Viruses 2.0 Flashcards
1
Q
Through what two mechanisms does cobistat function?
A
- increase absorption by blocking intestinal efflux transporters
- by blocking CYP3A4
2
Q
P. jiroveci causes what disease in HIV patients?
A
a severe pneumonia for which they are given TMP-SMX prophylaxis
3
Q
How do the complications of influenza A and parainfluenza compare?
A
- influenza A: croup, pneumonia, COPD
- parainfluenza: croup, pneumonia, bronchiolitis
4
Q
What is a Tzanck smear?
A
a scraping of a suspected herpes lesion for identification of cowdry A bodies
5
Q
How does hantavirus disease compare to pulmonary syndrome?
A
both are mediated by endothelial damage but it is focused in the kidneys in the disease and in the lungs in the pulmonary syndrome
6
Q
What are the alpha viruses?
A
- a group of arboviruses for which humans are dead end hosts
- prevalence highest in summer when mosquitos are prevalent
7
Q
How is lassa fever spread?
A
through human-to-human transmission with a rodent reservoir
8
Q
Which NRTI is effective against HIV and HBV?
A
lamivudine
9
Q
Alafenamide and disoproxil are forms of what drug?
A
tenofovir
10
Q
Major complications of HBV
A
HCC, PAN, glomerulonephritis, cirrhosis
11
Q
What type of vaccine is best for stimulating cell-mediated immunity?
A
live, attenuated
12
Q
Which drug is metabolized by ADH?
A
abacavir
13
Q
How does ribavirin work?
A
it is an anti-metabolite that
- blocks GTP formation
- inhibits viral mRNA capping
- and inhibits viral RNA-dependent pol
14
Q
What are the four major complications of mumps?
A
- parotitis
- encephalitis
- orchitis
- juvenile diabetes
15
Q
Describe the presentation of rabies.
A
- prodromal phase
- neurologic phase of hyperactivity, hydrophobia, and hallucinations
- coma and death
16
Q
What are the side effects of efavirenz?
A
- CNS toxicity
- nightmares, amnesia, drowsiness, dizziness
17
Q
How is rabies treated?
A
- wound debridement
- passive immunization
- active immunization
18
Q
Describe the spread of rabies virus.
A
- inoculation and replication in muscle
- retrograde transport via motor neurons
- ascending infection of the CNS
- descending infection of other tissues (eye, salivary glands, skin, pancreas)
19
Q
Which viruses express Large T antigen? What does it do?
A
expressed by polyomaviruses, it is an early gene that controls transcription of late genes but is also sufficient to trigger a cancerous transformation
20
Q
At what point does a new HIV virion become infectious?
A
after release when an aspartyl protease cleaves gag and the polymerase precursors, triggering formation of the core
21
Q
What is antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity?
A
Fc binding of NK cells triggers their cytotoxic activity
22
Q
How does lamivudine work?
A
it is a cytosine analog
23
Q
Which HIV subtype is most prevalent in the US?
A
subtype B
24
Q
Which virus commonly experiences outbreaks in colleges?
A
rubella
25
What is the difference between pathogenic and non-pathogenic rabies virus?
arginine vs. glutamine or isoleucine at position 333 on the G protein
26
What is the second leading cause of mental handicap at birth?
congenital CMV
27
Human metapneumovirus is extremely similar to what other virus?
RSV
28
Which drug requires a saline preload?
foscarnet to reduce nephrotoxicity
29
What are the tat and rev genes?
HIV early genes that regulate genome replication and transcription
30
Describe the HBV C gene.
- it is transcribed with two start codons, one for p25 (precursor to HBe) and one for HBcAg
31
What is the major arenavirus?
lassa fever
32
Red eyes and bleeding orifices are symptoms of what viral infection?
ebola
33
List the four HIV NNRTIs.
- efavirenz
- nevirapine
- etravirine
- rilpivirine
34
Describe west nile neurologic disease.
