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Infectious Disease > Viruses 2.0 > Flashcards

Viruses 2.0 Flashcards

1
Q

Through what two mechanisms does cobistat function?

A
  • increase absorption by blocking intestinal efflux transporters
  • by blocking CYP3A4
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2
Q

P. jiroveci causes what disease in HIV patients?

A

a severe pneumonia for which they are given TMP-SMX prophylaxis

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3
Q

How do the complications of influenza A and parainfluenza compare?

A
  • influenza A: croup, pneumonia, COPD

- parainfluenza: croup, pneumonia, bronchiolitis

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4
Q

What is a Tzanck smear?

A

a scraping of a suspected herpes lesion for identification of cowdry A bodies

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5
Q

How does hantavirus disease compare to pulmonary syndrome?

A

both are mediated by endothelial damage but it is focused in the kidneys in the disease and in the lungs in the pulmonary syndrome

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6
Q

What are the alpha viruses?

A
  • a group of arboviruses for which humans are dead end hosts

- prevalence highest in summer when mosquitos are prevalent

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7
Q

How is lassa fever spread?

A

through human-to-human transmission with a rodent reservoir

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8
Q

Which NRTI is effective against HIV and HBV?

A

lamivudine

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9
Q

Alafenamide and disoproxil are forms of what drug?

A

tenofovir

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10
Q

Major complications of HBV

A

HCC, PAN, glomerulonephritis, cirrhosis

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11
Q

What type of vaccine is best for stimulating cell-mediated immunity?

A

live, attenuated

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12
Q

Which drug is metabolized by ADH?

A

abacavir

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13
Q

How does ribavirin work?

A

it is an anti-metabolite that

  • blocks GTP formation
  • inhibits viral mRNA capping
  • and inhibits viral RNA-dependent pol
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14
Q

What are the four major complications of mumps?

A
  • parotitis
  • encephalitis
  • orchitis
  • juvenile diabetes
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15
Q

Describe the presentation of rabies.

A
  • prodromal phase
  • neurologic phase of hyperactivity, hydrophobia, and hallucinations
  • coma and death
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16
Q

What are the side effects of efavirenz?

A
  • CNS toxicity

- nightmares, amnesia, drowsiness, dizziness

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17
Q

How is rabies treated?

A
  • wound debridement
  • passive immunization
  • active immunization
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18
Q

Describe the spread of rabies virus.

A
  • inoculation and replication in muscle
  • retrograde transport via motor neurons
  • ascending infection of the CNS
  • descending infection of other tissues (eye, salivary glands, skin, pancreas)
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19
Q

Which viruses express Large T antigen? What does it do?

A

expressed by polyomaviruses, it is an early gene that controls transcription of late genes but is also sufficient to trigger a cancerous transformation

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20
Q

At what point does a new HIV virion become infectious?

A

after release when an aspartyl protease cleaves gag and the polymerase precursors, triggering formation of the core

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21
Q

What is antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity?

A

Fc binding of NK cells triggers their cytotoxic activity

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22
Q

How does lamivudine work?

A

it is a cytosine analog

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23
Q

Which HIV subtype is most prevalent in the US?

A

subtype B

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24
Q

Which virus commonly experiences outbreaks in colleges?

A

rubella

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25
Q

What is the difference between pathogenic and non-pathogenic rabies virus?

A

arginine vs. glutamine or isoleucine at position 333 on the G protein

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26
Q

What is the second leading cause of mental handicap at birth?

A

congenital CMV

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27
Q

Human metapneumovirus is extremely similar to what other virus?

A

RSV

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28
Q

Which drug requires a saline preload?

A

foscarnet to reduce nephrotoxicity

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29
Q

What are the tat and rev genes?

A

HIV early genes that regulate genome replication and transcription

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30
Q

Describe the HBV C gene.

A
  • it is transcribed with two start codons, one for p25 (precursor to HBe) and one for HBcAg
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31
Q

What is the major arenavirus?

