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Small But Terrible > VIRUSES > Flashcards

VIRUSES Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 Flaviviruses

A

HCV (only one not an arbovirus), Yellow fever, West Nile, St. Louis encephalitis, and Dengue

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2
Q

What determines tropism when phenotypic mixing of viruses occurs?

A

The coat that the virus takes with it (this is when 2 viruses infect a cell and one takes the other’s coat; HOWEVER, after infection in the new tissue, the virions expressed will have their original coat)

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4
Q

Which picornavirus is not spread via a fecal oral route?

A

Rhinovirus

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5
Q

What is Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome?

A

inherited prion disease

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6
Q

What are the likely organisms for the following neurologic findings in an AIDS pt 1) Encephalopathy 2) Abscess 3) Meningitis 4) Retinitis 5) Dementia

A

1) JC virus reactivation 2) Toxoplasma gondii 3) Cryptococcus neoformans 4) CMV (with cotton wool spots) 5) directly related to HIV

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7
Q

What is a Tzanck test used to detect? What is it looking for?

A

Herpes (HSV 1 and 2, and VZV); it is looking for multinucleated giant cells

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8
Q

What is an adult infection with parvovirus like?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis-like with pure red cell aplasia

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9
Q

What monoclonal antibody is used to prevent pneumonia from RSV infection in premature infants? MOA

A

Pavalizumab (binds to F protein, fusion protein)

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10
Q

Which RNA viruses do not replicate in the cytoplasm?

A

Influenza and retroviruses

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11
Q

Which hepatitis is a flavivirus? Which is a picornavirus?

A

Flavivirus enveloped (+) ssRNA = Hep C; Picornavirus naked (+) ssRNA = Hep A

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12
Q

What type of genome must a virus have in order to do recombination?

A

Segmented

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13
Q

Can you give live-attenuated vaccines to HIV patients?

A

If they are not showing signs of IC then it is at least safe (according to FA) to give them the MMR

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14
Q

What are 3 cancers associated with EBV?

A

1) Hodgkin’s lymphoma 2) Burkitt’s lymphoma and 3) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Asians)

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15
Q

Name 2 recombinant vaccines

A

HBV and HPV (6 and 11 = warts; 16 and 18 = cervical CA)

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16
Q

What kind of virus is Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus?

A

LCMV = Arenavirus

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17
Q

Which virus can cause a heterophile antibody negative (sheep abs) infectious mononucleosis?

A

CMV

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18
Q

What is the kissing disease? What is transmitted by the kissing bug?

A

Epstein-Barr virus; Trypanosoma cruzi

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19
Q

What causes pure red aplasia and rheumatoid arthritis like Sx in adults?

A

Parvovirus B19

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20
Q

What inclusion body do you commonly see in herpes infections?

A

Cowdry type A intranuclear (intranuclear because herpes viruses replicate IN THE NUCLEUS!)

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21
Q

What kind of virus is norovirus? Rotavirus?

A

Norovirus = a calicivirus (SS linear RNA), Rotavirus = a reovirus (DS linear 10-12 segments RNA)

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22
Q

Name 3 togaviruses

A

Measles (Rubella), Eastern Equine encephalitis; Western Equine encephalitis

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23
Q

What is exanthem subitum?

A

Roseola (HHV-6)

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24
Q

What are the 5 picornaviruses?

A

Poliovirus, Echovirus, Rhinovirus, Coxsackievirus, HAV

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25
Q

What 3 enzymes are coded for on pol gene in HIV?

A

reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease, and integrase

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26
Q

What mutations lead to immunity of AIDS? Which for a slower course?

A

Homozygous CCR5 mutations; Heterozygous CCR5 mutations

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27
Q

What is viral reassortment?

A

Occurs when viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments of their genomes (co-infect a cell)

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28
Q

What is viral phenotypic mixing?

A

When 2 viruses infect a cell and one virus takes the coat of the other virus

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29
Q

What cells are infected by EBV? Receptor?

