Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

How is the herpes varicella zoster virus transmitted?
What is the incubation period and what are the symptoms?
The virus can also infect what type of cell?

A

It is transmitted via breathing out infected droplets, which will infect if it makes contact with respiratory mucosal surfaces. The virus will replicate at the mucosal surfaces for 10-20 days causing fever before being transmitted to the blood where it causes a skin rash. Chicken pox also infects sensory ganglia, the genome remaining within the cell until stress signals activate it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe how the influenza virus causes disease.

A

The influenza virus infects epithelial cells of the lung, which triggers an innate immune response. This is caused through interferons which trigger inflammation and fever. After this the acquired immune system targets and destroys the virus using antibodies. After one year the virus will have mutated enough to cause infection again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give some examples of DNA viruses.
Give some examples of positive sense RNA viruses.
Give some examples of negative sense RNA viruses.

A

Smallpox, herpes and adenoviruses.
Rhinoviruses.
Ebola virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three types of genome organisation in viruses?

What is the coding capacity of viruses? Give an example.

A

Linear,
Circular,
Segmented (multipartite).
They have a low coding capacity, smallpox has a large genome of 130-375kb but only codes for 110-200 genes. Polio has a 7-8kb genome and codes for 12 genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do interferons inhibit viral movement?

A

They induce an antiviral state in neighbouring uninfected cells. Mice engineered to lack interferons are more susceptible to viral infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are RNA viruses detected by host cells?

A

RNA viruses make double stranded RNA which is not normally made by cells. Cells do not make DNA from RNA, but they make RNA from DNA. Viral nucleic acid is detected by toll like receptors or RNA helicase proteins which activate the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Once interferons bind to neighbouring cells what occurs?

How do + sense RNA viruses prevent detection?

A

They bind to interferon receptors, the effectors of which slow virus replication and provide innate immunity and an antiviral state.
The replicase proteins of + strand viruses are targeted to the membrane. Here is where replication occurs with the replicase proteins assembling to make membrane spheres that prevent detection of the viral RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe arenaviruses.

A

This a family of viruses that cause haemorrhagic fever that is often fatal. Signs and symptoms include fever and bleeding, flushing of the face and chest, petechiae (capillary rupture), Edema, shock and hypotension. Malaise, headache, muscle pain, diarrhoea and vomiting are also frequent symptoms. These viruses are transmitted by rodents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can viruses jump species barriers?

A

Through single amino acid mutations in some cases, but there must be close contact (urbanisation) for this transfer to take place. These mutation affect viral glycoprotein which allows it to bind to tyrosine 211.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To prevent the same structure of antibody being produced what is employed?
Viruses generate errors to what probability?

A

VDJ recombination causes gene rearrangements in the variable region of antibodies, this causes antibody diversity.
1 error per 100000 base pairs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do adenoviruses suppress immune responses?

A

They produce early and late genes. The early genes encode E3 19k, which prevents recognition of the infected cell by T cells. The protein binds to the peptide binding pocket of Major Histocompatibility Complexes class 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Karposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpes Virus possesses several genes with homologies to host proteins involved in immune responses, where do these come from?

A

The virus is a DNA virus therefore it obtains them via recombination with the host cell genome. Viruses can steal immune genes and use them in defence of itself. For example, viruses can make decoy receptors and ligands to block signal transduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the benefits to early HIV diagnosis?

A

Treatments such as HAART available.
Prophylaxis against opportunistic infections if appropriate.
Appropriate investigations if unwell.
Reduced perinatal transmission.
Minimising risk of infecting others.
Relief of anxiety about knowing HIV status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the infection progress of HIV?

A

CD4 counts decline and HIV load increases,
There is an increased risk of developing infections and tumours,
The severity of these illnesses increases the lower the CD4 count is,
Most AIDs diagnoses occur at CD4 count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Approximately 30-60% of patients have what approximately 4 weeks post exposure.

A

A seroconversion illness. The symptoms are generally non-specific but may include: a flu-like illness, fever, malaise and lethargy, pharyngitis, profound damage to the immune system, toxic exanthema and lymphadenopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What disease manifestations indicate that a patient may have an HIV infection?

A

Karposi’s Sarcoma,
Oral pharyngeal candida,
CMV ulcers,
Oral hairy leukoplakia

17
Q

What disease manifestations indicate a patient may have AIDs?

A

PCP- 80% of untreated HIV patients may present with insidious onset of increasingly shortness of breath, increasing dry cough, pyrexia, malaise.
TB,
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma,
Toxoplasmosis gondii

18
Q

What is immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome?

A

This is when the immune system appears to recover but then responds overwhelmingly to an opportunistic pathogen that makes symptoms worse.

19
Q

Describe how HIV replication occurs.

A

The virus attaches to CD4 on the host cell before the genome and capsid is integrated, the lipid envelope is removed beforehand via a process known as uncoating. The RNA is converted to DNA via reverse transcription, to which the DNA circularises and is then integrated. This DNA is then transcribed and translated before the core particles are assembled and the new virus is removed from the cell via exocytosis.

20
Q

What do HAART drugs include?

A

Zidovudine, lamivudine, abacavir, stavudine, entricitabine, tenoflovir.

21
Q

What are early inhibitors?

A

These intefere with the HIV-1 binding and fusion with the membrane. Miraviroc is an example, it targets CCR5, a co-receptor.

22
Q

What are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)?

A

These are nucleotide and nucleoside analogues that inhibit reverse transcriptase. HIV is unable to infect cells if it’s RNA is not converted to DNA and integrated. Examples of these drugs include zidovudine and lamivudine.

23
Q

What are non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?

A

These interfere with reverse transcriptase by allosterically binding near to the active site of reverse transcriptase. This affects the handling of nucleotides by the enzyme, inhibiting it in a non-competitive way.

24
Q

What are integrase inhibitors?

A

These inhibit the viral integrase enzyme responsible for integrating the DNA of HIV into the host genome. Raltegravir is an example of one that has gained approval. It acts as a non-competitive inhibitor, binding to the active site and competing for binding to the Mg2+ ions in active site.

25
Q

What are protease inhibitors?

A

These prevent the cleavage of precursor proteins such as gag/pol. These precursor proteins are useless without cleavage resulting in no infection.

26
Q

What is resistance testing in regards to HIV?

A

If there are persistently detectable loads of HIV while taking ART, resistance tests can be done to see if there is drug resistance. A genotype of the virus is sequenced and compared to a database to predict responses to therapy.

27
Q

What is post exposure prophylaxis?

A

It is a course of antiretroviral drugs which reduce the risk of seroconversion after events with a high risk of HIV exposure. After 72 hours post exposure is much less effective or may not be effective at all.

28
Q

What is vCJD?

A

This is variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and is different from CJD because of its unusual young age of onset and prolonged duration.

29
Q

What are two drugs which show promise in reducing the effects of prion diseases?

A
Quinacrine has shown some promise in slowing the progression of disease in patients with vCJD. 
Pentosan polysulphate (PPS) appears to prevent conversion to PrPsc.
30
Q

Give an example of a virus that is defeated by the host immune system. Give an example of a virus that defeats the host immune system. Give an example of a virus that reaches an equilibrium with the host, host becomes a carrier. Give an example of a virus that enters a latent state after the immune response.

A

Enterovirus (Rhinovirus: common cold),
Ebolavirus (Ebola),
Hepacivirus (hepatitis C),
Simplexvirus (herpes simplex).