal tears, holes, detachments or vitreous synersesis. Or- Head-mounted indirect ophthalmoscope would be used get a wider field of view in order to locate the detachment. If not present, then use a scleral indenter to see the extreme periphery for possible retinal detachment at the ora serrata. Expect to find rd or posterior vitreous detachment.

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24
Q

What is a Hruby lens? How does it differ from other lenses used for the same purpose?

A

non contact lens mounted on slit lamp for evaluating retina
It is a -55D plano concave lens (concave side towards patient)
- Used in conjunction with the slit lamp to provide to an erect and stereoscopic and virtual image- all other lenses provide an indirect method of viewing fundus this is a direct method
- Smaller FOV than a volk lens

  • Technique is harder to master, difficult to obtain an image of the retina in the presence of media opacities, high px cooperation is needed with this technique.
    affecred by media opacities, poor px fixation and has problems with glare
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25
Q

During direct ophthalmoscope, how do you determine if a media opacity is anterior, posterior, or at the plane of the pupil?

A

Have patient look slightly up or down…

-Anterior location: Patient looks up and opacity moves in the same direction as your opthalmoscope. Opacity is on cornea or anterior chamber. Opacity is closer to the light source than the pupil (closer in ret it goes with so same direction)

-Posterior location: Patient looks up and opacity moves the opposite direction to your movements with the opthalmoscope. within the red-reflex. Opacity is on posterior crystalline lens or vitreous. opacity is located behind pupil relative to light source so shadow moves in opp direction. (back w ret it gives u against)

-Plane location: Patient looks up and opacity remains stationary- If the opacity doesn’t seem to move much or at all when you move the ophthalmoscope, it may be at the plane of the pupil. This means the opacity is located at the same level as the pupil, so it do

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26
Q

Describe Van Herick’s grading system

A

van herricks grading system involves comparing the ratio of the corneal thickness to the openness of the angle. Assesses anterior chamber angle width. The grading system consists of numerical values from 0-4 which corresponds to a closed angle to a very open angle respectively. Qualitative form of measurement as you get a value. Grades angle between cornea and the iris.

Grade 4: the ratio of aqueous to cornea is 1: 1 OPEN
Grade 3: the ratio of aqueous to cornea is 1: 0.5 OPEN
Grade 2: the ratio of aqueous to cornea is 1: 0.25 NARROW (should be viewed by gonioscopy)
Grade 1: the ratio of aqueous to cornea is smaller than 1: <0.25 VERY NARROW (likely to close)
closed ratio= 0 angle: closed

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27
Q

What are the common ways of assessing anterior chamber depth?
5 points

A

Van Herick’s technique using slit lamp = compare thickness of anterior chamber to thickness of cornea. Gold standard. Subjective. Doesnt allow direct viewing

  • Smith method using the slit lamp = horizontal beam and alter width until two just touch- numerical value quantative can actually compare the numbers.
  • Penlight (pen torch) method = more shadow means more closed angle. nice open angle should see no shadow. qualitative, not the gold standard.
  • Ultrasound using A-scan method = see peak for anterior cornea and posterior lens. not commonly performed.
  • Gonioscopy = use goniolens/contact lens, need anaesthetics. need trained.
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28
Q

What is the pen-torch shadow or eclipse technique? How is it performed?

A

Does not allow direct viewing

Pen-torch shadow is a simple, gross technique.
- Shine pen-torch temporal to patient’s eye (viewing the shadow and its size).
- Larger shadow = smaller angle = closed anterior chamber angle = bad.
- Smaller shadow = larger angle = open anterior chamber angle = good.

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29
Q

What is Smith’s method? What is it used for? How is it performed?
7 points

A

It is a slit lamp procedure to estimate the depth of the anterior chamber = quantitive

  • Use: This technique may elicit the first clinical sign of narrow angle or acute angle closure glaucoma in the symptomatic patient who presents acutely - can get actual measurement of anterior chamber depth. Doesnt allow direct viewing. less than 2mm is at risk of occlusion
  • Illumination placed 60° temporally, observation straight ahead.
  • View through right eyepiece for right eye (visa versa).
  • Slit beam is 1-2 mm thick and horizontally positioned and focused on the cornea.
  • Adjust slit beam so the two slits are just touching.
  • Read measurement and multiply by 1.4 constant to get Anterior chamber depth (mm).

less than 2mm is at risk of occlusion

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30
Q

What is Gonioscopy? What equipment is required? Briefly describe how is it performed?

A

This is a technique that allows for accurate evaluation of the anterior chamber angle and detailed inspection of the structures within the anterior segment of the eye.
Gonioscopy allows direct viewing

Equipment required are slit lamp, goniolens (Goldmann 3 mirror), viscous coupling solution (fills gap btnw lens and cornea), and ocular lubricant e.g. viscotears for relief for dry eye and anaesthetic eg proxymetacaine/ benoxinate.

