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Triple I > Viral Pathogens > Flashcards

Viral Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

What two receptors does HIV bind to? What cells are these receptors found on?

A

CCR5 & CXC4 receptors on CD4 T Cells.
The RNA viral genome is integrated into the host DNA genome.
CD4 cells are depleted in HIV infections.

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2
Q

Opportunistic infections are often associated with which viral infection?

A

HIV

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3
Q

Name a virus which causes latent infection in B lymphocytes and which usually presents subclinically in children.

A

HHV-4 {Herpesviridae}

aka Epstein-Barr Virus

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4
Q

How does EBV present?

A

Sore throat, fever, enlarged tonsils and lymph nodes.

Burkitt’s lymphoma (cancer of the lymphocytes) is a serious possible development.

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5
Q

This virus causes infectious mononucleosis.

A

EBV

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6
Q

How is EBV diagnosed?

A

Presence of heterophile antibodies (monospot test).

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7
Q

What should not be given to a patient with EBV?

How is EBV treated? How is it transmitted?

A

Ampicillin, it will result in a rash.
EBV is treated supportively.
It is transmitted through saliva.

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8
Q

Where does HHV-5 {Cytomegalovirus} remain latent after infection?

A

Can remain latent in most tissues, specifically granulocyte precursors and macrophages.

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9
Q

What virus primarily remains asymptomatic and if infected congenitally may not present until later in life.

A

CMV

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10
Q

How is CMV diagnosed?

A

Cell culture, serology {CMV IgM}, and EIA/DFA.

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11
Q

Which cells are infected by Measles (paramyxoviridae)?

A

Vascular endothelial cells.

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12
Q

What are some symptoms of Measles?

A

KOPLIK’S SPOTS, a maculopapular rash which begins behind the ears, high fever, and conjunctivitis.
SSPE is a rare and fatal complication which may occur 6-8 years after measles infection.

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13
Q

What are some symptoms of Rubella {German Measles} (Togaviridae)?

A

Children have no prodrome before the rash while adults do.
Lymphadenopathy, fever, headache, and cough.
Erythematous maculopapular rash which starts on the face.
Can result in very severe congenital defects.

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14
Q

How is Measles transmitted?

A

Airborne transmission.

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15
Q

How is Rubella transmitted?

A

Vertical, droplet, and contact transmission.

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16
Q

What does B-19 (Parvovirus) require for infection?

A

Slap-cheek or B-19 requires actively dividing cells and attaches to the host cell via P antigen.

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17
Q

What causes the rash associated with B-19?

A

The rash is a result of immune complex deposition.

B-19 can cause lysis of precursor RBCs (nucleated erythrocytes).

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18
Q

Not much is known about HHV-6/7. What are some of the symptoms associated with it?

A

An abrupt fever, rash which begins on the back of the neck, HHV-6/7 are most commonly found in young children.

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19
Q

What are the most common causes of the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus and Coronavirus.

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20
Q

What does Rhinovirus bind to on epithelial cells?

A

I-CAM-1

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21
Q

How is the common cold spread?

A

Fomites, direct, or droplet transmission. Kissing is ineffective at transmitting.

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22
Q

What does Respiratory Syncytial Virus {RSV} (Paramyxoviridae) cause?

A

Fusion of cells in the respiratory epithelium which leads to ciliary dysfunction and degeneration. Its symptoms include a wheezing cough in infants (smaller airways) periods of apnea or hypoxia (blue lips) and bronchiolitis or pneumonia.

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23
Q

What condition is associated with Parainfluenza Virus?

A

PIV 1 results in croup (barking seal like cough) and PIV 3 results in bronchiolitis/pneumonia.

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24
Q

How is a Parainfluenza infection diagnosed?

A

DFA/EIA, Serology.

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25
Q

How is parainfluenza virus spread?

A

Contact and large droplet.

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26
Q

What does influenza A (orthomyxoviridae) bind to?

A

Sialic acid receptors in the respiratory epithelium.

Parainfluenza also binds sialic acid receptors in the respiratory epithelium.

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27
Q

Define antigenic drift and antigenic shift.

A

Antigenic drift - point mutations causing small changes to the virus; responsible for annual outbreaks.
Antigenic shift - Exchange of genetic material between two viruses which have infected the same cell; leads to pandemics.

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28
Q

How is a influenza A infection diagnosed?