A

B cells; CD21

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30
Q

What are the 6 live attenuated vaccines?

A

Nasal spray influenza, MMR, Yellow fever, Sabin polio, small pox, and chickenpox

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31
Q

Which flavivirus is NOT an arbovirus?

A

HCV

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32
Q

What is the test of choice for HSV?

A

PCR, however, you can identify it with a Tzanck smear of an opened skin vesicle

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33
Q

Where do most enveloped viruses get their envelope? Where do herpes viruses get theirs?

A

Plasma membrane of the cell they are infecting; the nuclear membrane

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34
Q

Which virus can lead to hydrops fetalis in utero and death?

A

Parvovirus B19

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35
Q

Anti-HAV IgM

A

active HAV

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36
Q

What are the early and late co-receptors on CD4 for HIV?

A

Early = CCR5 (MO and CD4); Late = CXCR4 (CD4)

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37
Q

Why is the live-attenuated vaccine for influenza given nasally?

A

It can replicate in the nose but cant make it to the lungs

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38
Q

How is Lassa fever virus spread?

A

By mice (Arenavirus)

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39
Q

Which hepatitis vaccine is killed? Which is recombinant?

A

HAV; HBV

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40
Q

Which DNA virus is not icosahedral?

A

poxvirus (it is complex)

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41
Q

What are the 2 main retroviruses?

A

HTLV (T-cell leukemia) and HIV

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42
Q

Why does HBV increase risk of HCC? HCV?

A

HBV because it integrates into genome; HCV because it causes chronic inflammation

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43
Q

What kind of virus is norovirus?

A

Calicivirus (+) ssRNA causes viral gastroenteritis in adults

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44
Q

What is the structure of the poxvirus genome?

A

dsDNA and linear (largest DNA virus)

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45
Q

Where does CMV go latent? EBV?

A

CMV in mononuclear cells; EBV in B cells

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46
Q

Where do most DNA viruses replicate? RNA viruses?

A

DNA viruses = nucleus; RNA = cytoplasm

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47
Q

Which virus carries its own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase?

A

Poxvirus

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48
Q

What kind of viruses are HCV, yellow fever, Dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, and West Nile virus?

A

Flaviviruses (+) ssRNA

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49
Q

What kind of virus is Rabies?

A

Rhabdovirus enveloped (-)ssRNA

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50
Q

Discuss the ontogeny of a roseola infection

A

Usually HHV-6, though can be HHV-7, leads to high fevers that may lead to febrile seizure and then abrupt defervescence followed by maculopapular rash

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51
Q

Which DNA genome viruses are circular?

A

Polyomaviridae, Papillomaviridae, Hepadnaviridae

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52
Q

Which DNA genome viruses are NOT double stranded?

A

ONLY parvoviridae (all others are dsDNA)

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53
Q

Which RNA viruses have 10-12 segments? 8 segments? 2 segments? 3 segments?

A

10-12 = Reoviridae; 8 = orthomyxoviridae 2= Arenavirus 3 = Bunyaviridae

54
Q

What do all paramyxoviruses contain that allows them to make syncytia?

A

F protein (fusion protein, molecular target of Pavalizumab)

55
Q

What is p17? P24? (in HIV)

A

p17 = matrix proteinl; p24 = capsid protein (from gag gene)

56
Q

Which cells contain Negri bodies?

A

Purkinje cells of cerebellum (intracytoplasmic inclusion)

57
Q

Where does HIV replicate during the latent phase?

A

lymph nodes

58
Q

Which herpes virus is most likely to cause febrile seizures in a child?

A

HHV-6 since they have the high fever and abrupt defervescence followed by rash

59
Q

What causes temporal lobe encephalitis?

A

HSV-1

60
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma in an AIDS pt is actually caused by _______-

A

EBV usually

61
Q

What is viral recombination?

