Vital Signs Flashcards

1
Q

Enumerate the five vital signs + the added one

A
  • temperature
  • pain
  • blood pressure
  • respiratory rate
  • pulse rate
  • oxygen saturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Other term for vital signs

A

Cardinal signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The indicators of the body’s physiology status and response to physical activity, environmental conditions, and emotional stressors

A

Vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following the a modifiable factor influencing VS?

(a) Age
(b) Hormonal Status
(c) Diet
(d) Family History

A

(c) Diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What health complication is suggestive of digital clubbing?

(a) cachexia
(b) heart disease
(c) diaphoresis
(d) cyanosis

A

(b) heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Body temperature is higher than the environment’s temperature (warm-blooded)

A

Homoiothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Body temperature changes with the environment (cold-blooded)

A

Poikilothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Responds to increase in temperature that results to vasodilation

(a) Posterior Hypothalamus
(b) Anterior Hypothalamus

A

(b) Anterior Hypothalamus

  • Posterior Hypothalamus responds to a DECREASE in temp. (vasoconstriction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An increase in temperature that reaches to 41.1 deg C

A

Hyperthermia / Hyperpyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drop of temperature

A

Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Other term for fever

A

Pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Substances that cause fever

(a) pyrogens
(b) defervescences
(c) pyrexygens
(d) prodromalocins

A

(a) pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Course of fever that is with nonspecific symptoms

(a) defervescence
(b) invasion/onset
(c) prodromal phase
(d) stationary

A

(c) prodromal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Course of fever with termination/ resolution and sweating

(a) defervescence
(b) invasion/onset
(c) prodromal phase
(d) stationary

A

(a) defervescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Course of fever where chills, shivering, and paleness of skin is observed

(a) defervescence
(b) invation/onset
(c) prodromal phase
(d) stationary

A

(b) invasion/onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Course of fever with fastigium/stadium (warm skin, appear flushed)

(a) defervescence
(b) invation/onset
(c) prodromal phase
(d) stationary

A

(d) stationary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Type of fever that is above (N) but fluctuates less than n 2◦C

A

Constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Type of fever that is interspersed (N), AKA recurrent

(a) constant
(b) relapsing
(c) remittent
(d) intermittent

A

(b) relapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Type of fever that is alternating (N) and with periods of fever

A

Intermittent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type of fever that is above (N) but fluctuates more than 2◦C within 24hr period

(a) constant
(b) relapsing
(c) remittent
(d) intermittent

A

(c) remittent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what temperature of hypothermia leads to a point of no return as Pt’s temp. continuously drops from there

A

29.4 ◦C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What Sx is associated with hypothermia?

(a) decreased urinary output
(b) increased PR & RR
(c) nausea
(d) decreased cutaneous sensation

A

(d) decreased cutaneous sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Under Hyperthermia wherein there is a buildup of acid due to kidney failure

(a) metabolic acidosis
(b) stupor
(c) coma
(d) lactic acidosis

A

(a) metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Under Hypothermia wherein lactic acid (produced when there is a decrease in O2) is built up in the bloodstream

A

Lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False

Menstrual cycle does not influence body temperature

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If lying on ear, exposed to air for 2-3 mins, indicate which laterality

(a) Ear thermometer
(b) Glass thermometer
(c) Oral electric thermometer
(d) Rectal thermometer

A

(a) Ear thermometer

face the wall kung namali mo to kinginamerlz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type of thermometer with 30-90 sec duration

A

Oral Electric thermometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type of thermometer with 1:1 ratio and has 3-5 min duration

A

Glass thermometer / Mercurial thermometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Temperature measurement sight with 37.5 deg C

(a) Axillary
(b) Oral
(c) Rectal and Tympanic membrane

A

(c) Rectal and Tympanic membrane

Axillary = 36.5 deg C
Oral = 37 deg C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Formed by division of the trachea and subdivide into smaller and smaller branches

A

Primary Bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False

Right bronchus is wider, shorter, and straighter than left

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Smallest branches of the bronchi

(a) terminal bronchioles
(b) tertiary bronchi
(c) bronchioles
(d) alveoli

A

(c) bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or False

Terminal bronchioles end in alveoli

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where gas exchange takes place