A

lassa fever

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32
Q

Red eyes and bleeding orifices are symptoms of what viral infection?

A

ebola

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33
Q

List the four HIV NNRTIs.

A
  • efavirenz
  • nevirapine
  • etravirine
  • rilpivirine
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34
Q

Describe west nile neurologic disease.

A
  • meningitis
  • encephalitis
  • polio-like flaccid paralysis
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35
Q

Describe the incubation period and symptomology of measles.

A
  • 10-14 day incubation period
  • cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
  • fever
  • rash beginning on the head and face and lasting five days
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36
Q

List three disadvantages of inactivated vaccines.

A
  • may require boosters
  • may not be possible (denaturing may lose antigenicity)
  • may not be as effective
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37
Q

How does nevirapine work?

A

it is an NNRTI

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38
Q

What is herpangina? What virus causes it?

A
  • painful ulcers on the palate and tongue
  • dysphagia and vomiting
  • due to Coxsackie A
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39
Q

Abnormal white mater granularity is associated with what disease and virus?

A

JC virus and PML

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40
Q

Which illness has a polio-like flaccid paralysis associated with it?

A

west nile

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41
Q

How does foscarnet work?

A

it is a pyrophosphate anti-metabolite which directly inhibits viral polymerase

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42
Q

Which virus uses NSP4 enterotoxin?

A

rotavirus

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43
Q

What viral syndrome is mediated by a cytokine storm?

A

influenza A

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44
Q

Hantaviruses has what two possible outcomes?

A

hantavirus disease or hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

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45
Q

How do papilloma viruses oncogenic?

A

they express E6 and E7 which inhibit p53 and Rb respectively

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46
Q

What virus is associated with the complications of ruptured spleen, laryngeal obstruction, and CNS signs?

A

infectious mono

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47
Q

Which virus is more prevalent during the cooler months of Oct-Apr?

A

rotavirus

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48
Q

How does aseptic meningitis present?

A
  • meningitis symptoms
  • plus diarrhea and rash
  • rash is on soles and palms of feet and hands and last five days
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49
Q

To what family do the flaviviruses belong? What are the three flaviviruses?

A
  • arboviruses

- dengue fever, yellow fever, and west nile

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50
Q

How does rimantidine work?

A

it blocks the M2 channel

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51
Q

Describe an acute HIV infection.

A

several weeks of

  • myalgia
  • diarrhea
  • swollen lymph nodes
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52
Q

Which virus forms virus-antibody complexes to cause arthritis?

A

B19 parvovirus

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53
Q

What two organisms cause mycobacteria disease in HIV? How do their syndromes differ?

A
  • M.tb causes a pulmonary disease

- MAC causes a more disseminated disease

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54
Q

What is sofosbuvir?

A

a nucleotide analog effective against HCV polymerase

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55
Q

What is the most common viral infection of a fetus?

A

CMV

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56
Q

How is HIV diagnosed?

A
  • HIV-1/2 antibody test
  • HIV-1/2 differentiation assay
  • HIV-NAT test
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57
Q

Which viruses leave the nucleus via a double envelopment process?

A

herpesviruses

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58
Q

Which types of viruses are susceptible to lysis by complement?

A

enveloped ones

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59
Q

How is dolutegravir superior to raltegravir?

A
  • it shows less resistance

- and less hepatotoxicity

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60
Q

List two viral proteins that act to inhibit p53 and Rb.

A
  • Large T gene of polyomaviruses

- HPV E6 and E7

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61
Q

Which virus targets basal epithelial cells?

A

papillomavirus

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62
Q

Describe the HBV life cycle.

A
  • receptor-mediated endocytosis
  • release of core
  • rcDNA into the nucleus
  • polymerase converts it to cccDNA
  • pgRNA and mRNA transcripts are produced
  • pgRNA is encapsulated
  • then pgRNA is reverse transcribed to synthesize the DNA genome
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63
Q

What is special about the kinetics of oseltamivir?