Procedure:
1. Add anesthetic drops to both eyes. (2 drops of benoxinate 0.4% and if allergic to this then use proxymetacaine 0.5%)
2. Align slit lamp in coaxial position.
Start at 10x magnification and increase when needed. Use low or medium light intensity.
3. Dim room lights.
4. Slit beam should be parallel piped (1-3 mm) and short so it doesn’t shine into and constrict pupil.
5. Place gonioscope square on patient’s eye (more comfortable for patient).
6. View superior and inferior sides with vertical slit beam.
7. View nasal and temporal sides with horizontal slit beam.
8. If Corneal-type lens then remove by releasing from contact with cornea. No pressure required.
9. If Scleral-type lens then tell patient to look at nose and blink. Do not pull lens off the eye.
10. Afterwards, examine corneal surface for any epithelial damage. staining
grading system = Kolker and Hetherington - 0= closed and 4=open but better to say which structures can be seen.

corneal type lens- These lenses are smaller and designed to rest directly on the cornea, the clear outer layer of the eye. Since corneal lenses rest directly on the cornea, a viscous coupling solution may be used to facilitate their insertion and improve comfort. This solution helps to lubricate the lens and the ocular surface, making it easier to place the lens on the eye.

Scleral lenses are larger and vault over the cornea, resting on the sclera, the white outer layer of the eye. They do not directly touch the cornea but instead create a fluid-filled vault between the lens and the cornea. Similarly, a viscous coupling solution may also be used for scleral lenses to facilitate insertion and improve comfort. However, since scleral lenses do not directly touch the cornea, the use of the solution may vary depending on individual preferences

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31
Q

A 60 yr old, +8D hyperopic lady attends your practice. She is complaining of pain around her eyes, blurred vision, haloes around lights and feeling nauseous. What test would you conduct, and what would you expect to find? 5 points

A

Hyperopes are at an increased risk of chronic glaucoma. These symptoms are very closely related to patient who suffers from closed angle glaucoma.

check the va (decrease in va likely)

-Check anterior chamber angle using Van Herrick’s. use slit lamp anterior examination.
provides clear 2d images used to grade anterior chamber angle to evaluate risk of glaucoma or acute angle closure. if narrow angle found px must be referred as sign of closed angle glaucoma. If suffering from glaucoma expect to find grade 2 or less.
or can do goniscopy/ smiths method.

  • Check IOP with Tonometer: Goldmann is most accurate IOP above 21mmHg can indicate closed angle glaucoma or if difference of 5mmHg between both eyes, then we should be concerned
  • Check ONH with Ophthalmoscopy: = increased cupping and an abnormal neuro-retinal rim (ex. not well-defined or decreased in size) plus increased CD ratio. for glaucoma. a fundoscopic examination can help rule out any concurrent posterior segment pathology, especially if there are additional visual disturbances or if the symptoms persist despite treatment.
  • Check Visual field: can also be used to indicate any arcuate or nasal step scotomas which are again a sign of the presence of glaucoma.
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32
Q

What are the symptoms of a closed angle?
6 points

A
  • Haloes
  • Eye pain and pain within orbit
  • Headaches
  • Nausea
  • Blurred vision
  • red eye
    decreased va
    photophobia
    pain in dim light conditions
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33
Q

Look at these mires. Describe what they show and what you would change to get the correct reading.

A

Image 1 = mires far apart
This shows that the mires are not aligned and there is not enough applanation induced on the eye. Therefore, one would increase the contact pressure to align the mires

  • Image 2 = This shows that the mires are aligned and the IOP reading is accurate. No other actions need to be taken. perfect inner corners
  • Image 3 - This shows that the mires are not aligned and that there is an increase of applanation induced on the eye. A decrease in pressure is required to bring the mires into alignment.
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34
Q

Outline the difference in the mechanism for the way in which the Pulsair and American Optical NCT measure pressure

A

both non contact

Pulsair applies air pressure to the eye and measures the point at which the cornea flattens. This method results in a decrease in corneal curvature until it is flattened.
It employs a transducer to measure the air pressure required to flatten the cornea.

AO NCT also applies air pressure to the eye but measures the time taken for applanation (the moment when the cornea’s curvature is neutralized).
It indirectly measures pressure by recording the time taken to achieve applanation.

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35
Q

Describe the benefits of the Goldmann tonometer in comparison to the Perkins tonometer
4 points

A

As the Goldmann uses the slit-lamp and is mounted, it is more stable than the handheld Perkins.
- The Goldmann has higher magnification levels to view the mires with the slit lamp, whilst 3the Perkins has fixed/non-adjustable low magnification built in.
- You can efficiently examine the cornea before and after with the slit-lamp in Goldmann tonometry, as opposed to the Perkins. time efficient.
- lamps of the Perkins tonometer become very hot, so the tonometer must not be kept on between measurements. However, the slit lamp does not have to be turned off between measurements
goldmann is the gold standard

perkins has batteries goldmann doesnt need batteries

36
Q

What factors maintain normal IOP?