A

The exchange of genes between 2 CHROMOSOMES by crossing over regions of significant base sequence homology

62
Q

Name 4 paramyxoviruses

A

Measles, Mumps, Parainfluenza (croup) and RSV

63
Q

What term describes when 2 viruses infect a cell and one makes a dysfunctional protein so the other virus decides to be a bro and make the functional version of the protein for its fellow virus?

A

Complementation

64
Q

What is the number 1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children?

A

Rotavirus

65
Q

4 bunyaviruses

A

Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever, Hantavirus, Sandfly/Riftvalley fever, and California encephalitis

66
Q

Worldwide vector for rabies?

A

Dog (bat, racoon, and skunk in U.S.)

67
Q

Which DNA virus does NOT replicate in the nucleus?

A

Poxvirus

68
Q

Which RNA viruses are dsRNA?

A

Reoviridae (rotavirus)

69
Q

Function of hemagluttinin? Function of neuraminidase?

A

Hemagluttinin = viral entry; Neuraminidase = viral exit

70
Q

What is the smallest DNA virus?

A

Parvovirus (ssDNA all others are ds)

71
Q

What are the 4 segmented viruses?

A

Bunyaviruses, Orthomyxoviruses, Arenaviruses, and Reoviruses

72
Q

What is the structure of the hepadnavirus genome structure?

A

dsDNA and partially circular

73
Q

What proteins are coded for on the env gene of HIV? What is the direct precursor to these?

A

gp120 (attach to CD4), gp41 (fusion); come from gp160

74
Q

What 2 diseases are caused by coronaviruses?

A

second most common cause of common cold as well as SARS

75
Q

Which virus is a rhabdovirus?

A

Rabies

76
Q

What kinds of viruses cause ebola and Marburg?

A

Filoviruses (-) SS linear RNA

77
Q

Which picornavirus is not an enterovirus? Why?

A

Rhinovirus because it is acid labile

78
Q

What is the structure of the Adenovirus genome?

A

dsDNA and circular

79
Q

What is the structure of Herpesviridae genome?

A

dsDNA and linear

80
Q

Which viruses obtain their envelope from the nuclear membrane?

A

Herpesviruses

81
Q

Which lymph nodes are most affected by EBV mononucleosis?

A

posterior cervical

82
Q

What family is the influenza virus in?

A

Orthomyxoviridae

83
Q

Pavalizumab best inhibits the ability of paramyxovirdae to do what?

A

Form syncytia; it is against the F fusion protien

84
Q

What are the largest DNA viruses?

A

Poxviruses

85
Q

What occurs when 2 viruses infect a cell and one virus is packaged in the other virus’ coat?

A

Phenotypic mixing

86
Q

What is viral complementation?

A

When 2 viruses infect a cell and 1 virus makes a dysfunctional protein so the other virus donates a functional version of that protein to the dysfunctional virus

87
Q

What is Hepevirus?

A

(+) ss linear RNA virus that cause Hep E (pregnant women, fecal oral)

88
Q

What is the structure of the virus that causes aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease?

A

Parvovirus (ssDNA all others are ds)

89
Q

Which DNA virus family is dsDNA and partially circular

A

Hepadnaviruses

90
Q

How do you get HSV-1?

A

Respiratory secretions and saliva

91
Q

What enzyme MUST a negative stranded RNA virus have with it? What are the 6 negative stranded viruses?

A

RNA dependent RNA polymerase? Arenavirus, Bunyavirus, Paramyxovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Filovirus, and Rhabovirus

92
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are RNA?

A

All except HBV (hepadnavirus); So, HAV (picornavirus), HCV (flavivirus), HEV (hepevirus), and delta agent (RNA delta virus)

93
Q

What are atypical lymphocytes? Are they infected?

A

Reactive cytotoxic T cells that are responding to EBV infection of B cells

94
Q

If you are infected with HHV-3 what are you infected with?

A

VZV

95
Q

What does a negative stranded virus bring with it?

A

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

96
Q

Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in US

A

HSV-1

97
Q

What is the most common and least common cause of roseola?

