Visual Signals Flashcards
1
Q
Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude?
A
An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
2
Q
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
A
the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to gliders.
Helicopters shall give way to gliders.
Gliders shall give way to balloons.
aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.
3
Q
When two power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
A
the one on the right has the right of way.
4
Q
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall
A
alter heading to the right.
5
Q
When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o’clock position, at your altitude, you should
A
alter heading to the right.
6
Q
Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude shall
A
give way.
7
Q
A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively
A
In air = return for landing;
Ground = cleared to taxi.
8
Q
A steady red light directed at an aircraft means
A
In air = give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Ground = stop
9
Q
A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively
A
In air = airport unsafe, do not land;
Ground = taxi clear of landing area in use.
10
Q
A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively
A
flight = cleared to land; ground = cleared to taxi.
11
Q
A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the manoeuvring area of an airport means
A
return to starting point on the airport.
12
Q
Chrome yellow and black strips painted on pylons or on the roof of a building identifies
A
Fur farm
13
Q
Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to
A
vacate the runways immediately.
14
Q
Pilots should not overfly reindeer or caribou at an altitude of less than
A
2,000 feet AGL.
15
Q
When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the manufacturer’s name or type of aircraft, followed by registration as
A
Golf – Foxtrot – Lima – Uniform.
16
Q
After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions? The aircraft type and
A
the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.
17
Q
Pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor…..and 121.5 MHZ, when practical and not in communication on the MF or ATF frequency.
A
126.7 MHz.
18
Q
En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on
A
121.5 on the aircraft receiver.
19
Q
MF procedures such as frequency, distance and altitude to follow are given in the
A
Canada Flight Supplement (CFS) or Canada Water Aerodrome Supplement (CWAS).
20
Q
Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the
A
aerodrome traffic.
21
Q
Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of
A
123.2 MHz.
22
Q
If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until
A
beyond the specified distance or altitude.
23
Q
A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to taxi to
A
the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.
24
Q
A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2 o’clock, 5 miles, eastbound”. This information indicates the traffic is
A
60° to the right, altitude unknown.
25
A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “CLEARED TO LAND, TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION”. The pilot should
land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.
26
The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
27
What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?
MAYDAY (once), HELLO ALL STATIONS (three times), THIS IS (the call sign of the station transmitting the message, the filing time of the message, the call sign of the station in distress (once)), SEELONCE FEENEE, OUT.
28
A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until
clear of the Control Zone.
29
You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then
inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.
30
A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by
transmitting the aircraft call sign.
31
An initial call to Timmins FSS should be “Timmins
radio this is...”
32
A responsibility of a Flight Information Center (FIC) specialist is to provide
flight planning service.
33
NOTAMs are
available at all Flight Information Centers (FIC).
34
What is a NOTAM?
Notice to Air Missions
4 categories:
- -Domestic, or NOTAM (D)
- -Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs.
- -International NOTAMs.
- -Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs.
- -Military NOTAMs.
35
A new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” is valid
until the End Time quoted in the NOTAM.
36
The term “EST” in the End Time in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid
until a cancelling (NOTAMC) or replacing (NOTAMR) is issued.
37
ATC advises you that your radio transmissions are READABILITY THREE this means that your transmissions are
readable with difficulty.
38
An airport is
a certified aerodrome.
39
A dry Transport Canada standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of at least
15kt
40
No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from
the operator of the airport.
41
Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
white "X's" on runways and yellow "X's" on taxiways.
42
The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
09
43
Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway should normally hold
200 feet from the edge of the runway.
44
The manoeuvring area of an airport is that area
used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
45
Except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than
2,000 feet AGL.
46
Except for ultra-light aeroplanes and balloons, which documents shall be carried on board when flying a radio equipped Canadian privately registered aircraft?
- -Flight Authority (Certificate of Airworthiness or Flight Permit).
- -Certificate of Registration.
- -Crew licences.
- -Aircraft Flight Manual or equivalent document.
- -Aircraft journey log book, where it is not planned that the aircraft will land and shutdown at any location other than the point of departure.
- -Proof of liability insurance.
47
Taking into account seasonal climatic variations and geographical area, private aeroplanes and helicopters flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require
specified emergency supplies be carried.
48
A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft
carrying passengers at night.
49
Unless oxygen and oxygen masks as specified in CARs are readily available, no person shall fly unpressurized aircraft above
13,000 feet ASL.
50
No person shall fly an aircraft for more than….......at an altitude between 10,000 and 13,000 feet ASL unless there is readily available to each flight crew member, an oxygen mask and a supply of oxygen.