A

Rate of formation of aqueous humour
- Rate of drainage through trabecular meshwork.
- Pressure of episcleral veins = if too high aqueous doesn’t flow as readily = increased IOP

37
Q

Describe how the Imbert-Fick Law relates to the principle of contact applanation tonometry

A

When a weight is applied to applanate an area of a perfectly spherical container with an infinitely thin elastic and flexible membrane then the pressure inside of the container is equal to the weight divided by the area

utilised by tonometry and even though eye doesn’t satisfy all criteria e.g. not perfectly spherical and cornea not infinitely thin, it still applies if have a fixed diameter of 3.06mm as surface tension cancels out corneal rigidity (equal and opposite) so law still applies

intraocular pressure= contact force/ area of contact

38
Q

Describe some of the sources of error in applanation tonometry

A
  • lack of callibration
  • incorrect allignment -
    quantity of tears or amount of fluorescien = increase width of semi circles
  • probe not clean = may alter attraction of probe to tear film, if excess fluoroscien on probe
  • lids touching probe = need to be separated by fingers but need to make sure not applying pressure on globe = artificially increase IOP
  • high astigmatism = oval myers (rotate prisms)
  • repeated measures squash out aqueous = reduce IOP by 2-4mmHg
39
Q

briefly describe the way in which an AO NCT tonometer works

A

American Optical non contact tonometer

  • solenoid used to pump air towards cornea to applanate it
  • LED and photoreceptor diodes maximally stimulated when cornea applanated to diameter of 3.6mm
  • time at which applanation occurs gives indirect measurement of force needed to get that applanation
  • force needed is converted into IOP
40
Q

Describe the known theories for the mechanism by which raised IOP can cause glaucoma- (can damage optic nerve leading to loss of vision)

A
  • Mechanical Theory: raised IOP puts pressure on the optic nerve. Therefore, compression causes damage as it disturbs the metabolism eventually leading to cell death.
  • Vascular Theory: decrease in blood flow in scleral lamina cribrosa damages optic nerve. Decrease in oxygen causes cell death/damage
41
Q

Describe why corneal thickness is now considered a necessary measurement when monitoring IOP

A
  • Thicker cornea needs increased force to be applanated = increase in applanation measurement = can be mistaken for glaucoma, even if it is not present = overestimate IOP
  • Thinner cornea needs less force to be applanated = low applanation measurement and may cause glaucoma (if present) to go undetected = underestimate IOP
42
Q

Outline some disadvantages of NCT compared to contact tonometry

A

NCT = snapshot reading therefore need to repeat many times while Goldmann/Perkins are continuous reading

  • partial lid closure = harder to detect in NCT so eyelashes may alter readings
  • may overestimate IOP is px is anxious/anticipating puff
  • variable results with astigmatic px’s
  • high velocity dust particles can become embedded into patient’s cornea with NCT
  • NCTs overestimate for high IOPs and underestimate for low IOPs
    Goldmann is the gold standard universally
    Some instruments bulky cumbersome, if not calibrated properly inaccurate results, variation
43
Q

A patient has pressures of R: 18 mmHg and L: 26 mmHg, full fields and normal optic discs.
If there are no other signs or symptoms, what would be the correct course of action?

A

repeat the IOP measurements to make sure that they are accurate using Goldmann tonometry (gold standard) and monitor IOP to see if these levels are sustained

  • 8 mm difference between the two eyes suggesting ocular hypertension
  • Ocular hypertension: refers to any situation in which the pressure in one or both eyes is greater than normal (normal range is 10 - 21 mmHg). In ocular hypertension, the optic nerve appears normal, no signs of glaucoma are evident on visual field testing, and no signs of ocular disease are present
  • Individuals with ocular hypertension are considered to be at risk of closed angle glaucoma so assess drainage angle using gonioscopy and observed px closely for the onset of glaucoma
  • possibly look to referring to minimise risk of glaucoma onset/ loss in visual fields etc- Normal values are between 10-21 and shouldn’t have more than 5mmHg difference between both eyes so in this case referral should be necessary- indicative of ocular hypertension.
44
Q

Which patients should have tonometry performed on them?

A

Patients over the age of 35 yrs who are at high risk of glaucoma.
- Patients who have family history of glaucoma.
- Suspicious optic nerve appearance (optic disc cupping).
- Glaucoma pt. (monitoring their IOP)
- Px with hypertension
- before and after px’s are dilated

45
Q

On a 55 year old patient who is mobile and has normal fundi and fields, what would be your tonometer of choice and why?

A

Goldmann because it is the Gold standard, and measurements are repeatable

  • if not able to fit into normal routine examination due to time constraints, as px has no symptoms measure IOP using NCT methods, via optical assistant to get rough idea and see whether further investigations are necessary
46
Q

In a patient with normal fundi and fields what would be considered an abnormally high pressure?