- meningitis
- encephalitis
- polio-like flaccid paralysis
35
Describe the incubation period and symptomology of measles.
- 10-14 day incubation period
- cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
- fever
- rash beginning on the head and face and lasting five days
36
List three disadvantages of inactivated vaccines.
- may require boosters
- may not be possible (denaturing may lose antigenicity)
- may not be as effective
37
How does nevirapine work?
it is an NNRTI
38
What is herpangina? What virus causes it?
- painful ulcers on the palate and tongue
- dysphagia and vomiting
- due to Coxsackie A
39
Abnormal white mater granularity is associated with what disease and virus?
JC virus and PML
40
Which illness has a polio-like flaccid paralysis associated with it?
west nile
41
How does foscarnet work?
it is a pyrophosphate anti-metabolite which directly inhibits viral polymerase
42
Which virus uses NSP4 enterotoxin?
rotavirus
43
What viral syndrome is mediated by a cytokine storm?
influenza A
44
Hantaviruses has what two possible outcomes?
hantavirus disease or hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
45
How do papilloma viruses oncogenic?
they express E6 and E7 which inhibit p53 and Rb respectively
46
What virus is associated with the complications of ruptured spleen, laryngeal obstruction, and CNS signs?
infectious mono
47
Which virus is more prevalent during the cooler months of Oct-Apr?
rotavirus
48
How does aseptic meningitis present?
- meningitis symptoms
- plus diarrhea and rash
- rash is on soles and palms of feet and hands and last five days
49
To what family do the flaviviruses belong? What are the three flaviviruses?
- arboviruses
| - dengue fever, yellow fever, and west nile
50
How does rimantidine work?
it blocks the M2 channel
51
Describe an acute HIV infection.
several weeks of
- myalgia
- diarrhea
- swollen lymph nodes
52
Which virus forms virus-antibody complexes to cause arthritis?
B19 parvovirus
53
What two organisms cause mycobacteria disease in HIV? How do their syndromes differ?
- M.tb causes a pulmonary disease
| - MAC causes a more disseminated disease
54
What is sofosbuvir?
a nucleotide analog effective against HCV polymerase
55
What is the most common viral infection of a fetus?
CMV
56
How is HIV diagnosed?
- HIV-1/2 antibody test
- HIV-1/2 differentiation assay
- HIV-NAT test
57
Which viruses leave the nucleus via a double envelopment process?
herpesviruses
58
Which types of viruses are susceptible to lysis by complement?
enveloped ones
59
How is dolutegravir superior to raltegravir?
- it shows less resistance
| - and less hepatotoxicity
60
List two viral proteins that act to inhibit p53 and Rb.
- Large T gene of polyomaviruses
| - HPV E6 and E7
61
Which virus targets basal epithelial cells?
papillomavirus
62
Describe the HBV life cycle.
- receptor-mediated endocytosis
- release of core
- rcDNA into the nucleus
- polymerase converts it to cccDNA
- pgRNA and mRNA transcripts are produced
- pgRNA is encapsulated
- then pgRNA is reverse transcribed to synthesize the DNA genome
63
What is special about the kinetics of oseltamivir?
it must be activated in the gut and liver
64
Which herpes treatment is restricted to topical application?
triflurodine
65
When does post-transplant CMV start to cause a decline in transplant function?
about thirty days after
66
List four reasons someone might be only IgM anti-HBc+.
- low level chronic infection
- early infection
- recently resolved and IgG not present yet
- false positive
67
What is ribavirin used for?
- orally for HCV
| - inhalation for RSV
68
List five risk factors for someone with HBV or HCV that increase the risk of HCC.
- alcohol use/cirrhosis
- male
- over 50
- high a-fetoprotein levels
- diabetes
69
What are Downey cells?
atypical lymphocytes associated with EBV and infectious mono
70
How does rotavirus present?
- 2 day incubation
| - 7 days osmotic diuresis and abdominal pain
71
What are the symptoms of infectious mono?
