Viral Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Virus that causes non-specific upper respiratory symptoms?

A

Rhinovirus

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2
Q

How do you diagnose rhinovirus?

A

Clinically

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3
Q

How long do rhinovirus symptoms usually last for?

A

Less than 10 days

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4
Q

How do you treat rhinovirus?

A

Supportive Care
- Saline Wash
- NSAIDs
- Rest
- Fluids
- Decongestants

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5
Q

When and why might you consider giving antibiotics for someone with rhinovirus?

A

Symptoms lasting longer than 10 days
Purulent discharge

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6
Q

Influenza virus is primarily spread via what?

A

Respiratory Droplets

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7
Q

Type of influenza that infects a variety of mammals such as horses, cats, dogs, swine, and people.

A

Type A Influenza

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8
Q

Types of influenza that infect humans almost exclusively.

A

Type B and C Influenza

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9
Q

What type of influenza is usually mild and not tested for?

A

Type C Influenza

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10
Q

What is the average incubation time for influenza?

A

1 - 4 days

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11
Q

Outbreaks of this occur annually in the fall and winter.

A

Influenza Type A

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12
Q

What allows for outbreaks of influenza yearly?

A

Antigenic Drifts

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13
Q

What type of influenza presents with GI symptoms?

A

Influenza Type B

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14
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Influenza?

A

SUDDEN ONSET of SYMPTOMS
- Fever and Chills
- Malaise
- Headache
- Myalgia (Lower Extremities and Back)
- Upper Respiratory Symptoms
- NON PRODUCTIVE COUGH

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15
Q

Common and cheap lab tests that is specific but not sensitive to Influenza virus.

A

Rapid Tests

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16
Q

What type of Influenza testing is most specific and sensitive?

A

PCR Testing

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17
Q

Influenza will show what on a CBC?

A

Leukopenia
Lymphocytopenia

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18
Q

What is the primary complication of influenza?

A

Pneumonia

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19
Q

What are the common causes of pneumonia, secondary to influenza?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza

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20
Q

When should you suspect a secondary bacterial infection with influenza?

A

Fever that recurs or longer than 4 days
Productive Cough
WBC of 10,000 or more

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21
Q

Treatment of Influenza.

A

Supportive Care
- Antivirals can reduce symptoms but not mortality

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22
Q

FDA approved treatment for Types A & B Influenza

A

Oral Oseltamivir
(Neuraminidase inhibitor)

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23
Q

When do you admit someone to the hospital for influenza?

A

Limited support services
Pneumonia
Decreased O2 saturation
Altered mental status
Possibly pregnancy

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24
Q

When is the flu vaccine recommended?

A

All persons over 6 months

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25
Q

Who should get a high dose version of the influenza vaccine?

A

Patients over 65

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26
Q

Rapidly progressive liver failure and encephalopathy that usually occurs in young children, it is associated with Aspirin use in combination with viral infection

A

Reye Syndrome

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27
Q

Recurrent grouped vesicles on an erythematous base that is usually acquired asymptomatically during childhood?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus

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28
Q

What are the symptoms of herpes simplex virus

A
  • Vesicular or ulcerative lesions
  • Burning or Stinging
  • Neuralgia
  • Regional lymph node swelling
  • Lesions crust and heal in one week
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29
Q

What is the rapid, sensitive diagnostic test for HSV?

A

Direct Fluorescent Antibody Staining

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30
Q

What are commonly available tests for HSV in the clinical setting?

A

Viral Culture
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

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31
Q

An old test used to diagnose HSV, however, it is not commonly used anymore?

A

Tzanck Smear

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32
Q

How do you treat a first episode of oral or genital HSV infection?

A

Acyclovir
Valacyclovir
Famciclovir

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33
Q

Transmission of Varicella Zoster occurs via what routes?

A

Direct Lesion Contact
Droplet
Airborne

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34
Q

A vesicular and itchy rash that has erythematous macule that becomes papule then vesicles and pustules, and the crust over. All of these stages occur simultaneously.
(Dew Drops On A Rose Petal)

A

Chickenpox (VZV)

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35
Q

What testing has the highest yield when testing for Chicken Pox?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

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36
Q

What is the treatment for Chicken Pox?