A

it must be activated in the gut and liver

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64
Q

Which herpes treatment is restricted to topical application?

A

triflurodine

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65
Q

When does post-transplant CMV start to cause a decline in transplant function?

A

about thirty days after

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66
Q

List four reasons someone might be only IgM anti-HBc+.

A
  • low level chronic infection
  • early infection
  • recently resolved and IgG not present yet
  • false positive
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67
Q

What is ribavirin used for?

A
  • orally for HCV

- inhalation for RSV

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68
Q

List five risk factors for someone with HBV or HCV that increase the risk of HCC.

A
  • alcohol use/cirrhosis
  • male
  • over 50
  • high a-fetoprotein levels
  • diabetes
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69
Q

What are Downey cells?

A

atypical lymphocytes associated with EBV and infectious mono

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70
Q

How does rotavirus present?

A
  • 2 day incubation

- 7 days osmotic diuresis and abdominal pain

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71
Q

What are the symptoms of infectious mono?

A
  • cervical lymphadenopathy
  • splenomegaly
  • hepatomegaly
  • exudative pharyngitis
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72
Q

What three things contribute to the pathogenesis of lass fever?

A
  • cytokine storm
  • platelet dysfunction
  • endothelial damage
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73
Q

Spillover dynamics are a feature of which viral infection?

A

ebola

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74
Q

How does ganciclovir work?

A

it is a chain terminating guanosine analog

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75
Q

Describe the dengue shock syndrome.

A
  • febrile phase: measles like rash with petechiae and orbital headache
  • critical phase: plasma leakage
  • recovery phase: bradycardia and intense itching
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76
Q

What diseases are linked to parainfluenza virus?

A
  • bronchiolitis
  • croup
  • pneumonia
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77
Q

Which virus is primarily transmitted via breast milk?

A

HTLV-1

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78
Q

What are the three major risk factors for RSV?

A
  • CHF
  • congenital immune deficiency
  • bronchopulmonary dysplasia
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79
Q

What is the -navir suffix?

A

HIV protease inhibitors

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80
Q

Describe the presentation of the orf virus?

A
  • poxvirus with ties to sheep

- results in a singular nodular lesion that regresses in 25-35 days

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81
Q

Which virus is sometimes inserted into the host chromosome, disrupting the E2 gene and leading to a malignant transformation?

A

papillomavirus

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82
Q

Which drug is known to cause bronchospasms in asthmatics?

A

zanamivir

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83
Q

How does zidovudine work?

A

it is a thymidine analog and chain terminator

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84
Q

How does HCV contribute to the pathogenesis of HCC?

A

chronic inflammation leads to ROS and telomere dysfunction, thereby creating genomic instrability

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85
Q

Which virus has four latency programs? Why are they important?

A
  • EBV

- because they interfere with cellular control mechanisms

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86
Q

Name two advantages of inactivated vaccines.

A
  • no virulent risk

- very stable

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87
Q

Which is the fusion protein, gp41 or gp120?

A

gp41

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88
Q

List the five HIV NRTIs.

A
  • zidovudine
  • lamivudine
  • emtricitabine
  • abacavir
  • tenofovir
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89
Q

What kind of drug is efavirenz?

A

a NNRTI

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90
Q

Describe the time course of norwalk virus.

A
  • 2 day incubation period

- 2 day symptomatic period

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91
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with what viral infection?

A

measles

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92
Q

What is the benefit of alafenamide over disoproxil?

A

it has less renal toxicity and bone loss

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93
Q

Which immune deficiencies don’t really raise one’s risk of viral infection?

A
  • complement

- phagocyte

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94
Q

Which virus is associated with arthritis that may last weeks to years?

A

B19 parvovirus

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95
Q

What kind of genome does rotavirus carry?

A

a segmented, dsRNA virus

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96
Q

The sin nombre hantavirus causes what disease?