- cervical lymphadenopathy
- splenomegaly
- hepatomegaly
- exudative pharyngitis
72
What three things contribute to the pathogenesis of lass fever?
- cytokine storm
- platelet dysfunction
- endothelial damage
73
Spillover dynamics are a feature of which viral infection?
ebola
74
How does ganciclovir work?
it is a chain terminating guanosine analog
75
Describe the dengue shock syndrome.
- febrile phase: measles like rash with petechiae and orbital headache
- critical phase: plasma leakage
- recovery phase: bradycardia and intense itching
76
What diseases are linked to parainfluenza virus?
- bronchiolitis
- croup
- pneumonia
77
Which virus is primarily transmitted via breast milk?
HTLV-1
78
What are the three major risk factors for RSV?
- CHF
- congenital immune deficiency
- bronchopulmonary dysplasia
79
What is the -navir suffix?
HIV protease inhibitors
80
Describe the presentation of the orf virus?
- poxvirus with ties to sheep
| - results in a singular nodular lesion that regresses in 25-35 days
81
Which virus is sometimes inserted into the host chromosome, disrupting the E2 gene and leading to a malignant transformation?
papillomavirus
82
Which drug is known to cause bronchospasms in asthmatics?
zanamivir
83
How does zidovudine work?
it is a thymidine analog and chain terminator
84
How does HCV contribute to the pathogenesis of HCC?
chronic inflammation leads to ROS and telomere dysfunction, thereby creating genomic instrability
85
Which virus has four latency programs? Why are they important?
- EBV
| - because they interfere with cellular control mechanisms
86
Name two advantages of inactivated vaccines.
- no virulent risk
| - very stable
87
Which is the fusion protein, gp41 or gp120?
gp41
88
List the five HIV NRTIs.
- zidovudine
- lamivudine
- emtricitabine
- abacavir
- tenofovir
89
What kind of drug is efavirenz?
a NNRTI
90
Describe the time course of norwalk virus.
- 2 day incubation period
| - 2 day symptomatic period
91
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with what viral infection?
measles
92
What is the benefit of alafenamide over disoproxil?
it has less renal toxicity and bone loss
93
Which immune deficiencies don't really raise one's risk of viral infection?
- complement
| - phagocyte
94
Which virus is associated with arthritis that may last weeks to years?
B19 parvovirus
95
What kind of genome does rotavirus carry?
a segmented, dsRNA virus
96
The sin nombre hantavirus causes what disease?
hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
97
Which group of viruses cause either a productive infection or cancer?
the papovaviridae family (including papilloma and the polyomas JC, BK, and SV-40)
98
Describe yellow fever.
a hemorrhagic fever with positive Faget's sign (bradycardia) and jaundice
99
Where does neonatal herpes spread? How does the gross pathology reflect that?
- liver, lungs, and CNS
| - yellowish liver lesions and brain atrophy
100
What does it mean if someone is anti-HBs+?
they have immunity
101
How does congenital rubella present?
- a classic triad of cataracts, heart defects, and sensorineural deafness
- baby is often premature and dies
102
What enterovirus is not caused by Coxsackie A?
orchitis
103
Measles is similar to what other virus?
rubella
104
What is emtricitabine?
the fluorinated form of lamivudine
105
What protein do all paramyxoviruses have in common?
the F fusion protein
106
Which virus has a triple layer capsid of VP4, 6, and 7?
rotavirus
107
HSV-1 is associated with what diseases?
- herpes labialis
- herpes whitlow
- herpes gladitorum
- herpes keratoconjunctivitis
- herpes encephalitis
108
The incubation period of rabies depends on what four factors?
- concentration of virus introduced
- proximity of the wound to the brain
- severity of the wound
- the host's immune status
109
How does viral protein and viral DNA content change as one progresses from CIN I to II to III?
- viral DNA found only higher and higher
| - E6 and E7 expression extends more outward
110
What are the most common forms of HCV?
