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Virology > Virology: Exam 1 > Flashcards

Virology: Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a virion and what is it composed of?

A

infectious particle composed of nucleic acids, protein capsid, and envelope

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2
Q

What is a virus?

A

generic term for any and all aspects of a viral pathogen at any stage of development

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3
Q

What is VZV and what disease is caused by it?

A

Varicella zoster virus which causes chicken pox

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4
Q

What is the main symptom of a VZV infection?

A

itchy, blister-like rash

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5
Q

What type of virus is VZV?

A

Herpesvirus (DNA)

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6
Q

What type of virus is herpesvirus?

A

DNA virus

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7
Q

What is herpes zoster known as?

A

Shingles

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8
Q

What does the primary vs recurrent VZV infection cause?

A

Primary infection results in varicella (chickenpox)
Recurrent infection results in herpes zoster (shingles)

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9
Q

What is varicella also known as?

A

chicken pox

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10
Q

What is the general survival time of VZV in the environment?

A

short survival

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11
Q

90% of primary varicella infections occur at what age and between what ages is the maximum incidence rate?

A

Occurs at <10 years of age and max between 1-6 years of age

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12
Q

What is the varicella reservoir?

A

Human

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13
Q

How is varicella transmitted?

A
  1. Airborne droplet
  2. Direct contact with lesions
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14
Q

When does varicella peak throughout the year?

A

in the winter and early spring

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15
Q

What is the household transmission rate vs transmission rate with secondary contacts of varicella?

A

> 90% household transmission
10-35% secondary transmission

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16
Q

In varicella, when can a host start to spread the infection and until when?

A

1-2 days before onset of rash and out to 4-5 days after onset

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17
Q

What is the incubation period in varicella and what is the average range?

A

10-21 days with an average of 14-16

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18
Q

What is the incubation period in varicella patients treated with immunoglobulins?

A

up to 28 days

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19
Q

Who is at higher risk of developing herpes zoster?

A

healthy children infected with VZV during infancy

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20
Q

What are complications in shingles?

A

postherpetic neuralgia
myelitis
small vessel encephalitis (immunocompromised)
large vessel granulomatous arteritis (immunocompetent)

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21
Q

VZV virion components

A
  1. lipid envelope
  2. tegument
  3. nucleocapsid
  4. dsDNA genome
  5. glycoprotein spikes
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22
Q

What types of viruses are alpha herpes viruses and what do they lead to?

A

dsDNA viruses which lead to human infection and latency in dorsal root ganglia

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23
Q

List the three types of alphaherpes viruses

A
  1. HSV-1
  2. HSV-2
  3. VZV
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24
Q

List the three types of betaherpes viruses

A
  1. CMV
  2. HHV-6
    3.HHV-7
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25
Q

What is a common gammaherpes virus?

A

EBV

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26
Q

What is herpesvirdae?

A

family of DNA viruses that cause latent infection

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27
Q

How is VZV transmitted?

A
  1. air
  2. formites
  3. Direct contact
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28
Q

How does VZV enter the body?

A

through mucuous membranes

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29
Q

where does VZV replicate?

A

regional lymph nodes

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30
Q

how soon does viremia occur after initial VZV infection?

A

4-6 days after infection

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31
Q

in VZV, what does viremia result in?

A

replication in other organs (liver, spleen, sensory ganglia)

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32
Q

In VZV, when does secondary viremia appear and how is it expressed?

A

after day 14 and expressed as skin infection with characteristic rash

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33
Q

Where does VZV become latent?

A

in ganglia

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34
Q

What is the difference between herpes zoster and zoster sine herpete?

A

zoster sine herpete produces pain but without a rash

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35
Q

What is VZIG and who receives it?

A

varicella post-exposure prophylaxis given to individuals at hight risk
1. either with varicella 5 days before to 2 days after delivery
2. immunocompromised

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36
Q

List all of the dsDNA viruses

A
  1. Poxviridae
  2. Adenoviridae
  3. Herpesviridae
  4. Papillomaviridae
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37
Q

What viruses fall into the poxviridae family?

A

smallpox (varieola)
Monkeypox

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38
Q

What viruses fall into the Adenoviridae family?

A

adenovirus

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39
Q

What viruses fall into the Herpesviridae family?

A

HSV-1
HSV-2
CMV
EBV
VZV
HHV 6, 7, 8

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40
Q

What viruses fall into the papillomaviridae family?

A

HPV

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41
Q

What is the structure of an adenoviridae virus?

A

naked icosahedral dsDNA

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42
Q

What are the common adenoviridae serotypes?

A

1 to 8, 11, 21, 35, 37, 40

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43
Q

What infections are caused by adenoviridae?

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. gastroenteritis
  3. keratoconjunctivitis
  4. acute hemorrhagic cystitis
  5. pharyngoconjunctival fever
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44
Q

Which adenoviridae serotypes are most commonly associated with respiratory illness and which is most severe?

A

3, 4, and 7 (most severe)

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45
Q

Which adenoviridae serotypes cause epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?

A

8, 19, 37, 53, and 54

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46
Q

Which adenoviridae serotypes are enteric and cause gastroenteritis?

A

40 and 41

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47
Q

Which adenoviridae serotypes can be transmitted in bodies of water and cause febrile disease and conjunctivitis?

A

4 and 7

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48
Q

What is the structure of herpesviridae?

A

enveloped dsDNA

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49
Q

How many species of herpesviridae are there and what are they?

A

eight species
1. HSV-1
2. HSV-2
3. VZV
4. EBV
5. CMV
6. Human herpesvirus-6
7. Human herpesvirus-7
8. Human herpesvirus-8

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50
Q

which species of herpesviridae is kaposi’s sarcoma herpes virus?

A

HHV-8

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51
Q

What is the mortality rate of HSV encephalitis and which species is most prevalent in neonates vs adult?

A

70%
HSV-1 in adults
HSV-2 in neonates

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52
Q

What is the causative agent of variety of warts and tumors in respiratory, GI, and genital tracts?

A

HPV

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53
Q

what type of vaccine is the HPV vaccine and which types does it protect against?

A

quadrivalent against type 6, 11, 16, and 18

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54
Q

Why is serology not helpful in diagnosing HSV?

A

there is a high prevalence of HSV antibodies in population

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55
Q

Where does EBV establish latency?

A

in B cells

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56
Q

What is the primary EBV infection?

A

infectious mononucleosis

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57
Q

What can cause EBV reactivated?

A

B cell lymphoma
Lymphoproliferative

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58
Q

what can an immunosuppressed patient with CMV develop?

A

retinitis and enteritis

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59
Q

What is a Karposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV-8 which causes BV tumor in AIDS patients

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60
Q

which viruses cause latent infections?

A

herpesviruses
human retroviruses
human papillomavirus

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61
Q

Oncogenic associations of EBV?

A

lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
leiomyosarcoma

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62
Q

Oncogenic associations of Herpesvirus-8?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma
B-cell lymphoma of body cavities

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63
Q

Oncogenic associations of Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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64
Q

Oncogenic associations of human papillomavirus?

A

cervical cancer
rectal/anogenital carcinoma

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65
Q

What is the herpesvirus structure in primary infection vs latency?

A

linear dsDNA virus
linear in mature virion
circular in latent form

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66
Q

What is human papillomavirus also known as?

A

Papovavirus

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67
Q

What is the most common viral STD?

A

HPV

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68
Q

What the the structure of HPV virion?

A

dsDNA virus with genome entirely sequenced

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69
Q

What is HPV type defined by?

A

DNA sequence

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70
Q

Which HPV types are plantar and common warts?

A

1,2

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71
Q

Which HPV type is associated with condylomata and laryngeal warts?

A

6,11

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72
Q

Which HPV type is associated with anogenital malignancies?

A

16,18

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73
Q

What causes an increased risk of developing cervical cancer?

A
  1. early age of intercourse
  2. Number of sexual partners
  3. Smoking
  4. Lower socioeconomic status
  5. high-risk male partner
  6. STDs
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74
Q

Which HPV type is responsible for 90% of genital warts?

A

6 and 11

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75
Q

Which HPV type is responsible for 70% of cervical cancers?

A

16 and 18

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76
Q

Hepatitis A route of transmission?

A

fecal/oral, contaminated food/oral

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77
Q

Hepatitis B route of exposure?

A

blood, semen, mother-child

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78
Q

Hepatitis C route of exposure?

A

Blood (IV drug use, transfusion, sexual intercourse, etc.)

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79
Q

Hepatitis D route of transmission?

A

Survive only in cells co-infected with hepatitis B

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80
Q

Hepatitis E route of transmission?

A

fecal/oral, contaminated food/water

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81
Q

Which hepatitis types are there vaccines for?

A

Hepatitis A and B

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82
Q

Which hepatitis causes short-term disease and is not a chronic carrier state?

A

Hepatitis E

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83
Q

Which types of hepatitis are associated with an increased risk of HCC?

A

Hepatitis B and C

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84
Q

Which hepatitis is the most common chronic blood borne infection in the US?

A

Hepatitis C

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85
Q

What type of specific virus is Hepatitis C?

A

flavivirus

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86
Q

The is the virion structure of Hepatitis C?

A

enveloped ssRNA virus

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87
Q

Where does hepatitis C replicate?

A

In the liver cells, lymphocytes, and monocytes

88
Q

How many progeny/day does hepatitis C replicate?

A

> 1 trillion progeny/day

89
Q

Which hepatitis mutates rapidly and why?

A

Hepatitis C due to error-prone RNA polymerase

90
Q

What is the mechanism of Hepatitis C?

A

Down regulates stimulatory receptors on NK cells
Increases inhibitory receptors on NK and CD+ killer cells
Produces TGF-beta, which blocks activation of T cells and inhibits production of IFN-gamma

91
Q

What are other examples of Flavivirus other than Hepatitis C?

A

Dengue
West Nile
Yellow Fever
Zika

92
Q

How many genotypes and subtypes does Hepatitis C have?

A

Six major genotyped and >15 subtypes

93
Q

How is heterogeneity involved in the transmission of Hepatitis C?

A

The polymerase lacks proofreading capability resulting in many mutations and significant viral diversity which allows escape from host immune system and medications as well as vaccines

94
Q

What does the prozone phenomenon refer to?

A

to the absence of antibody-antigen precipitation

95
Q

What is the prozone?

A

the prozone reaction refers to the absence of antibody-antigen precipitation in the presence of antibody excess

96
Q

What is the postzone?

A

the absence of precipitation with excess antigen. Term is applied to false-negative antigen test results in undiluted serum, which become positive on dilution

97
Q

What is the zone of equivalence?

A

the point of maximum precipitation

98
Q

what increases the risk of chronic HCV?

A

illicit drug use
male gender
black race
low income family
10 lifetime sexual partners
Incarceration

99
Q

Main transmission for all hepatitis types

A

Hepatitis A = fecal/oral
Hepatitis B = blood/sexual
Hepatitis C = blood

100
Q

Which Hepatitis types can be transmitted perinatally?

A

Hepatitis B and C

101
Q

Which hepatitis involves spontaneous resolution and chronic infection and at what percent?

A

hepatitis C chronic (85%) and spontaneous (15%) resolution

102
Q

What type of virus is picornaviruses?

A

non enveloped, icosahedral capsid, ssRNA, linear

103
Q

Where do picornaviruses replicate?

A

in the cytoplasm of the cell

104
Q

What type of viruses are in the picornavirus family?

A

enteroviruses (polio)
rhinoviruses (common cold)
hepatovirus (hepatitis A)

105
Q

What is an example of enterovirus?

A

polio virus

106
Q

Which enzymes are found within hepatocytes and when are they released?

A

ALT and AST which are released when liver cells are damaged

107
Q

Which liver enzyme is specific for liver injury?

A

ALT

108
Q

Which liver enzyme is also found in skeletal and cardiac muscles?

A

AST

109
Q

In what diseases is AST a predominant biomarker?

A

in alcohol-related liver disease and cirrhosis

110
Q

What is classified as severe AST and ALT elevation?

A

> 15x

111
Q

What are the two main conditions causing severe AST and ALT elevation?

A

acute viral hepatitis
ischemic hepatitis

112
Q

Where is alkaline phosphatase found in the body?

A

hepatocytes that line the bile canaliculi

113
Q

What is elevated in a biliary obstruction and why?

A

alkaline phosphatase which stretched the bile canaliculi

114
Q

Other than hepatocytes, where can alkaline phosphatase be found in the body?

A

bone and placenta

115
Q

Where is GGT found?

A

bile cancaliculi

116
Q

Why is GGT not specific for identifying obstructions?

A

it can be elevated by drugs/toxins

117
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

water insoluble product of heme metabolism

118
Q

What happens to bilirubin once it enters the liver and why?

A

it is conjugated to become water soluble so it can excreted in bile and into bowel

119
Q

What is indirect vs direct bilirubin?

A

indirect billirubin is non-conjugated whereas direct is conjugated

120
Q

What is an example of prehepatic disease and what type of bilirubin is elevated?

A

hemolysis which elevated indirect bilirubin

121
Q

What is an example of hepatic disease and what type of bilirubin is elevated?

A

viral infection which increases direct and indirect bilirubin

122
Q

What is an example of post hepatic disease and what type of bilirubin is elevated?

A

Gallstones which increases direct bilirubin

123
Q

What condition results in dark (foamy) and pale stool?

A

gallstones

124
Q

What two tests are true tests of liver function?

A

prothrombin time/INR
Albumin

125
Q

What does prothrombin time/INR measure?

A

vitamin K dependent clotting factors (factor II, VII, IX, X)

126
Q

Why aren’t clotting factors produced when there is liver damage?

A

the liver is involved in a captivating vitamin K

127
Q

What two conditions cause albumin to drop rapidly?

A

acute illness and nephrotic syndrome

128
Q

What kind of damage does elevated AST and ALT indicate?

A

hepatocellular damage

129
Q

What kind of damage does elevated alkaline phosphatase and Bilirubin indicate?

A

Cholestatic damage

130
Q

Hepatitis A incubation period

A

15-50 days (average of 28)

131
Q

Where does hepatitis A replicate and where does it shed?

A

replicated in the liver and sheds in feces

132
Q

When does Hepatitis A begin to shed in feces?

A

two weeks before to one week after onset of clinical illness

133
Q

Does hepatitis A result in chronic infection and/or chronic liver disease?

A

no

134
Q

Who is at an increased risk of developing hepatitis A?

A

international travelers, child care-givers, patients with chronic liver disease, IV drug users

135
Q

on average, how long do hepatitis A symptoms last?

A

< 2 months

136
Q

What kind of virus is rotavirus?

A

naked dsRNA virus

137
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and children?

A

rotaviruses

138
Q

When do most rotavirus outbreaks occur?

A

winter months in temperate zones and year-round in subtropical and tropical regions

139
Q

what is the route of transmission in rotaviruses?

A

fecal oral route

140
Q

incubation period of rotaviruses

A

1-4 days

141
Q

How it is rotavirus diagnosed?

A

cultures, immunoassays, PCR

142
Q

Why does rotavirus lead to malabsorption of nutrients?

A

virus can destroy microvilli

143
Q

What is the main cause of death in rotavirus?

A

dehydration

144
Q

what typeof viruses are norovirus and sapovirus?

A

ssRNA

145
Q

what type of virus is Ebola virus?

A

ssRNA

146
Q

what type of virus is yellow fever and dengue virus?

A

ssRNA

147
Q

What type of virus is coronavirus?

A

ssRNA

148
Q

what type of virus is West Nile virus and zika virus?

A

ssRNa

149
Q

what type of virus is influenza A-C?

A

ssRNA

150
Q

what type of virus is mumps, measles, parainfluenza, and RSV?

A

ssRNA

151
Q

what type of virus is enterovirus virus?

A

ssRNA

152
Q

what type of virus is HIV?

A

ssRNA

153
Q

what type of virus is Hepatitis A-E?

A

ssRNA

154
Q

what type of virus is rubella?

A

ssRNA

155
Q

which group of rotavirus is most common in humans?

A

group A

156
Q

what are rotaviruses composed of?

A

segmented dsRNA without envelope

157
Q

how is rotavirus transmitted?

A

fecal oral route

158
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the United States?

A

norovirus

159
Q

which populations are at risk of getting norovirus?

A

individuals ins schools, nursing homes, families, cruises/resorts

160
Q

how’s norovirus transmitted?

A

waterborne and person to person

161
Q

what is the infection rate of norovirus?

A

50%

162
Q

when does illness with norovirus subside?

A

72 hours

163
Q

How is norovirus diagnosed and what laboratory test cannot be used?

A

diagnosed wit RT-PCR but cannot be grow in culture

164
Q

How is sapovirus detected?

A

electron microscopy, RT-PCr, and ELISA

165
Q

symptoms of sapovirus?

A

diarrhea and vomiting

166
Q

who is most likely to experience symptoms with sapovirus?