A

hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

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97
Q

Which group of viruses cause either a productive infection or cancer?

A

the papovaviridae family (including papilloma and the polyomas JC, BK, and SV-40)

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98
Q

Describe yellow fever.

A

a hemorrhagic fever with positive Faget’s sign (bradycardia) and jaundice

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99
Q

Where does neonatal herpes spread? How does the gross pathology reflect that?

A
  • liver, lungs, and CNS

- yellowish liver lesions and brain atrophy

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100
Q

What does it mean if someone is anti-HBs+?

A

they have immunity

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101
Q

How does congenital rubella present?

A
  • a classic triad of cataracts, heart defects, and sensorineural deafness
  • baby is often premature and dies
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102
Q

What enterovirus is not caused by Coxsackie A?

A

orchitis

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103
Q

Measles is similar to what other virus?

A

rubella

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104
Q

What is emtricitabine?

A

the fluorinated form of lamivudine

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105
Q

What protein do all paramyxoviruses have in common?

A

the F fusion protein

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106
Q

Which virus has a triple layer capsid of VP4, 6, and 7?

A

rotavirus

107
Q

HSV-1 is associated with what diseases?

A
  • herpes labialis
  • herpes whitlow
  • herpes gladitorum
  • herpes keratoconjunctivitis
  • herpes encephalitis
108
Q

The incubation period of rabies depends on what four factors?

A
  • concentration of virus introduced
  • proximity of the wound to the brain
  • severity of the wound
  • the host’s immune status
109
Q

How does viral protein and viral DNA content change as one progresses from CIN I to II to III?

A
  • viral DNA found only higher and higher

- E6 and E7 expression extends more outward

110
Q

What are the most common forms of HCV?

A

Ia, Ib, II, III

111
Q

How does herpes encephalitis present?

A
  • fever, confusion, seizures, and coma

- don’t confusion with taxoplasmosis (confusion, fever, weakness, headache)

112
Q

Which immune deficiency poses the greatest risk for viral infection?

A

compromised T cell immunity

113
Q

What disease presents with scaring of skin, limb hypoplasia, and CNS defects?

A

congenital varicella

114
Q

How does HBV contribute to the pathogenesis of HCC?

A
  • viral protein X
  • integration into the host genome
  • chronic inflammation
115
Q

Describe the presentation of roseola infants?

A
  • abrupt onset fever for three days

- resolves with onset of pink exanthema lasting 1-2 days

116
Q

Which virus has ribosomes captured from host cells?

A

lassa fever of the genus arenaviridae

117
Q

What is protein X?

A

an HBV protein that mediates HCC pathogenesis

118
Q

Which drug can be predicted to cause a hypersensitivity reaction if the recipient is HLA-B5701 positive?

A

abacavir

119
Q

Ring enhancing lesions are a feature of which disease?

A

taxoplasmosis

120
Q

What mediates the hepatitis pathologies?

A

they are immune mediated

121
Q

How does triflurodine work?

A

it is a thymidine analog

122
Q

List the three proteins important for influenza virus cell invasion.

A
  • neuraminidase
  • hemagluttinin
  • M2
123
Q

Endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma affects which population?

A

those 2-14 living in equatorial Africa

124
Q

Most influenza viruses have an incubation period of ___ and symptomatic period of ___.

A
  • 1-4 days

- 2-5 days

125
Q

Which virus infects erythroid precursor cells?

A

B19 parvovirus

126
Q

What regimen is used to eradicate HCV?

A
  • interferon a
  • sofosbuvir
  • ribavirin
127
Q

How long do influenza A symptoms last?

A

3 days

128
Q

Which group of viruses require an arthropod vector?

A

arboviruses

129
Q

Negri bodies are a feature of which virus?

A

rabies virus

130
Q

Which viruses are associated with sheep?

A

rift valley fever phlebovirus and the orf poxvirus

131
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with what two tumor types?