A

DFA

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29
Q

How is influenza A spread? What drugs may be used to treat it?

A

Droplet (airborne is suspected but not proven).

Amantidine, Rimantadine, Oseltamivir, Zanamivir.

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30
Q

What action do herpes simplex viruses exert on cells? What does this result in?

A

Herpes simplex viruses shut down protein synthesis in the host cell which leads to cell lysis.

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31
Q

What do HSV-1 and HSV-2 cause? How are they treated?

A

HSV-1: Cold sores, conjunctivitis, and keratinitis.
HSV-2: Genital lesions.
Acyclovir and its pro-drugs.

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32
Q

<p>

| How are herpes simplex viruses spread?</p>

A

<p>
Respiratory droplets &amp; Direct contact. Vertical transmission is possible. Often will give immunoglobulins or antivirals prior to delivery, especially if active lesions.</p>

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33
Q

HSV-3 is also known as:

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) or Chickenpox and Shingles.

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34
Q

How is varicella spread?

A

It spreads through airborne transmission.

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35
Q

Describe the rashes of chickenpox and shingles.

A

Chickenpox will have a spread out rash that appears rapidly.
Shingles rash typically has the lesions tighter together. The lesions will all be in the same dermatome as the latent cells residing in the dorsal root where located.
Both lesions present rashes at different stages of development.

36
Q

Describe the development of lesions in chickenpox and shingles.

A

Lesions progress from macules to vesicles. The lesions can be at different stages of development.

37
Q

Describe the development of lesions in smallpox.

A

A smallpox rash progresses from macular to vesicular to pustular.
All the lesions are at the same stage of development.

38
Q

How is smallpox spread?

A

Respiratory droplets and direct contact.

39
Q

What does smallpox (Poxviridae) present with besides the rash? What does epidermal growth factor do?

A

Fever, malaise, backache, and the rash which starts after 3-4 days and starts on the buccal/pharyngeal mucosa.
The epidermal growth factor causes epithelial cells to grow and undergo necrosis.

40
Q

What are the two types of Coxsackie virus and how do they present?

A

Type A: Hand, foot, and mouth disease. Lesions on the aforementioned areas as well as herpangina (fever, sore throat, gray vesicles on the palate).

Type B: Bornholm Disease which presents with a fever and chest pain.

41
Q

What is an echovirus?

A

Any of a group of enteroviruses that can cause a range of diseases, including respiratory infections and a mild form of meningitis.

42
Q

What is Bornholm disease?

A

A disease which presents with fever and chest pain. Associated with young men who work out after a recent cold.

43
Q

What virus causes Hepatitis A? B? C?

A

Picornavirus, Hepadnavirus, Flavivirus.

44
Q

What symptoms are associated with all forms of hepatitis?

A

Liver inflammation, darkening urine, jaundice, and flu-like symptoms.

45
Q

What test is done for all forms of hepatitis?

A

A Liver enzyme level test = Alanine Transaminase (ALT) Test.

46
Q

What additional tests may be done for hepatitis C?

A

HCV RNA and Fibroscan.

47
Q

How is Hepatitis A spread? How is it treated?

A

Fecal-oral transmission. Supportive therapy and gamma globulin.

48
Q

How is Hepatitis B spread? How is it treated?

A

Horizontally through IV, blood products, sexual contact or vertically.
It is treated with immunoglobulins and tanocovir.

49
Q

How is Hepatitis C spread? How is it treated?

A

Vertically, or Horizontally through Blood, IV, or sexual contact.

50
Q

How do chronic and acute Hepatitis B differ in their blood test results?

A

Acute HepB will disappear from serology. Chronic HepB will show S and E antigens with the level of E antigen representing the activity of the virus. IgM against cAg indicates acute infection while IgG indicates chronic.

51
Q

What is the mortality of rabies?

A

100% without treatment (immediate vaccination).

52
Q

How long in the incubation for rabies? What test is done to detect it?

A

Rabies incubation depends on how far from the brain the bite occurs. The presence of the viral antigen in the brain is tested for.

53
Q

What irus causes rabies?

A

Rhabdovirus

54
Q

What are some symptoms of rabies? What animal often transmits rabies?

A

Fever, headache, agitation, hypersalivation, dysphagia, coma and subsequent death.
Bats.

55
Q

What is the name of a virus which can cause aseptic meningitis?