(a) Alveolar duct
(b) Alveolar sac
(c) Alveolus
(d) Alveoli

A

(d) Alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide via the
bloodstream

(a) Pulmonary ventilation
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Respiratory gas transport

A

(d) Respiratory gas transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

moving air in and out of the lungs

(a) Pulmonary ventilation
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Respiratory gas transport

A

(a) Pulmonary ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

gas exchange between blood and tissue cells in
systemic capillaries

(a) Pulmonary ventilation
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Respiratory gas transport

A

(c) Internal respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli

(a) Pulmonary ventilation
(b) External respiration
(c) Internal respiration
(d) Respiratory gas transport

A

(b) External respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Yes or No

Process of breathing involves chemical and mechanical processes

A

No na no

  • completely mechanical as it depends on volume changes in the thoracic cavity and the changes in pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Phase of pulmonary ventilation wherein air leaves the lung

A

Expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Flow of air into the lung as the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, increasing the size of the thoracic cavity

A

Inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Passive process which depends on natural lung elasticity when muscles relax, air is pushed out of
the lungs

A

Exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or False

Normal pressure within the pleural space is always positive

A

False

  • always negative (intrapleural pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True or False

Differences in lung and pleural space pressures doesn’t keep lungs from collapsing

A

False

  • it does!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following is a respiratory air movement example:

(a) Laugh
(b) Yawn
(c) Coughing
(d) Inhalation

A

(d) Inhalation

  • the rest are nonrespiratory and may be caused by reflexes or voluntary actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Normal breathing moves about _____ ml of air with each breath (tidal volume [TV])

(a) 1200
(b) 3200
(c) 300
(d) 500

A

(d) 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

After exhalation, about ____ ml of air remains in the lungs

(a) 1200
(b) 3200
(c) 300
(d) 500

A

(a) 1200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Amount of air that can be taken in forcibly over the tidal volume (2100 - 3200 ml)

(a) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
(b) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(c) dead space volume
(d) residual volume

A

(b) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled (approx. 1200 ml)

(a) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
(b) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(c) dead space volume
(d) residual volume

A

(a) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Air remaining in lung after expiration (approx. 1200 ml)

(a) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
(b) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(c) dead space volume
(d) residual volume

A

(d) residual volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Air that remains in conducting zone and never reaches alveoli (150 ml)

(a) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
(b) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
(c) dead space volume
(d) residual volume

A

(c) dead space volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The total amount of exchangeable air

A

Vital capacity (TV + IRV + ERV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Refers to the increased respiratory rate often due to extra oxygen need

(a) Eupnea
(b) Hyperpnea
(c) Phrenea
(d) Internea

A

(b) Hyperpnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Refers to the (N) respiratory rate (16-20 respirations per minute)

(a) Eupnea
(b) Hyperpnea
(c) Phrenea
(d) Internea

A

(a) Eupnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

True or False

Activity of respiratory muscles is transmitted to the brain by the phrenic and intercostal nerves

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

True or False

Neural centers that control rate and depth are located in the medulla

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Level of _____ in the blood is the main regulatory chemical for respiration

(a) O2
(b) N
(c) H2O
(d) CO2

A

(d) CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or False

Chemical factors influencing RR are O2 and CO2 levels

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Parameters of Respiration that refers to the
regularity of inspiration and expiration (regular/irregular AKA jom, KIMMY!)

(a) sound
(b) rhythm
(c) rate
(d) depth

A

(b) rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Parameters of Respiration that refers to the amount of air exchange with each breath (shallow/deep)

(a) sound
(b) rhythm
(c) rate
(d) depth

A

(d) depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Parameters of Respiration that refers to the number of breaths per minute (bradypnea/tachypnea)

(a) sound
(b) rhythm
(c) rate
(d) depth

A

(c) rate

62
Q

Refers to the normal sound

A

Sound vesicular

63
Q

Refers to the abnormal sound

A

Adventitious sound

64
Q

Bubbling sounds owing to secretions

(a) wheezing
(b) stridor
(c) crackles
(d) sigh
(e) stertor

A

(c) crackles

65
Q

Harsh high pitch crowing sound occurs with upper airway obstruction (glottis/trachea)