Ia, Ib, II, III
111
How does herpes encephalitis present?
- fever, confusion, seizures, and coma
| - don't confusion with taxoplasmosis (confusion, fever, weakness, headache)
112
Which immune deficiency poses the greatest risk for viral infection?
compromised T cell immunity
113
What disease presents with scaring of skin, limb hypoplasia, and CNS defects?
congenital varicella
114
How does HBV contribute to the pathogenesis of HCC?
- viral protein X
- integration into the host genome
- chronic inflammation
115
Describe the presentation of roseola infants?
- abrupt onset fever for three days
| - resolves with onset of pink exanthema lasting 1-2 days
116
Which virus has ribosomes captured from host cells?
lassa fever of the genus arenaviridae
117
What is protein X?
an HBV protein that mediates HCC pathogenesis
118
Which drug can be predicted to cause a hypersensitivity reaction if the recipient is HLA-B5701 positive?
abacavir
119
Ring enhancing lesions are a feature of which disease?
taxoplasmosis
120
What mediates the hepatitis pathologies?
they are immune mediated
121
How does triflurodine work?
it is a thymidine analog
122
List the three proteins important for influenza virus cell invasion.
- neuraminidase
- hemagluttinin
- M2
123
Endemic Burkitt's lymphoma affects which population?
those 2-14 living in equatorial Africa
124
Most influenza viruses have an incubation period of ___ and symptomatic period of ___.
- 1-4 days
| - 2-5 days
125
Which virus infects erythroid precursor cells?
B19 parvovirus
126
What regimen is used to eradicate HCV?
- interferon a
- sofosbuvir
- ribavirin
127
How long do influenza A symptoms last?
3 days
128
Which group of viruses require an arthropod vector?
arboviruses
129
Negri bodies are a feature of which virus?
rabies virus
130
Which viruses are associated with sheep?
rift valley fever phlebovirus and the orf poxvirus
131
Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with what two tumor types?
- endemic: extranodal
| - sporadic and HIV-associated: lymph node
132
What is the -pristin suffix?
streptogramins
133
What is hand, foot, and mouth disease? What causes it?
- vesicular lesions on the hands, feet, and palate
| - caused by Coxsackie A
134
Which virus is carried by deer and mice?
sin nombre hantavirus
135
Which virus has a segmented, negative strand RNA genome?
the influenza viruses
136
HIV patients suffer primary CNS lymphomas due to what pathogen?
EBV
137
Mortality associated with hantavirus pulmonary disease is due to what two complications?
- shock
| - cardiac complications
138
Hydrophobia and the desire not to eat or drink is characteristic of what disease?
rabies
139
What is the transmission cycle of dengue fever, yellow fever, and west nile virus?
- dengue: human-mosq-human
- yellow: human-mosq-human or monkey-mosq-human
- west nile: bird-mosq-human
140
What is pleurodynia? What causes it?
- fever, unilateral low thoracic pleuritic chest pain lasting four days
- caused by coxsackie B
141
Rabies has a tropism for what tissue?
CNS
142
Cidofovir is given alongside what other drug?
probenecid
143
Hantaviruses primarily attack which organ?
the kidneys
144
What samples are analyzed to make a rabies diagnosis?
saliva and skin analysis via RT-PCR
145
How does the time course of rhinovirus compare to that of coronavirus?
- rhinovirus has a 2 day incubation and 9-10 day symptomatic period
- coronavirus has a 3 day incubation period and 6-7 day s symptomatic period
146
What is special about darunavir as an HIV protease inhibitor?
it continues to work when HIV becomes resistant to other PIs
147
List the five major mediators of cytokine storms.
- type I IFNs
- IFN gamma
- IL-1
- IL-6
- TNFa
148
How does RSV present?
wheezing and apnea
149
Which two drugs are typically given with probenecid?
cidofovir and penecillin
150
What is hydrops fetalis?
a condition caused by B19 parvovirus in utero with accumulation of fluid in at least two compartments
151
HIV protease inhibitors typically share what side effects? Which is excluded?