A

Healthy child under 12
- Supportive
Everyone over 12
- Acyclovir

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37
Q

Unilateral vesicular rash with dermatomal involvement. The rash does not cross the midline.

A

Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

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38
Q

Shingles outbreak that affects the facial nerve near one of a patients ears. Presents with ipsilateral facial palsy, vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing deficits.

A

Ramsey Hunt Syndrome

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39
Q

How do you treat Shingles?

A

Valacyclovir or Famciclovir
Corticosteroids

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40
Q

How do you treat post herpatic neuralgia?

A

Gabapentin
Lidocaine patches
Tricyclic Antidepressants
Capsaicin cream

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41
Q

What are the common strains of HPV that are also considered to be low-risk?

A

HPV 6 and 11

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42
Q

What are the high risk strains of HPV that are oncogenic and responsible for the majority of cervical cancers.

A

HPV 16 and 18

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43
Q

What is the incubation period of HPV?

A

2-18 months

44
Q

What is the name of the common wart caused by HPV?

A

Verruca Vulgaris

45
Q

Name of the genital warts caused by HPV?

A

Condyloma Acuminatum

46
Q

What strains of HPV causes 90% of genital warts?

A

HPV 6 and 11

47
Q

Name of the plantar warts caused by HPV?

A

Verruca Plantaris

48
Q

Wart like appearance that interrupts normal skin lines and often appear to have “seeds”

A

Plantar Warts

49
Q

How do you treat plantar warts?

A

Liquid Nitrogen
Topical Salicylic Acid
Blunt Dissection (if refractory)

50
Q

What is the treatment of choice for genital warts in men?

A

Podophyllum Resin

51
Q

What is the treatment of choice for genital warts in women?

A

Imiquimod Cream

52
Q

What virus causes mononucleosis and infects more than 95% of adults worldwide and persist for the lifetime of the host in latency?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

53
Q

What type of cells does Epstein-Barr Virus infect?

A

B and T Lymphocytes

54
Q

What happens if you treat a patient who has Epstein-Barr Virus with amoxicillin or ampicillin?

A

Erythematous Rash (80% of the time)

55
Q

How do you test for Epstein-Barr Virus?

A

Heterophile Antibody (Monospot)
IgM Antibody to EBV Virus Capsid Antigen

56
Q

How do you treat Epstein-Barr Virus?

A

Supportive Care
(usually resolves in 2-4 weeks)

57
Q

What is a rare complication of Epstein-Barr Virus?

A

Splenic Rupture (rare)
- no contact sports for 4 weeks

58
Q

What percentage of patients may develop splenomegaly from EBV?

A

50% or more

59
Q

Acute onset of unilateral or bilateral Parotid gland or other salivary gland enlargement.

A

Mumps

60
Q

What virus causes Mumps?

A

Paramyxovirus

61
Q

What is the leading cause of pancreatitis in children?

A

Mumps

62
Q

What is the most common complication of Mumps

A

Epididymo-orchitis

63
Q

How do you treat mumps?

A

Supportive Therapy
(isolate until swelling subsides)

64
Q

What is the prognosis for mumps?

A

Excellent!
(rarely fatal, due to encephalitis)

65
Q

Viral exanthem caused by Human Parvovirus B19

A

Erythema Infectiosum (Slap Cheeks Disease)

66
Q

How can we prevent mumps?

A

Vaccination
- 2 series
- Live Vaccine

67
Q

Characteristic rash of Erythema Infectiosum appears in 3 stages. What are the stages?

A
  1. Slapped Cheek with Circumoral Pallor
  2. Symmetric maculopapular rash on the trunk
  3. Lacy and reticulated rash.
68
Q

How do you treat erythema infectiosum?

A

Supportive Care

69
Q

When are children typically contagious with erythema infectiosum?

A

Prior to developing the rash

70
Q

What disease is caused by Human Herpesvirus 6 and 7?

A

Roseola Infantum
(Sixth Disease)

71
Q

What childhood rash has an abrupt onset of high fever (often reaching 104F) and lymphadenopathy?

A

Roseola

72
Q

Rose-pink blanchable rash that BEGINS on the TRUNK, BUTTOCKS, and NECK before spreading to the face?

A

Roseola

73
Q

Erythematous papule, macule, or ulcers on the soft palate and uvula?