A
  • endemic: extranodal

- sporadic and HIV-associated: lymph node

132
Q

What is the -pristin suffix?

A

streptogramins

133
Q

What is hand, foot, and mouth disease? What causes it?

A
  • vesicular lesions on the hands, feet, and palate

- caused by Coxsackie A

134
Q

Which virus is carried by deer and mice?

A

sin nombre hantavirus

135
Q

Which virus has a segmented, negative strand RNA genome?

A

the influenza viruses

136
Q

HIV patients suffer primary CNS lymphomas due to what pathogen?

A

EBV

137
Q

Mortality associated with hantavirus pulmonary disease is due to what two complications?

A
  • shock

- cardiac complications

138
Q

Hydrophobia and the desire not to eat or drink is characteristic of what disease?

A

rabies

139
Q

What is the transmission cycle of dengue fever, yellow fever, and west nile virus?

A
  • dengue: human-mosq-human
  • yellow: human-mosq-human or monkey-mosq-human
  • west nile: bird-mosq-human
140
Q

What is pleurodynia? What causes it?

A
  • fever, unilateral low thoracic pleuritic chest pain lasting four days
  • caused by coxsackie B
141
Q

Rabies has a tropism for what tissue?

A

CNS

142
Q

Cidofovir is given alongside what other drug?

A

probenecid

143
Q

Hantaviruses primarily attack which organ?

A

the kidneys

144
Q

What samples are analyzed to make a rabies diagnosis?

A

saliva and skin analysis via RT-PCR

145
Q

How does the time course of rhinovirus compare to that of coronavirus?

A
  • rhinovirus has a 2 day incubation and 9-10 day symptomatic period
  • coronavirus has a 3 day incubation period and 6-7 day s symptomatic period
146
Q

What is special about darunavir as an HIV protease inhibitor?

A

it continues to work when HIV becomes resistant to other PIs

147
Q

List the five major mediators of cytokine storms.

A
  • type I IFNs
  • IFN gamma
  • IL-1
  • IL-6
  • TNFa
148
Q

How does RSV present?

A

wheezing and apnea

149
Q

Which two drugs are typically given with probenecid?

A

cidofovir and penecillin

150
Q

What is hydrops fetalis?

A

a condition caused by B19 parvovirus in utero with accumulation of fluid in at least two compartments

151
Q

HIV protease inhibitors typically share what side effects? Which is excluded?

A
  • hyperbilirubinemia and metabolic syndrome

- atazanavir is not

152
Q

Which drug is dependent on a viral thymidine kinase?

A

acyclovir

153
Q

What is the -gravir suffix?

A

HIV integrase inhibitors

154
Q

What are the four important poxviruses?

A
  • variola: small pox
  • vaccinia: small pox vaccine
  • orf: localized skin lesions
  • molluscum contagiosum: widespread skin lesions
155
Q

How does subacute sclerosing panencephalitis present?

A

cognitive and then motor signs with death after 6 months

156
Q

What is zidovudine used for?

A

single dose therapy to prevent maternal transmission

157
Q

Where is yellow fever endemic?

A

south america and sub-saharan africa

158
Q

Why is the G protein important for rabies?

A

it mediates entry into the host and the viruses pathogenicity

159
Q

How does acyclovir work?

A

it is a chain terminating guanosine analog

160
Q

How are RSV and human metapneumovirus treated?

A

IVIG, supportive care, and aerosolized ribavirn

161
Q

How does rubella compare to measles?

A
  • measles has the three Cs while rubella causes sore throat and lymphadenopathy
  • the measles rash persists longer and is more sever
162
Q

What is the most common viral infection of transplant patients?

A

CMV

163
Q

The hantaviruses are perpetuated by which invertebrate species?

A

rodents

164
Q

The enteroviruses cause what six diseases?

A
  • myocarditis, meningitis, orchitis, paralysis, febrile exanthem, ARD
165
Q

List the six paramyxoviruses.

