Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step3 > Vitals > Flashcards

Vitals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the adverse affects of Daptomycin, linezolid and imipenem

A

dapto myopathy linezolid low platelets and imipennem is sezures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the erysipelas found

A

Face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can ericipules cause rheumatic fever

A

No. It causes glomerulonephritis similar to pharyngitis but only pharyngitis causes emetic fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three signs of disseminated gonorrhea

A

Joint inflammation rash and Tendonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is acyclovir safe in pregnancyis💉🌡👶🏻

A

Yes. Give at 36 weeks and if there are lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does WBC, leuk esterase and nitrates mean?

A

WBC and leuk esterase means bacteria is present. Nitrate means it’s gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What mess can be used as acute and prophylaxis for malaria

A

Mefloquine

Atovaquone/proguanil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the initial therapy for angioedema?

A

Ecallantide which blocks bradykinin and kallikrein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the single most effective treatment for allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the risk factors for ischemic heart disease?

A

DM, HTN, cigarette, HTL, PAD, obesity, inactivity, family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which meds are given before angioplasty.

A

Prasugrel, clopidogrel and ticagrelor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do you do when there is contraindication to thrombolytics to lower mortality?

A

Angioplasty or PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do you give if patient is allergic to aspirin or undergoes angioplasty and stenting or is having an acute MI?

A

Clopidogrel or ticagrelor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is prasugrel not used?

A

Because it increases bleeding for age >75 or wt <60kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is thrombolytics used?

A

ST elevation or LBBB w/in 12 hrs of CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What lab abnormality will be caused by ACE and ARBs

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which meds lower mortality in CHF?

A

Ace/arb, Beta blocker and spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is biventricular pacemaker is the answer?

A

EF < 35 with QRS > 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is implantable cardioverter the answer?

A

Persisting EF of < 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is abnormal aortic gradient?

A

Anything greater than zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is S3 gallop pathological ?

A

When it’s older patient with CHF or mitral regurgitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is Amyloid diagnosed on ekg and echo?

A

It shows low voltage ekg and echo will show speckled pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptoms of spinal stenosis?

A

Worse walking down hill or stairs

Relieved by walking uphill, sitting and cycling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What history is associated with arterial thrombosis?

A

AS and A Fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What’s CHADS

A

CHF, HTN, age > 75, DM, CVA or TIA

Used for Afib life long anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What’s the treatment for CHADS?

A

Score 0-1 needs aspirin
Score 2 or more needs warfarin
CVA/TIA equals 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When do you give oxygen for a patient coming in with atrial arrhymia?

A

When a patient has COPD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do you give for torsade de pointes?

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which anti glycemic med is contraindicated in CHF?

A

Rosiglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which hyperglycemic meds increase insulin and block glucagon?

A

Gliptins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which hyperglycemic meds promote slow gastric emptying and promote weight loss?

A

Exenatide and liraglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does PTU work?

A

It blocks T4 to T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the best initial test for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

24 hr urine cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do you do to figure out where is source of cushings?

A

Give high dose dexamethasone. If it lowers the ACTH then the origin is pituitary. If it does not suppress the ACTH then it’s ectopic. Scan chest for lung or carcinoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the treatment for addison disease?

A

Hydrocortisone which gives both gluco and minerocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When you have a patient with HTN + low renin and low Potassium think..

A

Hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Episodic hypertension and MEN 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you tell patient is having severe asthma?

A

When no wheeze is heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What test to order for SOB?

A

Oxygen, pulse ox, CXR and ABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How to manage acute COPD

A

ABG. CPAP or bipap and then intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pregnant lady with recent uti and lung fibrosis

A

Think nitrofuratoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does EKG show in ILD

A

Pulm HTN, right atrial and right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Risk factor for PPI

A

HCAP and c-diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

VAP

A

Fever, hypoxia, new infiltrate and increasing secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment for positive PPD with no active infection.

A

Isoniazid for 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is characteristic of RA?

A

Anemia with normal MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What the difference between RA and alkylosing spondylitis?

A

Sacroiliac joins are spared in RA. Methotrexate is initial therapy.

Sacroiliac joints are involved. Methotrexate does not work. Give infliximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Scleroderma

A

Tight skin + heartburn + Raynauds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do you treat ILD?

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Crest lung finding

A

Only pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Test for crest

A

Anti centromere antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the single most accurate test for PM/DM?