A

Enterovirus Meningitis

56
Q

An echovirus is what type of virus?

A

Enterovirus; one of the most common causes of viral meningitis. The second being HSV-2.

57
Q

How is enterovirus meningitis spread?

A

Intra-familial spread (direct contact).

58
Q

What three viruses (often spread by mosquitos) are types of flavivirus?

A

Dengue Virus, West Nile Virus, and Yellow Fever Virus.

59
Q

Which two viruses spend part of their time in macrophages?

A

CMV remains latent in macrophages.

Dengue Virus replicates in macrophages.

60
Q

What can an infection with a second serotype of Dengue virus lead to?

A

Hemorrhagic fever.

61
Q

What should not be given to someone with Dengue fever?

A

Aspirin. It increases the risk of hemorrhagic fever.

62
Q

What are some symptoms of Dengue fever?

A

Fever, chills, headache, back pain, myalgia, joint and eye pain (back break fever).

63
Q

What are some symptoms of West Nile?

A

Low grade fever, body aches.

In ~1% of infected: encephalitis, high fever, a polio resembling paralysis.

64
Q

What are some of the symptoms of Yellow Fever?

A

High fever, jaundice, shock, and hemorrhage.

65
Q

Monkeys are a possible source of what virus?

A

Yellow Fever (Flavivirus).

66
Q

What virus is the most common cause of diarrhea among infants and young children?

A

Rotavirus

67
Q

What virus is most likely responsible for cruise ship outbreaks of diarrhea?

A

Norovirus

68
Q

What virus increases the risk of cancer because its E6 protein binds p53, and its E7 protein binds p107? This virus is also very hardy and infects squamous epithelium.

A

Papillomavirus (Papovaviridae)

69
Q

How is Papillomavirus (warts) spread and treated?

A

Spread through direct contact. Warts are removed using Podophyllin, Gardasil, Freezing . . .

70
Q

How does Molluscum present and how is it contracted?

A

Painless nodules which are contracted from swimming pools.

71
Q

What is Orf and how is it transmitted?

A

Milker’s nodules. Spread zoonotically.

72
Q

What does mumps (paramyxoviridae) bind to so that it may enter cells?

A

Sialic acid receptors.

73
Q

What are some of the symptoms of mumps?

A

Swelling of te salivary glands, fever, malaise, headache.
Can cause spontaneous abortion in the first trimester.
Can cause sterility; testicular/ovarian swelling. Sterility is more common in males.
Burning basketballs for vaccination campaign.

74
Q

How is mumps transmitted?

A

Droplet transmission. Patients are infectious and very contagious for 18 days.

75
Q

Name two viral infections which are less severe in children than adults.

A

Poliomyelitis and Chickenpox.

76
Q

What are the three serotypes of Poliomyelitis (picornavirus)?

A

Abortive - most common, flu-like symptoms.
Non-paralytic - Aseptic meningitis.
Paralytic - Flaccid paralysis (~1%).

77
Q

Where are the two locations poliomyelitis can affect?

A

Bulbar - Involves the cranial nerves, including the respiratory centre.
Spinal - Affects the lower limbs.

78
Q

How is poliomyelitis diagnosed?

A

Throat/rectal swab and cell culture.

79
Q

What cells take up poliomyelitis?

A

The M cells in Peyer’s patches. The poliomyelitis virus is stable at low pH’s.

80
Q

How is poliomyelitis transmitted and what vaccines are available for it?

A

Fecal-oral transmission.
Salk - inactivated virus (recommended).
Sabin - Attenuated, no boosters needed but has the potential to revert to wild-type.

81
Q

Why is Rotavirus (Reovirus) more common in infants?

A

Rotavirus is stable in pH 3.0-9.0. Infants have a higher gut pH than adults making it friendlier to the virus.
Rotavirus binds to sialic acid receptors in the intestinal walls.
Group A is the most common.

82
Q

What are some symptoms of rotavirus?

A

Rapid onset acute gastroenteritis. Vomiting + watery diarrhea for 5 days.

83
Q

How is rotavirus spread?

A

Fecal-oral transmission.

84
Q

How is Norovirus spread?

A

Fecal-oral transmission.

85
Q

What symptoms does norovirus present?

A

No prodrome - violent, sudden diarrhea and vomiting. Headache, cramps, fever.

Triple I (7 decks)

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