30 minutes.
51
What safety equipment must be available to each person on board a single-engine aircraft which is taking off from or landing on water?
An approved life preserver.
52
The International VHF Emergency Frequency is
121.5 MHz.
53
No pilot shall take off from or land at an aerodrome at night unless the
aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister.
54
The CARs define an infant passenger as a person
under 2 years of age.
55
When the PIC directs that safety belts be fastened, an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is provided shall be
held securely in the arms of the responsible adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened.
56
Which flight instrument systems and equipment are required on power driven aircraft for day VFR flight in controlled airspace? A magnetic direction indicating system or magnetic compass and
airspeed indicator.
an altimeter.
a time piece.
57
If cleared for take-off immediately following the very low approach and overshoot of a large aircraft, the pilot should
decline take-off clearance and inform ATC of the reason for non-acceptance.
58
The controller offers the option for a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that
it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take-off.
59
A pilot requests an intersection take-off from ATC. If authorized,
it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take-off.
60
When an arriving aircraft is cleared “to the circuit”, the pilot should interpret this to mean join the circuit
on the downwind leg.
61
When a NORDO aircraft crosses an airport for the purpose of obtaining landing information it should maintain
at least 500 feet above circuit height.
62
An aircraft is “cleared to the circuit” where a left hand circuit is in effect. Without further approval from ATC a right turn may be made to
join cross-wind or a partial right turn to join the downwind leg.
63
When instructed to continue an approach to a runway which is clear of traffic, what action should the pilot take if no landing clearance is received?
Request landing clearance.
64
A NOTAM has been published for an airport, which is 400 feet ASL, stating the circuit height is 1,500 feet ASL. When the ceiling is 1,000 overcast and the visibility is 3 miles, the circuit height in controlled airspace should be
500 feet below the cloud base.
65
When the reported ceiling is 1,000 feet overcast and visibility is 3 miles, to remain VFR, an aircraft cleared to the circuit must join
at 500 feet below cloud base.
66
Aircraft flying VFR normally join the circuit at 1,000 feet AAE. This may not always be possible because of
1) the possibility of a “straight in” clearance to the airport in which case the final leg would normally be entered at less than 1,000 feet.
2) the existence of a NOTAM which provides for a different circuit altitude.
3) weather conditions which may necessitate a circuit height lower than 1,000 feet.
67
A pilot on final approach is requested by ATC to reduce airspeed. The pilot should
comply, giving due consideration to safe minimum manoeuvring speed of the aircraft.
68
A pilot is cleared to land but is concerned about the high cross-wind component. The pilot should
overshoot and request an into-wind runway.
69
A pilot on a VFR flight is being vectored by ATC towards an extensive unbroken layer of cloud. The responsibility for remaining VFR rests with
the pilot.
70
A student pilot on a VFR flight has been given a radar vector by ATC. Ahead, at a lower altitude, is a solid overcast cloud condition. The pilot should
alter heading as necessary to remain VFR and advise ATC.
71
An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for a “straight in” approach. Because of low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
of the pilot.
72
A pilot on a Special VFR flight has been cleared to the circuit. Ahead, at a lower altitude, is a solid layer of stratus cloud. Remaining clear of cloud is the responsibility of
the pilot.
73
A pilot on a VFR flight in Class C airspace is advised by ATC to maintain a specific heading. In the pilot’s opinion, this heading will cause conflict with another aircraft. The pilot should
alter heading to avoid the other aircraft and advise ATC.
74
Unless ATC instructs otherwise, pilots operating VFR shall select transponder code 1200 when flying at or below ..... feet ASL and code ….. when flying above that altitude.
12,500, 1400.
75
Pilots shall activate the transponder “ident” feature
only when so instructed by ATC.
76
The holder of a student pilot permit may for the sole purpose of the holder’s own flight training act as PIC of an aircraft
by day only and authorized by a supervising flight instructor.
77
The PIC of an aircraft shall comply with any light signals or ground marking prescribed in the CARs
at all times provided safety is not jeopardized.
78
Before setting out on any VFR flight, a pilot is required to
be familiar with all available information appropriate to the flight.
79
Terminal airspace dimensions and VHF sector frequencies for certain high density traffic airports in Canada are shown
on the VTA chart and in the CFS.
VTA = VFR Terminal Area Chart
CFS = Canadian Flight Supplement
80
Avoiding wake turbulence is
the sole responsibility of the pilot.
81
Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air
may persist for 5 minutes or more.
82
Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence?
Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.
Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.
Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
83
The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft encountering them to
go out of control.
continue descent even when maximum power is applied.
sustain structural damage.
84
During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous wing tip vortices will
dissipate very slowly.
85
The pilot of a light aircraft on final approach close behind a heavier aircraft should plan the approach to land
beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
86
With regard to a flight itinerary, the responsible person means someone who
has agreed to report the aircraft overdue.
87
Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins
with rotation.
88
Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately
following take-off.
89
Statements concerning wing tip vortices...
- Vortices normally settle below and behind the aircraft.
- With a light cross-wind, one vortex can remain stationary over the ground for some time.
- Lateral movement of vortices, even in a no wind condition, may place a vortex core over a parallel runway.
90
Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is
heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
91
A helicopter in forward flight produces hazardous vortices
similar to wing tip vortices.
92
Which statement concerning vortices caused by helicopters is correct?
The size of the helicopter has little direct bearing on the intensity of the vortices.
93
What effect would a light cross-wind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that had just taken off? A light cross-wind
could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for some time.
94
A flight crew member aware of being under a physical disability that might invalidate licence issue or renewal shall
not commence a flight as a crew member.
95
What is the recommended treatment for hyperventilation below 8,000 feet?
Slow the breathing rate to below 12 times per minute.
96
Damage to the ear drum in flight is most likely to occur
during a descent.
97
Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when SCUBA diving should not fly for
24 hours.
98
With regard to fatigue, which statement is correct according to the information given under the “Medical Information” section of the TC AIM?
Fatigue slows reaction time and causes foolish inattentive errors.
99
A pilot who has donated blood should not act as a flight crew member for at least the next
48 hours.
100
Any pilot who has had a general anaesthetic should not act as a flight crew member
unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.
101
Any pilot who has had a local anaesthetic for extensive dental procedures should not act as a flight crew member during the next
24 hrs
102
Relatively small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia (lack of sufficient oxygen). This tolerance
deteriorates with increase of altitude.
103
Many common drugs such as cold tablets, cough mixtures, antihistamines and other over- the-counter remedies may seriously impair the judgement and co-ordination needed while flying. The safest rule is to
take no medicine when you plan to fly, except on the advice of an Aviation Medical Examiner.
104
The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot 40 years old and over is valid, in Canada, for a period of
24 months.
105
The Canadian Medical Certificate of a private pilot under 40 years of age is valid, in Canada, for a period of
60 months. (5yrs)
106
The amount of fuel and oil carried on board any helicopter at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, to provide for foreseeable delays having been considered, to fly to the destination aerodrome,
and thereafter for 20 minutes at normal cruising speed.
107
The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller-driven aeroplane at the commencement of a day VFR flight must be sufficient, having regard to the meteorological conditions and foreseeable delays that are expected in flight, to fly to the destination aerodrome
and then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
108
If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed
for flights proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin.
109
After landing from a VFR flight for which a flight plan has been filed, the pilot shall report the arrival to the appropriate ATS unit within
60 minutes.
110
When there is a deviation from a VFR flight plan, ATC shall be notified of such deviation
as soon as possible
111
Where no search and rescue initiation time is specified in a flight itinerary, when shall the pilot report to the “responsible person”?
As soon as practicable after landing but no later than 24 hours after the last reported ETA.
112
Where a VFR flight plan has been filed, an arrival report must be filed by the pilot
by advising an ATS unit.
113
Estimated elapsed time A to B = 1 hour 15 minutes.
Estimated stopover = 30 minutes.
Estimated elapsed time B to C = 1 hour 20 minutes.
Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “Elapsed Time” box of a VFR flight plan?
3 hours 05 minutes.
114
When filing a VFR flight plan with an intermediate stop, the total elapsed time to be entered is the total
elapsed time for all legs including the duration of the intermediate stop.
115
How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?
By repeating the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the “Route” column.
116
An ATC instruction
must be complied with when received by the pilot providing the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
117
An ATC clearance
requires compliance when accepted by the PIC.
118
An ATC clearance or instruction is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding in accordance with a clearance or instruction
the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.
119
If all or part of an ATC clearance is unacceptable, a pilot should
refuse the clearance and inform ATC of the pilots intentions.
120
In an emergency requiring the use of an ELT, it should be turned on
immediately and left on.
121
An aircraft's 121.5 MHz ELT may be switched to transmit for test purposes anytime
during the first 5 minutes of any hour UTC.
122
Before shutting down you can verify that the aircraft’s ELT is not transmitting by
listening on 121.5 MHz for a signal.