- hyperbilirubinemia and metabolic syndrome
| - atazanavir is not
152
Which drug is dependent on a viral thymidine kinase?
acyclovir
153
What is the -gravir suffix?
HIV integrase inhibitors
154
What are the four important poxviruses?
- variola: small pox
- vaccinia: small pox vaccine
- orf: localized skin lesions
- molluscum contagiosum: widespread skin lesions
155
How does subacute sclerosing panencephalitis present?
cognitive and then motor signs with death after 6 months
156
What is zidovudine used for?
single dose therapy to prevent maternal transmission
157
Where is yellow fever endemic?
south america and sub-saharan africa
158
Why is the G protein important for rabies?
it mediates entry into the host and the viruses pathogenicity
159
How does acyclovir work?
it is a chain terminating guanosine analog
160
How are RSV and human metapneumovirus treated?
IVIG, supportive care, and aerosolized ribavirn
161
How does rubella compare to measles?
- measles has the three Cs while rubella causes sore throat and lymphadenopathy
- the measles rash persists longer and is more sever
162
What is the most common viral infection of transplant patients?
CMV
163
The hantaviruses are perpetuated by which invertebrate species?
rodents
164
The enteroviruses cause what six diseases?
- myocarditis, meningitis, orchitis, paralysis, febrile exanthem, ARD
165
List the six paramyxoviruses.
- measles
- mumps
- rubella
- parainfluenza
- RSV
- human metapneumovirus
166
group A, G1P[8] is a subtype of what virus?
rotavirus
167
Which family of viruses has a a dsDNA genome complexed by histones with a control region and bidirectional transcription of early and late genes?
polyomaviruses
168
What is simeprevir?
an HCV protease inhibitor
169
Which hepatitis virus expresses the S, P, and C genes?
HBV
170
Which disease is associated with a c-myc translocation of chromosome 8 with 14 or 22?
Burkitt's lymphoma (EBV)
171
What are the three features of influenza syndrome?
- non-productive cough
- nasal congestion
- pharyngeal pain
172
The polyomaviruses enter via the ____ and persistent in the ___.
- respiratory tract
| - kidneys
173
What is Hodgkin's lymphoma?
a rare EBV associated tumor see in those 16-34 and over 55
174
Generally, elite long-term controllers have what ability compared to other HIV-infected patients?
a strong CTL response
175
Herpes viruses use what three host cell receptors to gain entry?
- heparin sulfate
- CR2
- integrins
176
Which virus results in a singular nodular lesion that regresses in 25-35 days?
orf poxvirus
177
How does maraviroc work?
it interferes with the gp120-CCR5 interaction
178
List four ways HIV evades the host immune system.
- depletes CD4 cells
- changes antigen structure
- down regulates MHC-I expression
- coats gp120 with glycosyl groups mimicking host
179
How does abacavir work?
it is a guanosine analog
180
Through what two mechanisms are NK cells cytotoxic?
- Fas/FasL
| - perforin/granzyme
181
How do type I interferons protect against viral infection?
- Jak/Stat signaling
- inhibit viral translation
- degrade viral RNA
- up regulate MHC-I antigen presentation
182
How does molluscum contagiosum skin infection present?
groups of 5-20 wart-like lesions on the trunk and proximal extremities
183
HPV E7 performs what function?
binds and degrades Rb so E2F can dimerize and promote cyclin expression
184
To which group of viruses does the sin nombre subtype belong?
hantaviruses (of bunyaviridae)
185
When do rhinovirus and coronavirus peak in incidence?
- rhinovirus: summer/fall
| - coronavirus: winter/early spring
186
Which group of dsDNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm?
the very large poxviruses
187
What is herpesviridae VP16?
a protein that regulates transcription of immediate early genes
188
Influenza A has what three complications?