A

anything greater than 21mmHg or difference between two eyes to be greater then 5mmHg

47
Q

What is the area applanated by a Goldmann tonometer probe and how does this relate to the measurement of IOP mathematically?

A

goldmann applanates an area of 7.35mm^2 with a diameter of 3.06mm if the mires are correctly aligned which is mathematically related to IOP by IOP=W/A= weight/ area

assume that surface tension is equal and opposite to corneal rigidity so they both cancel out which means imbert fick law applies as pressure is equal to the weight divided by the area.

at this point there is a linear relationship between the iop and force required to applanate the cornea, so what we can do is

iop= force (g) times 10. so to get iop just do force times 10

48
Q

What are the advantages of using the Keeler acuity cards to assess distance vision in children?

A

testing distance 3m- still within range to find best sphere for px- good for small practice +no mirror required less confusion

VA can be noted as modified LogMAR or snellen

There are single optotypes (uncrowded) versions available suitable for younger children, and multiple optotypes to help diagnose strabismus or amblyopia. +pics

Portable, low cost good for domiciliary purposes

49
Q

A patient has a binocular visual acuity of 6/5. Can you explain what the numbers 6 and 5 mean in this notation?

A

6 = (d) is the testing distance
5 = (D) is the distance at which each letter subtends 5 minutes of arc and each limb subtends 1 minute of arc at 5 meters away

50
Q

A mother brings her 15 month old child for his first sight test. Which do you think would be the most appropriate test to use to assess the child’s vision? Briefly explain the principles of the test and how you would conduct it.

A

cardiff acuity cards best choice, designed to measure va in toddlers 1-3 years of age.

Test uses principle of preferential looking so child looks a target rather than a plain stimulus.
Examiner holds card 1m or 50cm in front of child and examiner judges where child is looking, if correct finer line targets are shown. If incorrect target is beyond childs acuity. Can measure up to 6/12

51
Q

The Faculty of Ophthalmologist’s booklet is one of the most commonly used near acuity charts. What are its advantages (7) and disadvantages (3)?

A

Advantages:
-It can test acuity from N5 to N48 = large range is tested, therefore it account for all types of patients ranging from very poor to high visual acuity
- They also have a page representing day to day near vision objects such as musical notes, technical drawings and classified ads = allows acuity to be tested using real life objects.
- It allows an estimation of near acuity at the preferred working distance, the examiner can also represent the range of clear vision using this booklet.
- Reading speed can be used to indicate macular disease.
- Portable
- Inexpensive
- Tests monocular and binocular

Disadvantages
- Pathology can be missed. For example if a patient has N3 reading acuity at 35cm, this will be recorded as N5 at 35cm. if the patient later presents with a retinal disease which reduced acuity to N5 at 35cm , the examiner would be unaware of this clinical significant. The main reason why pathology is missed because this booklet only test till N5, the threshold is not determined.
- This test does not measure near visual acuity, it is only a reading acuity chart.
- It has been criticized for not stimulating a real world task, because of the high contrast between the letters and there background
need good local illumination otherwise task difficulty is increased

52
Q

Describe the difference between the Bailey-Lovie near card and the Faculty of Ophthalmologist’s near booklet

A

Bailey-Lovie near cards Faculty of Ophthalmologist’s near booklet
N2 to N80 N5 to N48
Better assessment due to N range Limited assessment due to N range with bailey

Bailey lovie uses logMAR (so systematic spacing, size of letters, same amount of letters per row, no crowding, visual demand constant down chart) and N. Faculty of oph- only N
Bailey lovie uses words rather than sentences like faculty
Bailey lovie has letters on both sides to avoid learning effect
Faculty of Ophthalmologist’s usually has a page with music, classified ads and technical drawings (real life scenario); Bailey-Lovie does not offer this

53
Q

What is meant by the ‘crowding effect’, and how may it affect your assessment of a patient’s acuity

A

crowding occurs when a target letter become harder to recognise due to being surrounded by other letters

problem of Snellen charts because number of letters increases as you go down the chart so may underestimate VA as inability to read smaller letters may not be due to inability to discern the letters but due to the crowding affect = task difficulty increases down the chart

54
Q

What are the advantages(2) and disadvantages(5) of the standard Snellen chart in assessing vision?

A

advantages
- quick and easy to use for both patient and examiner.
- familiar
- does the job
correlates well with pxs subjective description

disadvantages
Letters on lower line are more crowded on bottom than on top= harder to make out
Snellen chart is high contrast but the real world is not high contrast
Mirror used confuses children
Cant use it on pxs that cant read english
Endpoint may spread over many lines= hard to convey results as no agreed standards
Only one 6/60 letter which means that pxs with lower vas are required to read less letters

55
Q

Although less commonly used in practice, the Bailey-Lovie distance chart overcomes several of the design flaws of the Snellen chart. Explain the advantages of using Bailey-Lovie

A
  • 5 letters on each line and inter-letter spacing on each line is equal to the letter width + inter-row spacing is equal to the letter height so spacing is equal.

progression in 0.1 LogMAR intervals, uniform progression of letters, constant ratio
The results are noted in a LogMar score (6/6 = 0 logMar).The final score takes into account every letter that was read correctly.
Has emerged as the test of choice in research (statistical analysis is possible) as is beginning to be adopted in optometric practice

56
Q

Describe how the scoring system works in the Bailey-Lovie distance visual acuity chart

A

Each letter= 0.02 logMAR units
Each 5 letter row is 0.1 loMAR unit so a row= number of letters times 0.02
Tests letters which subtend less than 1 minute of arc providing negative logMAR values

57
Q

What are the disadvantages of using the Kay picture test to assess vision in children?