A

Most common = HHV-6; Least common = HHV-7

98
Q

What occurs when there is exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over areas with significant base sequence homology?

A

Recombination

99
Q

Which virus can cause an acute hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Adenovirus (dsDNA, linear)

100
Q

Why are screening tests for AIDS often falsely positive in newborns of infected mothers?

A

because gp120 can cross the placenta

101
Q

What are HHV 3, 4, and 5?

A

3 = VZV, 4 = EBV and 5 = CMV

102
Q

Which DNA viruses are NOT linear?

A

papilloma and polyoma (circular and supercoiled), hepadna (circular and incomplete)

103
Q

What is the structure of the Parvovirus genome?

A

ssDNA and linear (smallest DNA virus; largest = poxviruses)

104
Q

Name 2 poxviruses

A

Molluscum contagiosum; Smallpox (cowpox = vaccinia)

105
Q

What viral family (aside from HIV, which isnt really a family anyway) transcribes its RNA into 1 protein and then cleaves it?

A

Picornaviridae (polio, echo, rhino, coxsackie, HAV)

106
Q

What is the most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in the US?

A

HSV-1

107
Q

What is delta virus?

A

Hep D (requires Hep B to infect)

108
Q

What protein comes from the gag gene of HIV?

A

p24 (capsid protein, used to detect viral load)

109
Q

Which cause of hepatitis is a picornavirus?

A

HAV

110
Q

For which Herpes virus does a vaccine exist?

A

VZV

111
Q

What is the genetic makeup of the polyomaviruses? Name 2 and their associated Dz

A

DS circular DNA; JC = progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy in AIDS; BK = targets kidney transplants

112
Q

What is the difference in the rash of measles and rubella?

A

Rubella is a truncal rash typically starting on head and moving down; Measles is a full body rash)

113
Q

What antibody is positive during the window period of HBV infection?

A

Anti-HBc (core antibodies) IgM

114
Q

What are 5 important Flaviviruses?

A

HCV, Yellow fever, Dengue fever, St. louis encephalitis, West Nile virus

115
Q

What are 4 killed vaccines?

A

Rabies, Injectable influenza, Salk Polio, and HAV

116
Q

What detects active HAV infection?

A

Anti-HAV IgM

117
Q

What herpes virus has the classic owl’s eye inclusion?

A

CMV

118
Q

Which DNA virus replicates in the cytoplasm?

A

Poxvirus (i.e. smallpox, molluscum)

119
Q

What antigen is used in the recombinant HBV vaccine?

A

recombinant surface antigen HBsAg

120
Q

Which RNA viruses are NOT ssRNA?

A

Reoviridae (rotavirus)

121
Q

What are heterophile antibodies?

A

Antibodies that are used in the monospot test for EBV that agglutinate horse or sheep RBC’s

122
Q

Name 2 viral causes of aseptic meningitis

A

echovirus, coxsackievirus (both picornaviridae)

123
Q

4 areas that can get hit by mumps

A

Pancreas, Parotids, Testes (orchitis), and Meninges (aseptic meningitis).. .Note, mumps is a paramyxovirus

124
Q

What are 2 important members of Reoviridae?

A

Coltivirus (Colorado tick fever) and Rotavirus (#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in kids)

125
Q

What is the structure of the papillomavirus genome?

A

dsDNA and circular

126
Q

What virus is not a retrovirus but contains reverse transcriptase?

A

HBV

127
Q

What kind of viruses are Rubella, Eastern Equine encephalitis, and Western equine encephalitis?

A

Togaviruses (+) ssRNA

128
Q

Which DNA genome viruses are NOT linear?

A

Papillomaviridae, Polyomaviridae, and Hepadnaviruses (CIRCULAR)

129
Q

Which viruses are diploid?

A

Retroviruses contain 2 copies of ssRNA

130
Q

What are 4 important paramyxoviruses?

A

Parainfluenzae (croup), Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), Measles (rubeola) and Mumps (all can form syncytia)

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