- pneumonia
- croup
- exacerbated COPD
189
How does adenovirus present? In what populations?
it causes acute respiratory illness in boarding school residents and military recruits
190
What is a provirus?
a dsDNA intermediate through which retroviruses replicate that gets integrated into the host genome
191
Which group of viruses have a fast replication cycle, lyse host cells, and inhibit host cell translation in favor of their own?
picornaviruses
192
Oral hairy leukoplakia is cause by what pathogen?
EBV
193
HTLV-1 targets which host cell population?
CD4 cells
194
How does lassa fever present?
patchy, ulcerative pharyngeal lesions
195
How are type I interferons activated?
they are induced by TLR and NLR signaling
196
List two mechanisms by which HPV virus evades the host immune system.
- no blood-borne phase
- minimal protein production in basal cells, delayed until terminal differentiation into keratinocytes, which are less accessible to immune cells
197
What is the time course for primary genital herpes?
- 5 day incubation period
| - 3-4 weeks for lesions to heal
198
What is the most common complication of measles?
acute otitis media
199
What is dumb rabies?
a presentation without the neurologic phase
200
HSV-2 is associated with what diseases?
- genital lesions
- encephalitis
- pharyngitis
- herpes whitlow
- neonatal herpes
201
What are the symptoms of zika virus?
- microcephaly
- Guillan-Barre syndrome
- paralysis
- non purulent conjunctivitis
202
How is ebola treated?
- ribavirin
- supportive care with clotting factor and blood replacement
- monoclonal antibodies
203
What are the two possible outcomes of JC infection?
- active infection: vision and hearing loss, paralysis, mental deterioration, sensory deficits
- oligodendrocyte infection and PML
204
Which viruses are capable of forming syncytia?
herpesviruses and paramyxoviruses (measles, mumps, RSV, hmetapneumovirus
205
Which virus is only passed to the fetus during the first trimester?
rubella
206
Which disease has an endemic, sporadic, and HIV-1-associated form? Which has a classical, transplant associated, African aggressive, and AIDS-associated form?
- Burkitt's lymphoma
| - Kaposi sarcoma
207
Who is most affected by cryptococcal meningoencephalitis?
those with a CD4 count below 100
208
Which antiviral doesn't get into the CNS much but is very toxic to the CNS?
efavirenz
209
Herpesviruses carry what sort of genome?
dsDNA with temporal transcription
210
Which virus begins with parotid swelling?
mumps
211
Who is affected by eczema herpeticum?
children with atopic dermatitis and burn patients
212
What is important about the early genes of papilloma viruses?
they are sufficient for cancerous transformation
213
Which disease has an intranuclear inclusion and "buckshot" appearance?
CMV inclusion
214
Which virus is more common in older men of Jewish or Italian ancestry?
Kaposi Sarcoma (HHV-8)
215
What is a Dane particle?
the only one of three HBV viral particles that is actually infectious
216
How does non-pathogenic rabies virus compare to the pathogenic form?
it has slower entry into cells and slower spread
217
List the five histologic indicators of AIDS-related dementia.
- white mater pallor
- microglial nodules
- perivascular infiltrate
- giant cells
- loss of temporal and frontal neurons
218
RSV is linked to what diseases in adolescents?
- LRTI
- pneumonia
- bronchiolitis
219
Why is enfuvirtide rarely used?
it requires injections every four hours which typically cause an injection site reaction
220
Describe the three histologic features of chronic hepatitis.
- perivascular infiltrate
- councilman bodies
- piecemeal necrosis
221
List four antiviral roles of helper T cells.
- promote B cell proliferation and class switching
- promote CTL differentiation
- promote NK cell activation
- promote macrophage activity
222
Which antiviral drug is known to cause Steven-Johnson syndrome?
simeprevir
223
What is the most clinically relevant filovirus?
ebola
224
Describe the HIV life cycle.