A

tested at 6 meters = difficult as does not work well with the mirror method, need a big room
- debate over whether the pictures relate to the Snellen notation = may not be a true representation.
- It can be difficult to navigate the booklet in testing situations.
- Some children have poor fixation ability, and lose concentration quickly; this can be assumed to be due to poor VA.

58
Q

What are the advantages (1) and disadvantages(2) of Maclure reading book to assess near acuity in children?

A

Advantages- Relates text to age of child, text varies in terms of length of words+ lines and difficulty, and uses N notation
The reading material has been specially designed to target different age groups of children. There are different texts available for different age groups. The words and sentences vary in length, so task difficult can be increased depending on the age of the patient.

Disadvantages- Text does not take into account reading disabilities (dyslexia).
Age of child is not always correlated with intellectual standard
Some passages may not be ‘PC’(politically correct)

59
Q

What is monochromatism? Describe the characteristics of the two different forms

A

when no cones are functioning or one cone type is functioning = 2 different forms:so basically only have rods, can only perceive brightness variation and not colour

Cone Monochromat: One cone type functioning plus rods, reduced va
Rod Monochromat: Rods functioning only, poor va

60
Q

Briefly explain the inheritance of colour vision defects, giving an indication of prevalence

A

8% males (1 in 12) have congenital colour vision defects.
0.5% females (1 in 250) have congenital colour vision defects.
Most common is deuteranomaly 5% of all males but only 0.35% in women

Mothers are normally carriers, recessive x linked chromosome trait so men only one x= likely
Pro, deut, trit- red, green, blue. Short, medium, long wavelength cones

61
Q

Describe the differences between acquired (3) and inherited (6) colour vision defects

A

Inherited- cv defects caused by recessive x linked chromosome trait

Can be monochromacy, dichromacy and anomalous trichromacy. Normally binocular, non progressive and symmetrical present from birth or develop really early in life, normally affects red green perception so protan/deutan. Va is unaffected except in monochromatics+ fields normal.

Acquired- secondary feature to pathology eg optic neuropathy and cataracts, ocular/ systemic
Certain drugs may produce CV defects eg chloroquine – malaria
Normally affects blue perception so tritan
Happens to either males or females, normally monocular so affect one eye
Type and severity fluctuates
Va is normally reduced and have visual field defects

62
Q

In practice, on which patients would you perform colour vision testing and why?

A

if CV = important for career -e.g. electricians, police, pilots etc.
- all first time male patients esp young boys as may be unaware of defect and make parents and teacher aware of the defect, particularly in about 4 year olds, patient awareness as no cure
If examiner suspects optic nerve lesion, quick and easy test- colour red would be affected

63
Q

Describe how the Ishihara test is conducted

A

screening test (pass/fail). screening plate = used to detect defect. 24/38 screening plates
classification plate = used to indicate type of defect
transformation plates - normal sees one number while abnornmal sees another number
vanishing plates - normal sees a number but abnormal doesnt
appearing or hidden digit - only seen by colour defective

Does not test severity of CV defect just type, Does not detect Tritan deficiency.
viewing time = maximum 4 seconds per plate
viewing distance = 75cm
hold it at tilt= right angles to pxs line of vision, plates at back for px that cant read numbers
illumination = need atleast 250 lux - daylight is best but if not available fluorescent is acceptable but tungsten light not to be used - red bias
24 or 38 screening plate versions are used.
If screening plates are failed, then classification plates are shown to detect type of defect

64
Q

Potential police recruits who fail the Ishihara test are additionally tested with the City University colour vision test (1st or 2nd). Explain why you think this is?
2 points

A
  • Ishihara cannot test for tritanopia but City University test can.
  • severity of any colour vision defect can be graded by a score out of 10 using the city university test where as with the ishihara test it is either a pass or fail = may result in people with slight defects to still be allowed to work for the police force, police must have a standard cutoff.
65
Q

Describe what the CIE chromaticity diagram is, and what is meant by the term ‘confused lines’.

A

Two dimensional representation of colour space with spectral colours arranged along the arc of the perimeter of the diagram, used to create colour vision tests.
- confused lines = relates to fact that people with colour vision defects confuse different colours, confuse colours along a certain orientation and from this we can identify the type of defect they have so allows for differentiation. The orientation of these lines differ.