123
All accidental ELT activations should be reported to the
nearest ATS unit.
124
When an aircraft engine is left running on the ground and no person remains onboard, the aircraft’s movement must be restricted and
it must not be left unattended.
125
When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing
should be avoided as a sudden wind shift or low level turbulence could cause a loss of control.
126
An isolated thunderstorm is in close proximity to your aerodrome of intended landing. You should
hold over a known point clear of the thunderstorm until it is well past the aerodrome.
127
the take-off thrust blast danger area includes at least that area extending back from the tail of a medium size jet transport aeroplane for
1,200 feet.
128
The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a jumbo jet aeroplane for at least
600 feet.
129
The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of a medium size jet aeroplane for at least
450 feet.
130
The ground idle blast danger area extends back from the tail of an executive jet aeroplane for
200 feet.
131
A 45 kt blast area can be expected…..behind the propellers of a large turbo-prop aeroplane during taxi.
60 feet.
132
ATC advises that simultaneous operations are in progress at an airport. Pilots could expect a clearance to
land and hold short of an intersecting runway.
133
When issued a clearance to land and hold short of an intersecting runway, pilots
should immediately inform ATC if they are unable to comply.
134
ADIZ rules normally apply
to all aircraft.
135
When operating in accordance with VFR, aircraft shall be flown
with visual reference to the surface.
136
Normally, a helicopter in uncontrolled airspace at less than 1,000 feet AGL may operate during the day in flight visibility which is not less than
1 mile.
137
What distance from cloud shall an aircraft maintain when flying below 1,000 feet AGL within uncontrolled airspace?
Clear of cloud.
138
No person shall drop anything from an aircraft in flight
which will create a hazard to persons or property.
139
A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an aircraft
within Class F advisory airspace when visibility is 3 miles or greater.
140
CARs state that after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, no person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within
12 hours.
141
“Day” in Canada is that period of time between
the beginning of morning civil twilight and the end of evening civil twilight.
142
“Night” in Canada is that period of time between
the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
143
Formation flying is permitted only if such flights
have been pre-arranged by the pilots-in-command.
144
Flight through active Class F airspace with the designator CYR
is permitted only in accordance with permission issued by the user agency.
145
Which statement is correct with regard to “advisory airspace”?
Non-participating VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace during active periods specified on aeronautical charts and NOTAM.
146
Over non-populous areas or over open water, a pilot must maintain a minimum distance of ….. feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
500
147
Except for balloons and as provided by CARs, no person shall cause any aircraft to take off or attempt to take off from, land on or attempt to land on, any surface within the built- up area of any city or town unless
that surface is an airport or military aerodrome.
148
What is the height AGL above which an aircraft in VFR flight shall be operated to conform with the Cruising Altitudes Order?
3,000 feet.
149
An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a track of 290°M shall be flown at an
even thousand plus 500 foot altitude.
150
The selection of a cruising altitude in the Southern Domestic Airspace should be based on the
magnetic track.
151
Every person who is the holder of any pilot licence or permit shall, on demand, produce such licence or permit for inspection by persons authorized by the Minister, by peace officers and
immigration officers.
152
Low Level Airspace is defined as, all airspace
within the Canadian Domestic Airspace below 18,000 feet ASL.
153
A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
the surface of the earth to 3,000 feet.
154
“Controlled Airspace” means all airspace of defined dimensions within which
an ATC service is provided.
155
When in VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of cloud by at least
500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally.
156
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight within a low level airway is
3 miles.
157
VFR cross-country pilots wishing to cross through any part of a Class C Control Zone should
advise ATC of their intentions and obtain a clearance.
158
ATC may authorize an aeroplane equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day SVFR provided the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility, are each not less than
1 mile.
159
ATC may authorize a helicopter equipped with a functioning two-way radio to transit a Control Zone under day SVFR where the flight visibility and, when reported, ground visibility are each not less than
1/2 mile.
160
An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
a Control Zone.
161
An arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with the control tower
prior to entering a Control Zone.
162
VFR flight within Class B airspace is permitted
in accordance with an ATC clearance.
163
Unless otherwise authorized, a pilot on a VFR flight operating within a Class C Terminal Control Area must
establish and maintain radio communication with the appropriate ATC Unit.
164
Details on civil aviation accident reporting procedures can be found in the
TC AIM
165
When an aircraft accident occurs, the pilot or operator of the aircraft involved shall ensure that the particulars of the accident are reported to the TSB
as soon as possible and by the quickest means available.