- fusion
- partial uncaring to form reverse transcriptase complex
- formation of dsDNA
- formation of pre-integration complex
- enter into nucleus
- integrase mediates integration
- host enzymes repair
- rev/tat expression mediate transcription and expression
225
What disease is associated with jaundice, purple skin blotches, sensorineural hearing loss, vision loss, and mental disability?
CMV inclusion disease
226
Who is affected by CMV inclusion disease?
babies of seronegative mothers
227
How does enfuvirtide work?
it is a HIV fusion inhibitor
228
How does hantavirus disease progress?
- febrile phase with a severe flu-like illness
- hypotensive phase
- renal failure phase
- diuretic phase
- convalescent phase
229
Enterovirus pathology is mediated by what?
viral replication
230
Which virus has sensorineural deficits that appear during early convalescence, independent of illness severity, and persist for life?
lassa fever
231
What is astroviridae?
a family of GI viruses associated with endemic gastroenteritis in young children and neonates
232
Which hepatitis virus spreads directly through the basolateral membrane?
HCV
233
What is the role of GP, SGP, VP24, and VP35 in the pathogenesis of ebola virus?
- GP forms virus like particles which activate endothelial cells
- sGP has anti-TNFa properties
- VP24 and VP35 are INFa/B antagonists
234
Which drug is used to treat HIV in pregnant women?
lamivudine
235
What presents with an abrupt onset fever followed by a vesicular rash on the third day?
small pox
236
How does tenofovir work?
it is a monophosphate analog chain terminator
237
Who is most at risk for parainfluenza viral infection?
stem cell and organ transplant patients
238
Which viruses are ssDNA and prime themselves?
the parvoviruses
239
What is the typical incubation period for rabies?
2-12 weeks
240
How does toxoplasmosis present in those with HIV?
as a CNS disease with cognitive and then motor signs
241
Why is adenovirus-associated virus important?
it integrates via homologous recombination with chromosome 19
242
Describe the filoviruses.
- long, skinny, and pleomorphic
| - containing 1-20 copies of negative strand RNA
243
What innate immune components are present at birth and capable of fighting viruses?
- NK cells
- complement
- interferons
244
Which disease are Reed-Stenberg cells associated with?
cells associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma
245
What is PVAN?
an infection of BK which targets epithelial cells of the tubules and collecting ducts and is a major concern for renal transplant cases
246
What cancers are associated with BK virus?
- beta-islet adenoma
| - brain tumors
247
What happens to the HBeAg after it is produced?
it is released
248
What is telaprevir?
an HCV protease inhibitor
249
Which antiviral gets to 3x the level in Asian individuals?
simeprevir
250
What are negri bodies composed of?
coiled ribonucleoproteins from rabies virus
251
How does cidofovir work?
it is a nucleotide analog
252
What kind of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?
inactivated whole virus
253
HPV E6 performs what function?
inhibits p53
254
List three diseases caused by HTLV-1.
- adult T cell lymphoma/leukemia
- tropical spastic paraparesis
- HTLV-1-associated myelopathy
255
What is the most important immune response to the rabies virus?
humoral immunity focused on anti-G protein antibodies
256
Which virus is associated with a "slapped cheek" rash?
B19 parvovirus
257
Hemaglutinin binds what host receptor?
sialic acid
258
How does Kaposi sarcoma present?
purple skin blotches and GI involvement
259
On which gene are gp41 and gp120 encoded?
the env gene of HIV
260
Describe ebola hemorrhagic fever.
- 3-21 day incubation period
- prodrome
- erythematous rash
- hemorrhages begin in the conjunctiva and mucosal membranes
261
Which group of viruses depend on wild animals for persistence?
the bunyaviridae (bunyaviruses, phleboviruses, and hantaviruses)
262
Why is post-exposure vaccination possible in rabies?
because of the long incubation period
263
What is herpes whitlow?
HSV-1/2 infection of the hands and wrists
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What cancers are associated with SV-40 virus?
osteosarcoma, mesothelioma, and meningioma