  • protans confuse red-purple with grey
  • deutrans confuse blue-purple with grey
  • tritans confuse yellows with blues and greys
  • used to design pseudoisochromatic colour vision tests = e.g. Ishihara so these results can be plotted on a vie chromaticity diagram to detect their defect so if they pass they arent confusing any lines but if they fail it they confuse lines that plot along certain confusion lines. Can also get severity.
66
Q

Describe the D15 colour test and how it is performed

A

arrangement test with 50cm viewing distance
15 coloured caps to be placed in sequence by the patient after the clinician positions the pilot cap first
- order of caps is revealed by numbers on reverse side = plot patients sequence on graph and should make a circle - more traverses across the circle the greater the severity of the colour vision defect

  • classify protan, deutan and tritan defects and grade the severity of the defect
    Aim = to divide patients into two groups:
  • normal or slight colour defect
  • moderate or severe colour defect
    = allows people with slight defects to work with colours when safety is not an issue as its sensitive
67
Q

What are the similarities and differences between deuteranopia and deuteranomalous trichromatism?

A

Similarities:
- Both are colour vision defects.
- Both medium wavelength pigment
Differences:
- in deuteranopia the M cone pigment is missing
- in deutranomolous trichromatism the M cone pigment is abnormal
-‘anomaly’ occurs more frequent in men than ‘opia’
anomaly confuses colours over a range

68
Q

What are the advantages of using the Waggoner HRR test to screen for colour vision defects?
6 points

A

It can detect all three types of colour defects
- estimates severity of defective colour vision
- Can be used on all age groups (pediatric to geriatric)
- time efficient = 7 plates used for screen - essential in a busy high street practice.
- Small working distance (24-30 inches), which is suitable for a small practice
- Portable
can change sequence of order of plates to avoid learning effect

69
Q

What is meant by the terms ‘sensitivity’ and ‘specificity’ when applied to screening tests?

A

Sensitivity = tests ability to detect slight defects i.e. scoring whether a Px has passed or failed a test is not as good as being able to grade the severity of a defect.- identify the disease on those who have it

Specificity = ability of the test to distinguish one defect type from another i.e. how specific the test is in telling apart two similar defects- ability to idenitfy the type of abnormality

70
Q

Briefly describe the 100 Hue test. Why do you think it is so rarely used in high street optometric practice?

A

Mainly used in hospitals
- Comprises of 85 coloured buttons as 100 hue is too difficult
- Arrange in a linear sequence between pairs of fixed reference caps. Results are plotted onto a polar diagram, each defect produce a different axis of confusion
- Results are obtained as a score and also in the form of a polar diagram
- Confusion lines relate to the type of defect
- It is rarely used in high street practice because it takes time to conduct and to analyse the results as confusion lines may overlap
- also not suitable for all px’s (kids etc). Time is money in a practice
vert specific and sensitive

71
Q

The Amsler chart book consists of 7 charts for evaluating central vision, although chart 1 - white gridlines on black background is mainly used. Can you describe some of the other charts and their recommended uses?

A

Chart 2- white gridlines with two diagonal lines on black background with central whtie spot. Diagonal lines help pxs fixate on central white spot so this maintains central fixation.

Chart 3- red gridlines on black background with central red spot, if unable to see red gridlines can be an indication of optic nerve damage. 70 percent of fibres in optic nerve are macula fibres and these macula fibres are most sensitive to red so if cant see them… damage. Or used if colour scotoma.

Chart 4- scattered white dots with central white spot, appears no more sensitive than chart 1 for scotomas and cannot detect metamorphopsia. Used to distinguish between the two. So this reveals presence and position of scotomas.

Chart 5- white parallel lines horizontally with central white spot. Horizontal lines, chart can be rotated to change orientation of the lines and used to detect metamorphopsia.

Chart 6- white parallel lines horizontally but closer together with central white spot, metamorphopsia along the reading level may be more easily observed

Chart 7- white gridlines with smaller gridlines in centre. Black background with central white spot. Similar to chart 1 but smaller gridlines are used to detect subtle macular disease.

72
Q

Describe when you would consider using Amsler chart test in routine practice

A

to determine quality of central vision
- May be used as gross indication in the absence of expensive machinery i.e. domicillary
- If we suspect metamorphopsia.
- If patient has optic nerve damage
- If patient has visual field defects.
- If patient has macular disease (macula oedema or AMD)

73
Q

Explain how you would perform an Amsler grid test on a presbyopic patient

A

Working distance of 30cm, refractive correction in place, ask them to look at spot in middle
Ask px= do they see spot in centre, do they see all corners and sides of the big square
Do they see horizontal lines, vertical lines
Are they straight, Are the little squares regular and equal and size
Are any lines moving or vibrating
If any problem reported- how many little squares do you see between the blur/ distortion and the central spot- to see how far away it is from central macula- fovea.