A

Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How do you differentiate between PM/DM and polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

PM/DM: weakness + CPK + Aldolase

Polymyalgia rheumatica : > 50 + proximal muscle pain (more than weakness) + ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Side effects of methotrexate

A

Lung and liver fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Wegners marker

A

C-Anca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Churg strauss

A

Vasculitis + eosinophilia + asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Takayasu

A

Young Asian female with diminished pulses

Don’t do biopsy
Do aortic arteriography or MRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Treatment for acute gout

A

NSAID then steroid then colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the risk factors for septic arthritis

A

Any arthritic joint or prosthetic joint

60
Q

Bone difference between paget and prostate

A

Paget is osteoclasts

Prostate is osteoblastic

61
Q

Lab for hgH

A

Microcytic anemia with high reticulocyte count

62
Q

Risk factor for metformin

A

B12 absorption

63
Q

Result of B12 replacement

A

Reticulocyte is first, neuron is last

64
Q

What is deleted with b12 therapy

A

Potassium

65
Q

How do you know that splenectomy will work for autoimmune hemolysis?

A

Response to IVIg means it will respond to splenectomy

66
Q

What test do you do for TTP/hUS

A

Adamts-13

67
Q

Treatment for paroxymal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Eculizumab which inhibits C5 and prevents complement activation

68
Q

What is auer rods associated with

A

AML

69
Q

What is the risk factor for M3 acute polymyelocytic leukemia

A

DIC

70
Q

What happens to untreated CML?

A

It turns into ALL

71
Q

Jak 2 mutation is found in which diseases

A

PVera and ET

72
Q

What are elevated in PVera?

A

B12 and LAP

73
Q

What are the B symptoms?

A

Fever weight loss and night sweat

74
Q

What is eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Dysphasia with history of allergies

Do scope and biopsy and treat with PPT and budesonide

75
Q

What is a common complain in GERD?

A

Cough

76
Q

What are the characteristics of peptic ulcer?

A

Single
<1 cm
Proximal near pylorus
Resolves with treatment

77
Q

Which acute hepatitis can be treated

A

Hep C

78
Q

Which hep c med does not need addition of interferon?

A

Sofosbuvir

79
Q

What are the meds for hep c treatment?

A

Boceprevir, telaprevir and simeprevir

80
Q

Which hepatitis does not have a vaccine or ppx ?

A

Hep c

81
Q

How do you determine portal HTN ?

A

If saag is > 1.1 then it’s portal due to cirrhosis or CHF

82
Q

What is the most common cause of death from hemochromatosis?

A

Cirrhosis

83
Q

What’s is the time limit for thrombolytics for stroke?

A

3 hrs

84
Q

What causes stroke in young people ?

A

Vasculitis or hypercoagulable state

85
Q

What is a common problem with anti epileptic drugs ?

A

Osteoporosis

86
Q

Why can’t we give anticholinergic drugs for PD to people under 60?

A

Benztropine and hydroxyzine cause memory loss

87
Q

Width cytotoxic drug causes PML?

A

Natalizumab

88
Q

What are the symptoms of pseudomotor ?

A 
Headache
Sixth nerve palsy 
Visual field loss 
Transient obscure vision
Pulsutile tinnitus
89
Q

What is the single most important criterion for meningitis ?

A

CSF cell count. Thousands polys equals bacteria

90
Q

How do you classify encephalitis?

A

Fever + confusion

91
Q

What is the normal WBC count for CSF

A

1:500 RBC

92
Q

What is one of the causes of RLS?

A

Iron deficiency

93
Q

How do you figure out if it’s ATN is due to contrast?

A

It’s very rapid

94
Q

How do you know the Renal failure is not due to cyclophosphamide ?

A

Cyclophosphamide causes hemorrhage not renal failure

95
Q

What are the phosphate binder?

A

Calcium acetate

Calcium carbonate

96
Q

Treatment for extreme hyponatremia

A

Conivaptan and tolvaptan. They raise sodium by blocking ADH

97
Q

When do you use tamoxifen ?

A

When you have 2 or more first degree relatives with breast cancer

98
Q

What is the survival rate of testicular cancer?

A

90-95%

99
Q

Testing for cervical cancer

A

Ascus positive, do HPV test, if positive do colposcopy

100
Q

What is the best initial test for a patient coming with pain + crepitus + high fever + portal of entry ?

A

Surgery

101
Q

What is the standard for IV access for children without peripheral access ?

A

Interosseous proximal tibia for children less than 6. Give 20 ml/kg

102
Q

What is the standard for open skull fracture?

A

Tetanus toxoid and ppx antibiotics

103
Q

When do you give steroid for cerebral edema?

A

Tumors and abscesses. They don’t work for head trauma

104
Q

What is the classification of primary peritonitis ?

A

Spontaneous inflammation in children with nephrosis or adults with ascites with mild pain

105
Q

What is a GI medical emergency?

A

Cholangitis. ERCP is the treatment of choice

106
Q

What are the risk factors of pancreatitis ?