A

Nagayama Spots

74
Q

How do you treat roseola?

A

Supportive care

75
Q

What virus causes measles?

A

Measles (Rubeola) virus

76
Q

What are the three “C”s of Measles?

A

Cough
Coryza
Conjuntivitis

77
Q

Small 1-3mm pale white papules with an erythematous base on the buccal mucosa opposite of the second molars. Appears around 48 hours after the onset of rash.

A

Koplik Spots

78
Q

Morbilliform (maculopapular), brick-red rash that begins at the hairline and neck that then darkens and coalesces.

A

Measles (Rubeola)

79
Q

How do you treat measles (Rubeola)?

A

Supportive
Vitamin A in severe cases

80
Q

What disease is caused Togavirus?

A

Rubella (German Measles)

81
Q

What disease has a prodrome of lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever?

A

Rubella (German Measles)

82
Q

Irregular pink or light red non-confluent maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities. It typically spares the palms and soles. (3 day Measles)

A

Rubella (German Measles)

83
Q

Small red macule or petechiae on the soft palate

A

Forchheimer Spots (Rubella)

84
Q

How do you diagnose Rubella?

A

Serologic Confirmation
(IgM antibody)

85
Q

What is the treatment for Rubella?

A

Supportive Care

86
Q

Clinical disease seen primarily in immunocompromised patients and caused by the Human herpesvirus 5

A

Cytomegalovirus

87
Q

How do the symptoms of Cytomegalovirus usually present?

A

Similar to Epstein-Barr Virus (Mononucleosis)

88
Q

How long do the symptoms of CMV usually last?

A

7-8 weeks

89
Q

How do you treat Cytomegalovirus in immunocompromised patients?

A

Oral Valganciclovir
IV Ganciclovir

90
Q

What is the most common congenital viral infection?

A

Congenital Cytomegalovirus

91
Q

What is the most common health problem from congenital cytomegalovirus?

A

Hearing loss in more than 50% of infants

92
Q

How do you treat congenital cytomegalovirus?

A

Ganciclovir or Valganciclovir (6 months)

93
Q

Arthropod-borne arbovirus that is carried by mosquitos mostly in mid-July through early September. Most common domestically acquired arbovirus in the United States.

A

West Nile virus

94
Q

What are the two versions of West Nile Virus?

A

Mild (self-limited)
Neuroinvasive (long-term sequelae)

95
Q

What are the symptoms of West Nile Virus

A

Acute Fever and Flu Symptoms
Meningitis
Encephalitis
- altered mental status
- tremor
- seizure
- acute flaccid paralysis

96
Q

What are the complications of West Nile Virus?

A

Bronchial pneumonia
Prolonged weakness and associated problems
Retinopathy
Hepatitis
Pancreatitis

97
Q

How do you treat West Nile Virus?

A

Supportive Treatment
- no vaccine or antiviral

98
Q

Viral hemorrhagic fever that is transmitted by contact with body fluids and skin. It has a 2-21 day incubation period and is not transmissible prior to symptoms.

A

Ebola

99
Q

Flavivirus that is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes mostly in tropical areas. Can also be transmitted via sex, as well as maternal-fetal.

A

Zika Virus

100
Q

Where is Zika virus most commonly found?

A

Central and South America
Caribbean

101
Q

How do most cases of Zika Virus present?

A

Asymptomatically

102
Q

What is the test of choice for Zika virus?

A

Serum or Urine IgM

103
Q

If Zika is symptomatic, how can it present?

A

Pruritic Rash
- face, trunk, extremities, palms, soles
Arthralgia
Conjunctivitis
Hematospermia (males)

104
Q

What are the 5 main features of Congenital Zika Syndrome?

A
  1. Microcephaly
  2. Decreased Brain Tissue
  3. Ocular Damage
  4. Congenital Contractures
  5. Hypertonia
    Many will die before the age of 2.
105
Q

How do you treat Zika Virus?

A

Supportive Treatment
- Do not use NSAIDs in pregnant women >32 weeks

106
Q

What is the ToRCH Syndromes?

A

Toxoplasma Gondii
Other Agents
- Treponema Pallidum, VZV, Parvovirus B19, HIV
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes Simplex Virus