74
Q

Explain on which groups of patients you would consider testing contrast sensitivity

A

patients with ocular disease especially cataracts.
Patients with AMD
Patients with bi-focals, progressives and IOL’s.

Contrast sensitivity testing is useful in:
Management of Pxs with ocular disease
Corneal
* Refractive Surgery
* Keratoconus
* Corneal dystrophy
* Corneal odema
Crystalline lens
* Cataract
* Pseudophakic patients
Retina and beyond
* Glaucoma
* Ocular hypertension
* Optic neuritis
* Multiple sclerosis
* Papillodema
* Amblyopic patients
* Age-related macular degeneration

All of the above groups are affected by CSF. For example, with cataract and post refractive surgery, CSF peaks are reduced considerably.

75
Q

Describe the scoring system that is used in the Pelli-Robson contrast sensitivity test.

A

each letter is given a score of 0.05 units = letter by letter scoring
- each three letter grouping is 0.15 units except the 1st grouping
- 1st three letters should be read easily so not to be counted in the scoring. If not stop test
Elliot method- system allows confusion between C=O=D score it as right

1.65 or above= normal

76
Q

The Pelli-Robson score sheet recommends that for fluent reading, a minimum contrast reserve of 10:1 is necessary. What does this mean?

A

‘10:1’ means the contrast of the letter has to be 10 times more than the threshold of the reader, for fluent reading

So px requires reading material of a contrast that is 10 times their contrast threshold

77
Q

Describe the key differences between the Pelli-Robson and the VCTS/Vistech contrast sensitivity tests

A

Vistech uses sine-wave gratings while Pelli-Robson uses letters to determine contrast.
Vistech uses circular grating patches and pelli robson uses letters
Vistech tests spatial frequencies while Pelli-Robson does not.
Vistech has 4 AFC and Pelli-Robson has 10 AFC.
-Vistech has five rows and Pelli-Robson has eight rows
Vistech is available in distance and near format, pelli robson is a distance chart
Vistech- each patch has different contrast and sf= pelli robson uses triplets w same contrast and all the letters have different spatial frequencies

78
Q

What are the similarities (4) and differences (3) between ‘confrontation’ and ‘peripheral fields’ test?

A

Similarities:
- both = speedy/gross assessment of the patient central visual field
- each eye is tested separately = occlude other eye while fixate on examiners other eye
- both techniques use a 5mm white ball at the end of a black stick or a 15mm red ball on the end of a black stick.
- target is moves from a non-seen to seen = patient is told to report when the target first appears and when the target later disappears.
For both the target is moved in the same 8 directions

Differences:
Different working distances- 25cm for confrontation and 33cm for periphery fields test
- confrontation = target moved in flat plane between examiner and subject (66cm to 1m from the patient). Periphery = target moved in arc about 33 cm from the eye being tested.
- confrontation = examiner compares his/her field with that of the patients but doesn’t in peripheral tests
- peripheral = easier to move target in arc as not limited by shorter arms

79
Q

What are the disadvantages of gross perimetry to assess a subject’s visual field?

A

test is not repeatable due to examiner personality (speed of test, height)
- cannot use gross perimetry to monitor visual field defects over time
- confrontation = hard to keep constant working/testing distance
- gross test = can only pick up large defects such as hemianopias, small/shallow defects are likely to be missed
background can vary slightly

80
Q

draw the visual pathway

A

retina
optic nerve
optic chiasm
optic tract
lateral geniculate nucleus
optic radiations
striate cortex

81
Q

80-100- be able to identify the resultant visual field loss caused by a variety of visual pathway defects

A

learn these
It requires knowledge of how various structures in the eye and brain contribute to the visual field and how damage to these structures can result in specific patterns of visual field loss.

For example, you might be asked to identify the visual field defects associated with optic nerve damage, optic chiasm lesions, or lesions in specific areas of the visual cortex.

82
Q

101-120-
Be able to predict the most likely cause and site of a visual field loss from the
resultant visual field plots.

A

Now will show us visual field plots and will ask us to identify the cause so eg optic chiasm lesion or lesion here etc.

83
Q

draw the retinal nerve fibre distribution

A

arc around retina and do not pass horizontal raphe

84
Q

122- 142 Be able to identify a range of pathological and fundus abnormalities

A

The fundus pictures. on document

85
Q

Describe the electroretinogram ERG test. Why is it used and how are the results interpreted?

A

Diagnostic procedure used to evaluate the function of the retina and to detect abnormalities. This test measures the electrical responses generated by the retina in response to light stimulation.

Pxs eyes are dilated, small electrodes are placed on the surface of the cornea and skin around the eye to record electrical signals generated by the retina in response to light stimuli. Px is exposed to flashes of light varying in intensities and wavelengths and these flashes stimulate different parts of the retina eliciting electrical responses that are recorded by the electrodes. Measures an electrical action potential recorded at or near the cornea when the retinal cells (middle and outer layers) are activated electrically by a flash of light. The electrical responses are amplified and displayed on a computer monitor as waveforms. The ERG results are interpreted by analysing the characteristics of the recorded waveforms. Key components- a wave, b wave and oscillatory potentials.

Interpretation: -
A-wave measures presynaptic retinal activity- negative a wave, initial hyperpolarisation of the photoreceptors with light the cells become more resistant to ion flow therefore making the cells more negative. Reflects response of photoreceptor cells to light stimuli.
B-wave measures postsynaptic retinal activity. –depolarising elements of bipolar neurons contribute to positive inflection. Reflects activity of bipolar cells in the retina.
Oscillatory potentials- high frequency oscillations superimposed on the b wave which provides info about function of inner retinal neurons.

The ERG results are analysed in comparison to normal values and patterns associated w various retinal disorders. Both waves are represented in a ratio format as: ‘b-wave:a-wave’ which compares the pre synaptic retinal activity with the post synaptic retinal activity
B-wave is 2x the size of a-wave at the highest intensity in a healthy patient. - Wave ratio reduction may be caused by drugs and or retinal vascular disease.
normal pxs have a 2:1 ratio at the highest intensity but can vary depending on factors like age etc

It is used for: - Retinal Pigmentosa (a-wave abnormality). - Optic Atropathy (b-wave abnormality). - Vascular Disorders (b-wave abnormality). Retinal dystrophies (b-wave abnormality)

86
Q

describe the electro-oculogram test (EOG). Why is it used and how are the results interpreted?

A

Used to assess function of the rpe and the overall health of the outer layers of the retina. Unlike the ERG which measures electrical responses generated by retinal cells to light stimuli, the eog measures the resting potential between the cornea and the retina. Specifically, records the potential difference between the posterior pole of the eye and the cornea so between the front and back of the eye particularly during eye movements.

Pxs eyes may be dilated, px positioned in dark room, small electrodes placed on skin around eyes to record electrical signals. Measures resting potential of the eye in darkness. Electrodes record the voltage between the cornea and the retina while the pxs eyes are in a resting state. Resting potential reflects the activity of the rpe which is crucial for maintaining health and function of the retina.
The test records the slow, large change in the ocular resting potential which occurs as the retina passes from the light adapted to the dark adapted state.

The EOG results are interpreted by analysing the amplitude and duration of the recorded waveform. Key compoennts of it includes the light peak (arden ratio) and the dark trough. Anomalies eg reduced light peak amplitude or abnormal arden ratio may indicate dysfunction or patholog ywithin the rpe.

It is used for: - Retinal Pigmentosa. - Diffuse RPE disease. - Stargardt’s disease (macular disorder). Interpretation: The ratio of the amplitude of the light peak divided by dark trough amplitude or baseline voltage during darkness gives youa numerical value. Normal= greater than 1.8. values below this threshold-> dysfunction or pathology within rpe.
best disease, central serous chrotioretinopathy, certain forms of retinitis pigmentosa

ardex index= light peak amplitude/ dark trough amplitude

87
Q

describe the Visual Evoked Potential (VEP) test. why is it used and how are the results interpreted?

A

This is a diagnostic procedure used to assess the function of the visual pathway from the eyes to the visual cortex in the brain. It measures the electrical activity generated in response to visual stimuli providing information about the integrity and efficiency of visual processing.

Used as a measure of retino-cortical conduction. This records the mass response of the cortical and sub-cortical visual areas. The signal is recorded between the electrode over the visual cortex and a reference electrode over the non-visual part of the brain.

So px seated in dimly lit room and electrodes placed on scalp and px presented with visual stimuli eg flashing lights, the electrodes on the scalp detect the elctrical responses generated y the visual cortex and the responses are amplified and recorded by an EEG machine.

The vep results are interpreted by analysing recorded waveform. Abnormalities in the latency (time taken for peaks to appear) or amplitude (height of peaks) of the vep waveform may indicate dysfunction or pathology along the visual pathways. For eg- delays in the p100 peak latency may suggest optic neve or visual pathway disorders while reductions in peak amplitude may indicate conditions affecting visual processing efficiency. : Delayed VEP response suggests problem - something is causing a slowing of signals from the eye to the visual cortex Displayed as an

ATTENUATED VEP response—»Cortical impairment - Albinism - Optic atrophy - Optic neuropathy - Multiple sclerosis, amblyopia, optic neuritis.
Useful to asses infant vision and those who can’t fixate well. Interpretation

Two types-
Flash VEP (fVEP) - The stimulus consists of a strobe light flashed once per second with an intensity of around 2 candelas per meter squared. The flash stimulus should subtend the visual field by at least 20 degrees.
Pattern VEP (PVEP) - Stimulus consists of a black and white flashing or reversing chequerboard.

Both types of VEP tests can be used for- Assessing the function of the visual pathway from the eyes to the visual cortex in the brain. Diagnosing and monitoring various visual disorders, including optic neuritis, multiple sclerosis, amblyopia, optic nerve disorders, and other neurological conditions affecting the visual pathway.