A
  • measles
  • mumps
  • rubella
  • parainfluenza
  • RSV
  • human metapneumovirus
166
Q

group A, G1P[8] is a subtype of what virus?

A

rotavirus

167
Q

Which family of viruses has a a dsDNA genome complexed by histones with a control region and bidirectional transcription of early and late genes?

A

polyomaviruses

168
Q

What is simeprevir?

A

an HCV protease inhibitor

169
Q

Which hepatitis virus expresses the S, P, and C genes?

A

HBV

170
Q

Which disease is associated with a c-myc translocation of chromosome 8 with 14 or 22?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (EBV)

171
Q

What are the three features of influenza syndrome?

A
  • non-productive cough
  • nasal congestion
  • pharyngeal pain
172
Q

The polyomaviruses enter via the ____ and persistent in the ___.

A
  • respiratory tract

- kidneys

173
Q

What is Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

a rare EBV associated tumor see in those 16-34 and over 55

174
Q

Generally, elite long-term controllers have what ability compared to other HIV-infected patients?

A

a strong CTL response

175
Q

Herpes viruses use what three host cell receptors to gain entry?

A
  • heparin sulfate
  • CR2
  • integrins
176
Q

Which virus results in a singular nodular lesion that regresses in 25-35 days?

A

orf poxvirus

177
Q

How does maraviroc work?

A

it interferes with the gp120-CCR5 interaction

178
Q

List four ways HIV evades the host immune system.

A
  • depletes CD4 cells
  • changes antigen structure
  • down regulates MHC-I expression
  • coats gp120 with glycosyl groups mimicking host
179
Q

How does abacavir work?

A

it is a guanosine analog

180
Q

Through what two mechanisms are NK cells cytotoxic?

A
  • Fas/FasL

- perforin/granzyme

181
Q

How do type I interferons protect against viral infection?

A
  • Jak/Stat signaling
  • inhibit viral translation
  • degrade viral RNA
  • up regulate MHC-I antigen presentation
182
Q

How does molluscum contagiosum skin infection present?

A

groups of 5-20 wart-like lesions on the trunk and proximal extremities

183
Q

HPV E7 performs what function?

A

binds and degrades Rb so E2F can dimerize and promote cyclin expression

184
Q

To which group of viruses does the sin nombre subtype belong?

A

hantaviruses (of bunyaviridae)

185
Q

When do rhinovirus and coronavirus peak in incidence?

A
  • rhinovirus: summer/fall

- coronavirus: winter/early spring

186
Q

Which group of dsDNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm?

A

the very large poxviruses

187
Q

What is herpesviridae VP16?

A

a protein that regulates transcription of immediate early genes

188
Q

Influenza A has what three complications?

A
  • pneumonia
  • croup
  • exacerbated COPD
189
Q

How does adenovirus present? In what populations?

A

it causes acute respiratory illness in boarding school residents and military recruits

190
Q

What is a provirus?

A

a dsDNA intermediate through which retroviruses replicate that gets integrated into the host genome

191
Q

Which group of viruses have a fast replication cycle, lyse host cells, and inhibit host cell translation in favor of their own?

A

picornaviruses

192
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia is cause by what pathogen?

A

EBV

193
Q

HTLV-1 targets which host cell population?

A

CD4 cells

194
Q

How does lassa fever present?

A

patchy, ulcerative pharyngeal lesions

195
Q

How are type I interferons activated?

A

they are induced by TLR and NLR signaling

196
Q

List two mechanisms by which HPV virus evades the host immune system.

A
  • no blood-borne phase
  • minimal protein production in basal cells, delayed until terminal differentiation into keratinocytes, which are less accessible to immune cells
197
Q

What is the time course for primary genital herpes?

A
  • 5 day incubation period

- 3-4 weeks for lesions to heal

198
Q

What is the most common complication of measles?

A

acute otitis media

199
Q

What is dumb rabies?