A 
Alcohol 
Gallstones
Medications: didanosine, pentamidine, flagyl, tetracycline, thiazides, furosemide
Hyperglycemia
Trauma 
Post ERCP
107
Q

What are the signs of hemorrhagic pancreatitis?

A

Lower hmatocrit
Very high WBC > 18, glucose and bun
Very Low calcium

108
Q

What is reynold’s Pentad?

A

Jaundice fever abd pain Altered mental status and shock

109
Q

When do you worry about gas gangrene?

A

If it’s a penetrating or dirty wounds. Give large doses of IV penicillin and hyperbaric oxygen

110
Q

What are the blastic lesion ?

A

Prostate and breast

111
Q

What cause lyric lesions ?

A

Lung, renal, breast , thyroid and MM

112
Q

How do you differentiate plantar fasciitis?

A

Pain resolves quickly after walking

113
Q

What organisms are the most common in central line associated infections ?

A

A. Aureus, coagulase negative staph, candida

114
Q

What is the treatment for neonatal RDS?

A

Lucinactant

115
Q

What is VACTERL

A 
Vertebral 
Anal
Cardiac
Teachea esophagus 
Radial renal
Limb
116
Q

What’s the differential diagnosis of double-bubble?

A

Duodenal atresia
Annular pancreas
Malrotation
Volvulus

117
Q

What is the risk of formula feed?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis. Pneumatosis intestinalis is pathognomonic.

118
Q

What is the most feared complication of kernicterus?

A

Indirect bilirubin is the cause. Give immediate exchange transfusion

119
Q

What are test for suspected child abuse?

A

PT/PTT CBC
Skeletal survey
Head CT
Ophthalmic exam

120
Q

How do you differentiate epiglottis from croup?

A

Epiglottis does not have cough. Croup has barking cough

121
Q

What is the best prevention against bronchiolitis?

A

Breastfeeding

122
Q

What is the mutation in CF?

A

G551D. All CF patients should go through genotyping

123
Q

When is a murmur innocent?

A

Fever, infection and anxiety
When it’s systolic
Grade < 2

124
Q

Which infection causes chronic malabsorption?

A

Giardia. Get duodenal aspirate

125
Q

What are the risk for celiac disease?

A

Osteoporosis and T cell lymphoma

126
Q

When do you give rhogam?

A 
At 28 weeks 
Within 72 hrs 
After miscarriage or abortion 
During amniocentesis 
With heavy vaginal bleed
127
Q

When is GBS related meningitis is not a vertices transmission?

A

When it’s after 1st week of birth

128
Q

What is the classic triad of congenital toxo?

A

Chorioretinitis
Intracranial calcification
Hydrocephalus

129
Q

What is the hep B vertical transmission rate?

A

80-90%

130
Q

What is the indication for methotrexate in pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy mass < 3.5 cm
Absence of fetal heart
BHCG < 6000
No history of folic supplement

131
Q

When is cerclage placed ?

A

At 14-16 wks

132
Q

How do you differentiate between leimyoma and adenomyosis?

A

Leiomyoma is asymmetric and non tenter

Adenomyosis is symmetric and tender

133
Q

What are the initial workup for ovarian mass?

A

B hcg
Ultrasound
Laparoscopy
Laparotomy if complex or greater than 7 cm

134
Q

What are the conditions where CA 125 is elevated

A 
Ovarian cancer 
Cirrhosis 
Endometriosis 
Peritonitis
Pancreatitis
135
Q

What are the possible cause of amenorrhea?

A 
PCOS
Hypothyroidism
Pituitary adenoma 
Elevated prolactin 
Meds like antidepressants and antipsychotic
136
Q

What is Denosumab?

A

It’s a RANKLe inhibitor that inhibits osteoclasts

137
Q

What are the contraindications to CT?

A

Creatinine > 1.5
MM
Metformin. Stop and restart are 48 hrs

138
Q

What are poor prognosis for a schizoprenia ?

A 
Early age 
Negative symptoms
Poor premorbid function
Family history 
Disorganized or deficit type
139
Q

What’s the risk for clozapine ?

A

Agranulocytosis

140
Q

What’s the side effect of olanzapine ?

A

Weight gain

141
Q

How do you treat tardive dyskinesia?

A

Benztropine

142
Q

What are the adverse effects of lithium?

A

Einstein anomaly

Diabetes insipidus

143
Q

SSRI treats which disease?

A

Depression
GAD
Panic, OCD, social phobia,
Bulimia

144
Q

Passive aggressive personality disorder

A

Self aggression and self mutilation

145
Q

How do you identify an aspirin overdose?

A

Tinnitus

146
Q

What are the signs of methoglobinemia?

A

Cyanosis with normal pO2

Step3 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions