Virginia Torts Flashcards

1
Q

Burden of Persuasion: Conversion

A

The Plaintiff’s burden of persuasion in this type of action is a preponderance of the evidence

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2
Q

This negligence liability standard in Virginia generally bars recovery in this scenario

A

Plaintiffs that are contributorily negligent are barred from recovery generally

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3
Q

“Last Clear Chance” doctrine provides for this exception to contributory negligence liability

A

A Plaintiff may mitigate legal consequence for contributory negligence under this doctrine if the Defendant had 1) the last opportunity to avoid injuring the Plaintiff; and 2) failed to do so

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4
Q

When must an action for personal injuries be brought, generally?

A

An action for this must generally be brought within two years after the cause of action accrues

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5
Q

When does the statute of limitations begin to run for a personal injury action?

A

The statute of limitations begins for this action when the cause of action accrues, regardless of when it is discovered

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6
Q

When does a cause of action for a medical malpractice claim with continuous treatment accrue?

A

The cause of action for this type of claim accrues when the improper course of examination (monitoring condition) terminates, following a failure in diagnosis

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7
Q

How long does a minor under 8 years of age have to bring a medical malpractice action against a healthcare provider?

A

This type of person has until age 10 to bring a medical malpractice action

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8
Q

How long does a minor at least 8 years of age have to bring a medical malpractice action against a healthcare provider?

A

This type of person must bring the claim within two years of the last act or omission giving rise to the cause of the medical malpractice action

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9
Q

Generally, a wrongful death action must be brought:

A

Generally, this must be brought 1) by the personal representative of the decedent’s estate 2) within 2 years of decedent’s death

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10
Q

A wrongful death action cannot be brought if:

A

This cannot be brought if 1)the decedent did not die within two years from the date of injury and 2) no personal injury action was filed

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11
Q

Medical malpractice actions occurring from July 1 2016 to June 30 2017 may not exceed, or increment $50k per year to this amount for actions occurring afterward:

A

$2.25 for this type of action occurring in this time frame; or $3 after increasing $50k per year until 2031

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12
Q

A medical malpractice review panel may be requested and is what at trial?

A

This is an extra procedural step requested within 30 days of responsive pleadings for medical malpractice actions, and may be admissible but not conclusive as evidence

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13
Q

A child below age seven, but not between seven and fourteen, has what kind of presumption for negligence?

A

There is an irrebuttable presumption of being incapable of negligence below this age, but a rebuttable presumption between these ages for a child

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14
Q

Intentional torts generally require what?

A

This generally requires 1)voluntary act/failure to act; 2) purposeful requisite mental state/consequence is substantially certain to D; and 3) causation, or resulting in harm legally from D’s conduct

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15
Q

Battery

A

This occurs where Defendant intends to cause contact with Plaintiff’s person/anything connected, conduct causes contact, and contact causes bodily harm or is offensive

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16
Q

Battery: Single vs. Double Intent

A

Majority - D is liable if intending to bring about contact; Minority - D is liable if intending to bring contact AND intend the contact to by harmful/offensive

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17
Q

Battery: Conduct

A

This for battery must be voluntary and affirmative, and even indirect this counts

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18
Q

Battery: Contact

A

Harmful - Physical injury, illness, disease, impairment, death

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19
Q

Offensive - Reasonable-person standard/D knows that this is highly offensive to P’s sense of dignity

A
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20
Q

Assault

A

This occurs when D intends to cause P to anticipate imminent, harmful & offensive contact, and D’s affirmative conduct causes the anticipation

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21
Q

Assault: Anticipated contact

A

No actual contact is required for this, but it must be harmful or offensive; P must be aware of D’s actions

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22
Q

Assault: Imminence

A

If a P is too far away from D’s threat of future harm or threats, this may not be met

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23
Q

Assault and Battery: Intent Transferal

A

These are subject to transferred intent

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24
Q

Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress (IIED)

A

This requires that D, by 1) extreme and outrageous conduct 2) intentionally/recklessly causes 3) P severe emotional distress

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25
Q

IIED: Transferred Intent

A

This typically does not apply to IIED where D intended to commit a different tort; may apply if D’s conduct harms another rather than the intended

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26
Q

IIED: Extreme and Outrageous Conduct

A

This is considered beyond human decency, outrageous

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27
Q

IIED: Public figures/concerns

A

These people must show falsity and actual malice; Private P cannot recover if issue was of public concern

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28
Q

IIED: Burden

A

Must be by Clear and Convincing Evidence

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29
Q

False Imprisonment

A

Illegal restraint on another’s freedom; P demonstrates prima facie case, D must show restraint was legal/justified

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30
Q

Defenses to Intentional Torts for PI: Consent

A

D is not liable if P gave legally effective consent (actual, apparent, implied, emergency)

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31
Q

Defenses to Intentional Torts for PI: Self Defense

A

Must reasonably believe that the force is necessary and proportionate to what is infliicted

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32
Q

Defenses to Intentional Torts for PI: Self Defense (Nondeadly)

A

D reasonably believes P’s force is intentional and unpriveleged, D’s force is proportional, and D can only prevent P through immediate force

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33
Q

Defenses to Intentional Torts for PI: Self Defense (Deadly)

A

D can only prevail by immediate deadly force

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34
Q

Standard of Care owed to invitees is this:

A

Landowner or land possessor is liable for injuries if landowner or land possessor should have known that invitee would not realize/appreciate the danger; No duty or protect invitee from open and obvious dangers; Duty extends only so far as the scope of the invitation

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35
Q

Standard of Care owed to Trespassers is this:

A

No duty to unknown trespasser, no attractive nusiance doctrine in VA. Liable for leaving an instrument with a hidden danger on the part of her land that is easily accessible to children and that is known to be frequented by children (eg; live wires)/ intentional/affirmative harm

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36
Q

Standard of Care owed to Licensees is this:

A

Landowner/land possessor has duty to carry on activities w/reasonable care for safety of the licenses.

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37
Q

L will be liable for harm caused by failure to use reasonable care unless licensee should have known the risk

A
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38
Q

Negligence Standard of Care for Children is this:

A

Irrebutable presumption (just a rule) that a child under the age of 7 is incapable of negligence

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39
Q

Rebuttable presumption that a child between the ages of 7-14 is legally incapable of negligence

A
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40
Q

Negligence Standard of Care for Children (Rebuttable) looks to these:

A

For child between 7-14, evidence must show what reasonable person of same age, experience, and intelligence as the child would do under circumstances for safety

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41
Q

Statute of Repose

A

No action to recover for injury from defective/unsafe condition of improvement to real property, nor contribution action for damages sustained, may be brought more than 5 years after furnishing such services

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42
Q

Direct Liability for Negligent Entrustment of Vehicle

A

Parent is directly liable if proven to know, or had reason to know, that she was entrusting vehicle to unfit driver likely to cause injury to others; may be done through express or implied permission.

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43
Q

Assumption of risk defense requires:

A

Defendant must prove plaintiff fully understood and appreciate a known danger and voluntarily expose themself to it

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44
Q

Trespass to Chattels:

A

Intentional interference w/ P’s right of possession by either dispossessing or using/intermeddling with chattel

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45
Q

Trespass the Chattels: Whats required?

A

This tort only requires intent to do the act necessary, transferred intent applies

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46
Q

Trespass to Chattels Damages:

A

Actual/loss of use (only if dispossessed)/nominal damages/compensation for diminished value or cost to repair

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47
Q

Conversion:

A

1) Intentional Act 2) to interfere with P’s right of possession 3) that’s so serious that it deprives P of the use of chattel; 4) damages

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48
Q

Trespass to Land:

A

1) Intent to 2) physical invasion of property

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49
Q

Trespass to Land: Proper Plaintiff

A

This is any actual or constructive owner; transferred intent applies

50
Q

Trespass to Land: Private Necessity

A

This defense is a qualified privilege for limited # of people to enter/remain on land to protect from serious harm; not liable for this, but responsible for actual damages

51
Q

Trespass to Land: Public Nuisance

A

This defense is an unqualified/absolute privilege to avert imminent public disaster; not liable for damages if acted reasonably or believed necessary

52
Q

Private Nuisance

A

This is 1) substantial (offensive to regular person in community); 2)unreasonable; 3) interference (intentional/negligent reckless/abnormally dangerous); 4) with another’s use or enjoyment of their land

53
Q

Nuisance: Unreasonable Element

A

This element of nuisance may: 1) effectively render land unavailable for ordinary use; 2) is per se nuisance; 3) does not comport w/ customs/expectations; 4) results from failure to use reasonable care; 5) causes physical damage to land/fixtures; or 6) motivated by malice

54
Q

Private Nuisance: Defenses

A

1) Regulatory compliance: incomplete defense; admissible but not determinative; 2) Coming to the nuisance: does not entitle Defendant to judgment as a matter of law but jury may consider

55
Q

Public Nuisance

A

1) Unreasonable; 2) interference; 3) with right common; 4) to general public;

56
Q

Same defenses as private

57
Q

Private Nuisance: Abatement

A

Reasonable force permitted to do this; must give Defendant notice of nuisance and they refuse to act

58
Q

Public Nuisance: Proper Plaintiff

A

This is a private citizen suffering harm different in kind from the general public

59
Q

Public Nuisance: Abatement

A

Absent unique injury, public nuisance may only be this by public authority

60
Q

Negligence

A

1) Duty (obligation to protect against unreasonable risk of injury); 2) Breach (failure to meet obligation); 3) Causation (close causal nexus); 4) Injury (harm suffered)

61
Q

Negligence: Duty

A

Owed to all foreseeable persons if P fails to meet standard of care; foreseeability of harm to another sufficient to create this

62
Q

Negligence: Failure to act

A

Generally, no duty to act for this

63
Q

Negligence: Special foreseeable plaintiffs (rescuer/rescued party)

A

Defendant is liable for negligently putting these in danger

64
Q

Negligence: Foreseeable harm

A

Defendant only liable to Plaintiff w/in zone of foreseeable harm

65
Q

Negligence Duty to Fetuses

A

Duty of care is owed to these that are viable at time of injury

66
Q

Negligence: Affirmative Duties to Act

A

These are exceptions to this: 1) Assumption of Duty; 2) Placing another in peril; 3) by contract; 4) by authority (negligent hiring & retention, not supervision); 5) by relationship (employer/employee, parent-child); 6) by statute imposing obligation to act

67
Q

Good Samaritan Law (Generally)

A

1) Emergency care; 2) in good faith; 3) without compensation

68
Q

Good Samaritan Law: Includes

A

Emergency obstetrical care when women’s records unavailable (unless grossly negligent)

69
Q

Emergency assistance to injured animals at scene

70
Q

Good Samaritan Law: Emergency Personnel

A

This law protects EMTS operating emergency vehicle en route to emergency when 1) comply w/ warning lights/siren laws; and 2) act w/out gross negligence/willful/wanton misconduct

71
Q

Standard of Care: Common Carriers and Innkeepers

A

Common carriers/innkeepers have duty to exercise utmost care to protect customers/guests from personal injury; Have duty to warn and protect customers/guests from foreseeable injury from criminal conduct of 3rd party

72
Q

Standard of Care: Generally

A

This is: a reasonably prudent person

73
Q

Standard of Care: Voluntarily Intoxicated

A

This is: the same standard as a sober person

74
Q

Standard of Care: Automobile drivers

A

This is: ordinary care to guests as well as passengers

75
Q

Standard of Care: Gratuitous Bailor

A

This is: Duty to warn baillee of known dangerous defects

76
Q

Standard of Care: Compensated Bailor

A

Duty to warn bailee of defects known/should have known by this person if reasonable diligence used

77
Q

Standard of Care: Gratuitous Bailee

A

Liable only for gross negligence

78
Q

Standard of Care: Compensated Bailee

A

Must exercise extraordinary care

79
Q

Standard of Care: Mutual benefit Bailee

A

Must take reasonable care

80
Q

Standard of Care: Sellers of Real Prop

A

Duty to dislose known/concealed/unreasonably dangerous conditions; liability to 3rd party continues until buyer has reasonable opportunity to discover & remedy defect

81
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Discovered Trespasser

A

Duty to warn or protect against concealed/dangerous/artificial conditions for this:

82
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Undiscovered Trespasser

A

Generally no duty; Only if owner should reasonably know trespasser entering land (treated like licensee)

83
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Invitee

A

Duty of reasonable care to inspect/discover dangerous condition, protect invitee from them (non-delegable); does not extend beyond scope of invitation

84
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Landlords

A

Liable for injuries in common areas from hidden dangers L failed to warn; on premises leased for public use; as result of hazard caused by negligent repair/landlord agreed to repair

85
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Tenants

A

Liable for injuries to 3rd parties due to conditions w/in their control

86
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Off-premises victims

A

No duty for harm by natural condition; duty to prevent unreasonable risk of harm by artificial condition

87
Q

Standard for Possessors of Land: Sellers of real property

A

These people have a duty to disclose any concealed and unreasonably dangerous conditions

88
Q

Standard of care traditional approach is:

A

This compares D’s conduct to what a reasonably prudent person would do under the circumstances

89
Q

Standard of care modern/restatement approach (cost benefit) is:

A

This considers 1) foreseeable likelihood that D’s conduct would cause harm, 2) foreseeable severity resulting from harm, and 3) D’s burden in avoiding harm

90
Q

Evidence of custom may be admitted as this:

A

This may be admissible generally but is not conclusive in establishing proper standard of care

91
Q

Professional standard of care is:

A

This requires individual to show same skill/knowledge/care as ordinary practitioner in same community; specialists held to higher standard; must be established by them unless negligence obvious to lay person

92
Q

Virginia’s physician standard of care is:

A

These are held to the same standard as others in Virginia, a locality standard can be applied if shown to be more appropriate

93
Q

Failure to comply with informed consent results in this unless:

A

Failure to comply with this is medical negligence unless risk is known, patient unconscious, patient waives/is incompetent, or disclosure is too harmful

94
Q

For negligence per se (statutorily defined/specific) in Virginia:

A

For this, P must prove D violated public safety statute and that violation was proximate cause of injury

95
Q

Defenses to negligence per se include:

A

These include compliance impossible/more dangerous than noncompliance, violation was reasonable under circumstances, statutory vagueness/ambiguity, or compliance w/ federal regulation preempts common-law tort

96
Q

To prove res ipsa loquitur in Virginia:

A

To do this, P must prove 1) exclusive possession/management of instrumentality by D, 2) accident ordinarily does not occur if due care used, and 3) evidence regarding cause of accident is available to defendant and not injured party

97
Q

For causation, Virginia follows the 3rd Restatement which means:

A

This means there is no substantial factor test; where there are several causes contributing to P’s injury, each alone would be factual cause of {‘s injury

98
Q

Tortfeasors face joint and several liability but:

A

These have a right to contribution if liability arises from 1) negligence and 2) does not involve act of moral turpitude

99
Q

Loss of chance recovery arises in wrongful death suits if:

A

This type of recovery is a percentage between recovery before and after negligence; if physician destroyed substantial chance patient would survive, conduct is a proximate cause of patient’s death

100
Q

An action is the proximate cause of an injury in Virginia if:

A

An action is this if the injury is the natural and probable consequence of the act, and foreseeable

101
Q

To be a superseding cause in Virginia:

A

For this to occur, the intervening cause must completely supersede the Defendant’s actions so that the intervening cause alone produced injury

102
Q

Superseding cause does this:

A

This breaks the chain of proximate causation so that D is not liable

103
Q

Intervening cause does this:

A

This is just a cause of P’s harm that occurs after D’s tortious acts, with D still liable

104
Q

Egg-shell plaintiff rule:

A

Think of a thin skinned person - the extent of damages need not be forseeable

105
Q

Virginia follows the traditional collateral source:

A

For this in Virginia, benefits from outside sources like P’s insurance are not credited against’ D’s liability, but D’s insurance is considered this and ARE credited against D’s liability

106
Q

Compensatory damages

A

These damages make the victim whole

107
Q

Actual physical harm

A

This requires proving actual injury (bodily harm/property damage), not just economic loss; nominal damages/attorney’s fees not permitted for negligence

108
Q

Duty to mitigate:

A

This is not a duty to D, but may reduce P’s recovery as they must attempt to do this to their damages

109
Q

July 1, 2017 onward, increasing $50k each year till 2031 from $2.25 is:

A

This is the total negligence damages limit

110
Q

Punitive damages available if D acted:

A

These are available if acted with actual malice/under circumstances amounting to willful/wanton disregard of P’s rights; employer may be liable for these if participated in/authorized/ratified employee conduct

111
Q

Traditional contributory negligence in Virginia completely bars P’s recovery if:

A

This bars P’s recovery if P’s negligence was substantial cause of injury & must happen at same time as D’s negligence

112
Q

P’s contributory negligence does not bar recovery if:

A

This DOES NOT bar recovery if 1) P placed himself in peril and cannot escape, 2) D saw and realized/should have seen & realized peril, and 3) D could have avoided the accident using ordinary care

113
Q

This is a complete bar to recovery for D’s alleged negligence in causing injury

A

The voluntary assumption of risk of injury from a known danger is this:

114
Q

Contract provisions that purport to release D from liability for personal injury caused by D’s future negligence are this:

A

These contract provisions for D’s liability are prohibited

115
Q

Release from liability for property damage caused by D’s future negligence are this:

A

These contract provisions for D’s liability are enforceable

116
Q

Land possessors have duty to exercise reasonable care and take reasonable precautions to protect whom?

A

Land possessors hold these duties to invitee spectators from foreseeable dangers created by events held on property

117
Q

Elements of Strict Liability (and include types DAD):

A

This action is 1) absolute duty to make P’s person/property safe, 2) actual & proximate causation, and 3) damages; Dangerous activities, animals, defective/dangerous products

118
Q

NO S/L for dog owners but for these, violation constitutes negligence per se:

A

For dangerous dogs (dangerous after hearing) Virginia recognizes this; must be securely enclosed and be muzzled&leashed when our or violation

119
Q

Defenses to S/L (mainly only one)

A

For this, contributory negligence is not available but assumption of risk does bar recovery; no S/L for D performing essential public services, nor for injuries caused by D’s animals to trespasser on his property