A

a presentation without the neurologic phase

200
Q

HSV-2 is associated with what diseases?

A
  • genital lesions
  • encephalitis
  • pharyngitis
  • herpes whitlow
  • neonatal herpes
201
Q

What are the symptoms of zika virus?

A
  • microcephaly
  • Guillan-Barre syndrome
  • paralysis
  • non purulent conjunctivitis
202
Q

How is ebola treated?

A
  • ribavirin
  • supportive care with clotting factor and blood replacement
  • monoclonal antibodies
203
Q

What are the two possible outcomes of JC infection?

A
  • active infection: vision and hearing loss, paralysis, mental deterioration, sensory deficits
  • oligodendrocyte infection and PML
204
Q

Which viruses are capable of forming syncytia?

A

herpesviruses and paramyxoviruses (measles, mumps, RSV, hmetapneumovirus

205
Q

Which virus is only passed to the fetus during the first trimester?

A

rubella

206
Q

Which disease has an endemic, sporadic, and HIV-1-associated form? Which has a classical, transplant associated, African aggressive, and AIDS-associated form?

A
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma

- Kaposi sarcoma

207
Q

Who is most affected by cryptococcal meningoencephalitis?

A

those with a CD4 count below 100

208
Q

Which antiviral doesn’t get into the CNS much but is very toxic to the CNS?

A

efavirenz

209
Q

Herpesviruses carry what sort of genome?

A

dsDNA with temporal transcription

210
Q

Which virus begins with parotid swelling?

A

mumps

211
Q

Who is affected by eczema herpeticum?

A

children with atopic dermatitis and burn patients

212
Q

What is important about the early genes of papilloma viruses?

A

they are sufficient for cancerous transformation

213
Q

Which disease has an intranuclear inclusion and “buckshot” appearance?

A

CMV inclusion

214
Q

Which virus is more common in older men of Jewish or Italian ancestry?

A

Kaposi Sarcoma (HHV-8)

215
Q

What is a Dane particle?

A

the only one of three HBV viral particles that is actually infectious

216
Q

How does non-pathogenic rabies virus compare to the pathogenic form?

A

it has slower entry into cells and slower spread

217
Q

List the five histologic indicators of AIDS-related dementia.

A
  • white mater pallor
  • microglial nodules
  • perivascular infiltrate
  • giant cells
  • loss of temporal and frontal neurons
218
Q

RSV is linked to what diseases in adolescents?

A
  • LRTI
  • pneumonia
  • bronchiolitis
219
Q

Why is enfuvirtide rarely used?

A

it requires injections every four hours which typically cause an injection site reaction

220
Q

Describe the three histologic features of chronic hepatitis.

A
  • perivascular infiltrate
  • councilman bodies
  • piecemeal necrosis
221
Q

List four antiviral roles of helper T cells.

A
  • promote B cell proliferation and class switching
  • promote CTL differentiation
  • promote NK cell activation
  • promote macrophage activity
222
Q

Which antiviral drug is known to cause Steven-Johnson syndrome?

A

simeprevir

223
Q

What is the most clinically relevant filovirus?

A

ebola

224
Q

Describe the HIV life cycle.

A
  • fusion
  • partial uncaring to form reverse transcriptase complex
  • formation of dsDNA
  • formation of pre-integration complex
  • enter into nucleus
  • integrase mediates integration
  • host enzymes repair
  • rev/tat expression mediate transcription and expression
225
Q

What disease is associated with jaundice, purple skin blotches, sensorineural hearing loss, vision loss, and mental disability?

A

CMV inclusion disease

226
Q

Who is affected by CMV inclusion disease?

A

babies of seronegative mothers

227
Q

How does enfuvirtide work?

A

it is a HIV fusion inhibitor

228
Q

How does hantavirus disease progress?