A

infants, young children, and older patients

167
Q

what virus causes 15% of childlike infections in adults?

A

coronaviruses

168
Q

what do coronaviruses target in the body?

A

the GI tract

169
Q

why are children less likely to get coronavirus?

A

higher seroconversion rate in children

170
Q

how is coronavirus transmitted?

A

direct contact, droplet, airborne, and occasionally in urine and feces

171
Q

why can’t corona viruses be cultured?

A

they are extremely fragile

172
Q

preferred detection methods of coronavirus?

A

RT-PCR

173
Q

how is yellow fever prevented?

A

vaccines (required for travel to endemic regions)

174
Q

what causes yellow fever?

A

mosquito bite (lil bitches)

175
Q

who are the natural hosts of yellow fever?

A

monkeys

176
Q

who is the natural host of west niles virus and how is it transmitted?

A

birds and is transmitted via mosquitos

177
Q

how is zika virus transmitted?

A

mosquito but also via infected blood or sexual contact

178
Q

what molecular methods are used at OSF SFMC to detected SARS CoV-2?

A

RT-PCR, ForuPLEX, TORCH, and Abbott ID-NOW

179
Q

what did influenza originate as?

A

zoonotic infection

180
Q

how are enveloped members of influenza distinguished?

A

by matrix (M) protein and nucleoprotein (NP)

181
Q

whys is influenza virus changing every year?

A

due to antigenic drift caused by RNA replication of errors of the virus

182
Q

Which types of influenza does antigenic drift occur in?

A

A, B, and C

183
Q

when does antigenic shift occur?

A

when surface antigens change drastically

184
Q

which influenza types are associated with antigenic shift?

A

influenza A

185
Q

What do influenza A and B infect?

A

mammals and avian species

186
Q

what does influenza C cause?

A

mild upper respiratory illness in humans

187
Q

What is the causative agent of croup bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia?

A

RSV

188
Q

what is the most common cause of lower respiratory tract disease among infants and young children?

A

RSV

189
Q

which virus is associated with nosocomial infections?

A

RSV

190
Q

what genus is RSV a member of?

A

pneumovirus

191
Q

how is RSV transmitted?

A

large particle droplets and formites

192
Q

is there a vaccine for RSV?

A

no

193
Q

how many parainfluenza viruses are there?

A

4

194
Q

which types of PIV cause paramyxovirus and rubulavirus?

A

paramyxovirus = 1 and 3rubulavirus = 2 and 4

195
Q

what is the structure of PIV?

A

enveloped helical RNA

196
Q

what are the two distinct receptors in PIV?

A

HN: hemagglutinin-neuramindae
F: fusion antigen

197
Q

what is the primary cause of respiratory disease in young children?

A

PIV

198
Q

which PIV types cause croup?

A

1 and 2

199
Q

what is the structure of mumps virus?

A

enveloped ssRNA virus

200
Q

what are the surfaces antigens in mumps virus?

A

HN and F surface antigens

201
Q

how is mumps virus transmitted?

A

droplets of infected saliva

202
Q

causative agent of infectious parotitis?

A

mumps virus

203
Q

which virus causes swollen parotid glands, swelling of testes, ovaries, pancreas, and potentially permanent sterility?

A

mumps virus

204
Q

Where are swabs taken from when diagnosing mumps virus?

A

stensen duct or saliva

205
Q

when are swabs collected in mumps virus?

A

9 days before until 8 days after parotitis appears

206
Q

Ro of mumps?

A

8-12

207
Q

What is rubeola virus also known as?

A

measles

208
Q

what genus does measles virus belong to?

A

morbillivirus

209
Q

structure of measles virus

A

ssRNA, enveloped

210
Q

who are the natural hosts of measles?

A

humans

211
Q

where does initial viral replication occur in measles virus and where does it replicate after?

A

mucosal cells of respiratory tract and then in the local lymph nodes and spreads systemically

212
Q

measles incubation period

A

7-10 days

213
Q

does measles cause abrupt symptoms?

A

yes abrupt onset of sneezing, rhinorrhea, red eyes, and fever

214
Q

what develops 2-3 days after abrupt onset of symptoms in measles?

A

maculopapular rash on head and trunk, whitish spots, and fever

215
Q

which virus is easily diagnosed clinically without laboratory testing?

A

measles

216
Q

Ro of measles?

A

12-18

Virology (1 decks)

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