(a) wheezing
(b) stridor
(c) crackles
(d) sigh
(e) stertor

A

(b) stridor

66
Q

Snoring sound secondary to partial obstruction to upper airway

(a) wheezing
(b) stridor
(c) crackles
(d) sigh
(e) stertor

A

(e) stertor

67
Q

Deep inspiration followed by a prolonged expiration

(a) wheezing
(b) stridor
(c) crackles
(d) sigh
(e) stertor

A

(d) sigh

68
Q

Air passing through a narrowed airway (bronchi)

(a) wheezing
(b) stridor
(c) crackles
(d) sigh
(e) stertor

A

(a) wheezing

69
Q

______ Have 30 respirations per minute

A

Infants

70
Q

Adults have __ - __ respirations per minute

A

12-18

71
Q

__________ have 40-80 respirations per minute

A

Newborns

72
Q

Four- chambered double pump connected in series that is located in the middle mediastinum of the thoracic cavity.

A

Heart

  • wall is made up of epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
73
Q

(Left or Right)

Heart relating to pulmonary circulation

A

Right Heart

74
Q

(Left or Right)

Heart relating to systemic circulation

A

Left Heart

75
Q

Relatively thin-walled structures which have a fair amount of elasticity and distensibility

A

Atria

76
Q

(Left or Right)

Atrium receives blood from SVC, IVC, coronary sinus,
anterior cardiac vein, and venae cordis minimae.

A

Left Atrium

77
Q

(Left or Right)

Atrium forms the base of the heart and receives the four pulmonary veins.

A

Right Atrium

78
Q

Relatively thicker than the atrial wall.

A

Ventricles

79
Q

(Left or Right)

Ventricle that measures about 0.3 – 0.5 cm and ejects blood against 4 – 25 mmHg pressure of the
pulmonary circulation

A

Right Ventricle

80
Q

(Left or Right)

Ventricle that measures about 0.3 – 0.5 cm and ejects blood against 4 – 25 mmHg pressure of the
pulmonary circulation

A

Right Ventricle

81
Q

(Left or Right)

Ventricle that measures about 0.3 – 0.5 cm and ejects blood against 4 – 25 mmHg pressure of the
pulmonary circulation

A

Right Ventricle

82
Q

(Left or Right)

Ventricle that measures about 1.2 – 1.5 cm and ejects blood against 70 – 130 mmHg pressure of the systemic circulation

A

Left Ventricle

83
Q

(Left or Right)

Ventricle that measures about 0.3 – 0.5 cm and ejects blood against 4 – 25 mmHg pressure of the
pulmonary circulation

A

Right Ventricle

84
Q

Cardiac valve found between the atria and the
ventricles

(a) semilunar valve
(b) right atrioventricular (AV) valve
(c) left atrioventricular (AV) valve
(d) atrioventricular (AV) valve

A

(d) atrioventricular (AV) valve

85
Q

Tricuspid valve/mitral

(a) semilunar valve
(b) right atrioventricular (AV) valve
(c) left atrioventricular (AV) valve
(d) atrioventricular (AV) valve

A

(b) right atrioventricular (AV) valve

86
Q

Found at the root of the pulmonary artery and the root of the aorta.

(a) semilunar valve
(b) right atrioventricular (AV) valve
(c) left atrioventricular (AV) valve
(d) atrioventricular (AV) valve

A

(a) semilunar valve

87
Q

Bicuspid valve

(a) semilunar valve
(b) right atrioventricular (AV) valve
(c) left atrioventricular (AV) valve
(d) atrioventricular (AV) valve

A

(c) left atrioventricular (AV) valve

88
Q

Refers to the contraction of the atria/ventricles

A

Systole

89
Q

Refers to the relaxation of the atria/ventricles

A

Diastole

90
Q

Blood pressure builds before ventricle contracts,
pushing out blood

A

Ventricular systole

91
Q

Events of one complete heart beat

A

Cardiac cycle

92
Q

Atria finish re-filling, ventricular pressure is low

A

Early diastole

92
Q

Atria finish re-filling, ventricular pressure is low

A

Early diastole

92
Q

Blood flows into ventricles

A

Mid-to-late diastole

92
Q

Law that states that the more that the cardiac muscle is stretched, the stronger the contraction

A

Starling’s law of the heart

92
Q

Amount of blood pumped by each side of the heart in one minute

A

Cardiac Output (CO)

= (heart rate [HR]) x (stroke volume [SV])

92
Q

Volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one contraction which remains relatively constant

A

Stroke Volume

93
Q

(Decreased or Increased HR)

with:
-Parasympathetic nervous system
-High blood pressure or blood volume
-Decreased venous return

A

Decreased HR

94
Q

(Decreased or Increased HR)

with:
-Sympathetic nervous system
∙crisis
∙low blood pressure

-Hormones
∙epinephrine
∙thyroxine

-Exercise
-Decreased blood volume

A

Increased HR

95
Q

Wave of blood in the artery created by contraction of the L ventricle during cardiac cycle

A

Pulse

96
Q

Which is not one of the parameters of pulse?

(a) rhythm
(b) depth
(c) rate
(d) volume

A

(b) depth

97
Q

What is the (N) PR?

A

60-100 bpm

98
Q

Parameter of pulse that is the number of pulsation per minute (Bradycardia/Tachycardia)

A

Rate

99
Q

Parameter of pulse that refers to the amount of
force created by the ejected blood against the arterial wall during each ventricular contraction and can be examine of how pulse can be obliterated (grading)

A

Volume (quality or amplitude)

100
Q

Parameter of pulse that refers to the pattern of pulsation and the intervals between them (regular/irregular)

A

Rhythm

101
Q

Which is not a cause of large, bounding pulses

(a) atherosclerosis
(b) inc SV, dec PR, fever, anemia, Hyperthyroidism, Aortic regurgitation
(c) Inc SV due to slow HR
(d) decreased stroke volume, Hypovolemia, severe aortic stenosis, increased peripheral resistance, exposure to cold

A

(d) decreased stroke volume, Hypovolemia, severe aortic stenosis, increased peripheral resistance, exposure to cold

  • cause of small, weak pulses
102
Q

Causes pure aortic regurgitation , hypertrophic
cardiomyopathy

A

Bisferiens Pulse

103
Q

Centrally located pulse site

A

Apical pulse

104
Q

Deficit in the number of radial pulse when compared to apical pulse and provides imp info about cardiovascular system’s to perfuse the body

A

Pulse deficit

105
Q

PR of newborns

A

120-160 bpm

106
Q

(N) PR of 12 yr olds - adult

A

60-100 bpm

107
Q

PR of an adult athlete

A

40-70 bpm

108
Q

Measurements by health professionals are made on the pressure in large arteries and the pressure measured at a person’s upper arm

A

Blood Pressure (BP)

109
Q

(True or False)

Pressure in blood vessels decreases as the distance away from the heart increases

A

True

110
Q

(Systolic or Diastolic)

Pressure when ventricles relax

A

Diastolic

111
Q

(Systolic or Diastolic)

Pressure at the peak of ventricular contraction

A

Systolic

112
Q

(True or False)

Pressure is lowest when the heart ventricle contracts (systole) and lowest when the ventricle relaxes (diastole)

A

False

Pressure is GREATEST when the heart ventricle contracts (systole) and lowest when the ventricle relaxes (diastole)

113
Q

BP of young healthy adult

A

around 120/80 mm Hg

120 = systolic pressure
80 = diastolic

114
Q

(True or False)

BP is measured in millimeters of mercury

A

True (mm Hg)

115
Q

Under BP regulation:

  • Baroreceptors (stretch in ICA, aorta)
  • Chemoreceptors (dec O2, inc CO2 and H-) (carotid
    and aortic bodies)

(a) response
(b) receptors
(c) center
(d) stimulus

A

(b) receptors

116
Q

Under BP regulation:

Vasomotor center (Lower pons, upper medulla)