A
  • febrile phase with a severe flu-like illness
  • hypotensive phase
  • renal failure phase
  • diuretic phase
  • convalescent phase
229
Q

Enterovirus pathology is mediated by what?

A

viral replication

230
Q

Which virus has sensorineural deficits that appear during early convalescence, independent of illness severity, and persist for life?

A

lassa fever

231
Q

What is astroviridae?

A

a family of GI viruses associated with endemic gastroenteritis in young children and neonates

232
Q

Which hepatitis virus spreads directly through the basolateral membrane?

A

HCV

233
Q

What is the role of GP, SGP, VP24, and VP35 in the pathogenesis of ebola virus?

A
  • GP forms virus like particles which activate endothelial cells
  • sGP has anti-TNFa properties
  • VP24 and VP35 are INFa/B antagonists
234
Q

Which drug is used to treat HIV in pregnant women?

A

lamivudine

235
Q

What presents with an abrupt onset fever followed by a vesicular rash on the third day?

A

small pox

236
Q

How does tenofovir work?

A

it is a monophosphate analog chain terminator

237
Q

Who is most at risk for parainfluenza viral infection?

A

stem cell and organ transplant patients

238
Q

Which viruses are ssDNA and prime themselves?

A

the parvoviruses

239
Q

What is the typical incubation period for rabies?

A

2-12 weeks

240
Q

How does toxoplasmosis present in those with HIV?

A

as a CNS disease with cognitive and then motor signs

241
Q

Why is adenovirus-associated virus important?

A

it integrates via homologous recombination with chromosome 19

242
Q

Describe the filoviruses.

A
  • long, skinny, and pleomorphic

- containing 1-20 copies of negative strand RNA

243
Q

What innate immune components are present at birth and capable of fighting viruses?

A
  • NK cells
  • complement
  • interferons
244
Q

Which disease are Reed-Stenberg cells associated with?

A

cells associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma

245
Q

What is PVAN?

A

an infection of BK which targets epithelial cells of the tubules and collecting ducts and is a major concern for renal transplant cases

246
Q

What cancers are associated with BK virus?

A
  • beta-islet adenoma

- brain tumors

247
Q

What happens to the HBeAg after it is produced?

A

it is released

248
Q

What is telaprevir?

A

an HCV protease inhibitor

249
Q

Which antiviral gets to 3x the level in Asian individuals?

A

simeprevir

250
Q

What are negri bodies composed of?

A

coiled ribonucleoproteins from rabies virus

251
Q

How does cidofovir work?

A

it is a nucleotide analog

252
Q

What kind of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?

A

inactivated whole virus

253
Q

HPV E6 performs what function?

A

inhibits p53

254
Q

List three diseases caused by HTLV-1.

A
  • adult T cell lymphoma/leukemia
  • tropical spastic paraparesis
  • HTLV-1-associated myelopathy
255
Q

What is the most important immune response to the rabies virus?

A

humoral immunity focused on anti-G protein antibodies

256
Q

Which virus is associated with a “slapped cheek” rash?

A

B19 parvovirus

257
Q

Hemaglutinin binds what host receptor?

A

sialic acid

258
Q

How does Kaposi sarcoma present?

A

purple skin blotches and GI involvement

259
Q

On which gene are gp41 and gp120 encoded?

A

the env gene of HIV

260
Q

Describe ebola hemorrhagic fever.

A
  • 3-21 day incubation period
  • prodrome
  • erythematous rash
  • hemorrhages begin in the conjunctiva and mucosal membranes
261
Q

Which group of viruses depend on wild animals for persistence?

A

the bunyaviridae (bunyaviruses, phleboviruses, and hantaviruses)

262
Q

Why is post-exposure vaccination possible in rabies?

A

because of the long incubation period

263
Q

What is herpes whitlow?

A

HSV-1/2 infection of the hands and wrists

264
Q

What cancers are associated with SV-40 virus?

A

osteosarcoma, mesothelioma, and meningioma

Infectious Disease (9 decks)

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