(a) response
(b) receptors
(c) center
(d) stimulus

A

(c) center

117
Q

Under BP regulation:

stretch on the arteries, chemicals

(a) response
(b) receptors
(c) center
(d) stimulus

A

(d) stimulus

118
Q

Under BP regulation:

inc or dec BP

(a) response
(b) receptors
(c) center
(d) stimulus

A

(a) response

119
Q

Abnormally low blood pressure with Systolic BP less than 90 mmHg and diastolic less than 60 mmHg

Sx:
* Dehydration
* Sepsis
* Hemorrhage
* Toxins
* Hormonal abnormalities
* Eating disorders

A

Hypotension

120
Q

(Primary or Secondary Hypertension)

  • Renal retention of excess sodium (Na+)
  • Increased peripheral vascular resistance
  • Alteration in the renin-angiotensin system
A

Primary Hypertension

121
Q

It is the greatest pressure that cardiac systole causes in the brachial artery. It is approximately equal to the pressure that the blood exerts against the wall of the artery from the inside

A

Systolic Blood Pressure

(N) for adult = <120 mm Hg

122
Q

A condition in which systolic pressure is above 140 mm Hg

A

Hypertension

123
Q

The sever drop in systolic pressure

A

Shock

124
Q

Series of sound heard through the stethoscope when
measuring BP

A

Korotkoff’s sound

  • having five phases
    Phase I = Systolic BP (SBP)
    Phase V = DBP
125
Q

(Normal or Abnormal)

Diastolic pressure increases more than 10 to
15mmHG during exercise

A

Abnormal

126
Q

Is a complex unpleasant phenomenon composed of
sensory experiences that include time, space,
intensity, emotion, cognition, and motivation

A

Pain

127
Q

Evaluative system overlies the individuals learned behaviour concerning the experience of pain. It may block, modulate, or enhance the perception of pain

(a) Sensory
(b) Motivational
(c) Cognitive

A

(c) Cognitive

128
Q

Discriminative system processes information about the strength, intensity, quality and temporal and spatial aspects of pain

(a) Sensory
(b) Motivational
(c) Cognitive

A

(a) Sensory

129
Q

Affective system determines the individual’s approach-avoidance behaviours

(a) Sensory
(b) Motivational
(c) Cognitive

A

(b) Motivational

130
Q

Duration of time or the intensity of pain that an individual will endure before initiation overt pain responses.

A

Pain tolerance

131
Q

Chemicals released at the site of the injury

A

Algogenic substances

132
Q

Pain that is perceived as if it were coming from somewhere else in the body

A

Referred pain

133
Q

Afferent neurons that carry pain messages

A

Nociceptors

134
Q

Pain with cause (usually known) localized in the body tissue
-nociceptive pain
-neuropathic pain

A

Somatogenic pain

135
Q

Pain for which there is no known physical cause but processing of sensitive information in CNS is disturbed

A

Psychogenic pain

136
Q

Is a protective mechanism that alerts the individual to a condition or experience that is immediately harmful to the body

A

Acute pain

is:
- less than 6 weeks
- incidence common
- well defined
- reasonably easy to assess
- known cause/treatable
- focused on the pain
- pain is a “symptom”

137
Q

Often unable to define cause and is the exact opposite of acute pain as it sees pain as a “disease”

A

Chronic pain

138
Q

Assessment of pain that uses pictures

A

Visual Analogue Scale

139
Q

Assessment of pain divided into three parts

A

McGill pain questionnaire

140
Q

Structure affected with throbbing and diffuse type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(f) blood vessel

141
Q

Structure affected with deep, nagging, dull, and boring type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(d) bone

142
Q

Structure affected with burning, pressure-like, and stinging aching type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(e) sympathetic nerve

143
Q

Structure affected with cramping, dull, and aching type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(a) muscle

144
Q

Structure affected with dull and aching type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(c) ligament, joint capsule

145
Q

Structure affected with sharp and shooting type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(g) nerve root

146
Q

Structure affected with sharp, bright, and lightning-like type of pain:

(a) muscle
(b) nerve
(c) ligament, joint capsule
(d) bone
(e) sympathetic nerve
(f) blood vessel
(g) nerve root

A

(b) nerve