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Video Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

Needs analysis

A
  • first step in developing training program
  • to determine if training is needed and if so the goals, methods, and content of training
  • Org. Analysis
  • Job (tasks) analysis
  • Person analysis
  • Demographic analysis
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2
Q

Org analysis

A

, to determine organizational goals and what is need to achieve these goals

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3
Q

Task analysis

A

Determine the ksaos workers need to perform jobs

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4
Q

Person analysis

A

Determine who which workers need training

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5
Q

Demographic analysis

A
  • determine training needs of certain groups of workers
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6
Q

On the job training methods

A
  • apprenticeship, coaching, mentoring, cross-training, and job rotation
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7
Q

Cross training

A
  • teach how to perform essential task of similar jobs so you can fill in
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8
Q

Job rotation

A
  • usually for manageal workers
  • have performed each job that will be managing
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9
Q

Pros of on the job training

A
  • less costly
  • maximize transfer of training
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10
Q

Cons of on-the-job training

A
  • potential for errors
  • safety issues
  • disruption of productivity
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11
Q

Off the job training

A

Classroom discussion/lectures, technology-based learning, and simulation training

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12
Q

Technology-Based learning

A
  • video conference, webinars, and computer self-study
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13
Q

Simulation training

A
  • Festival training, and virtual reality training
  • useful when on-the-job training is too expensive or dangerous
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14
Q

Vestibule training

A
  • allowed to acquire skills using actual work equipment
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15
Q

Vr training

A
  • create virtual reality situations that we’ll encounter on the job
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16
Q

Pros of off the job training methods

A
  • greater control of environment
  • can train a large number of people
  • reduced safety risks
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17
Q

Cons of off the job training

A
  • can be more expensive than on the job training
  • limited transfer of training
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18
Q

Full scope evaluation

A
  • four types of evaluation: formative, summative, conformative, and meta
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19
Q

Formative

A
  • conducted while the training program is being developed to help determine changes needed to meet training goals
  • having subject matter experts review content and trainees complete measures of attitude and learning after completing each component of the program
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20
Q

Summative

A
  • soon after the program is delivered
  • used to determine the immediate effects of training
  • assessing trainee’s reactions to training and the effectiveness of training for meeting goals
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21
Q

Confirmative

A

Ongoing,

  • months and sometimes even years after training is delivered
  • evaluate the long-term effects of training

-) administering measures similar to those as part of summative evaluation

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22
Q

Meta-

A
  • quality control evaluation
  • given during and after to assess the reliability and validity of formative, summative, and conformative evaluations
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23
Q

Kirkpatrick’s four level evaluation

A
  • four levels of criteria ordered from least to most informative

Reaction, learning, behavior, and results

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24
Q

Reaction criteria

A
  • trainees impressions of training
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25
Q

Learning criteria

A
  • how well trainees learned information and skills from training
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26
Q

Behavior criteria

A
  • degree training had a positive effect on trainees job performance
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27
Q

Results criteria

A
  • effective training on organization outcomes, return on investment and customer satisfaction
  • most useful but most difficult to assess if changes are due to training or other factors
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28
Q

Supers life space, lifespan career theory

A
  • job a job that fits a person’s self-concept leads to greater job satisfaction and success
  • five stages: growth, expiration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement
  • each stage has a different set of developmental tasks
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29
Q

Self-concept

A

Super

  • how a person perceives self and situations
  • a result of biological characteristics, social roles, and how others react to and evaluate the person
  • changes over time as a result of experiences
  • major determinant of career decisions
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30
Q

Career maturity

A

Super
- ability to successfully accomplish the tasks of their stage

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31
Q

Life space

A

super

  • various roles a person assumes at times and in different contexts
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32
Q

Life space

A

super

  • various roles a person assumes at times and in different contexts
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33
Q

Life career rainbow

A

Super

  • used in career counseling
  • shows the relationship between life stages and major roles over their lifespan
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34
Q

Holland’s theory of career choice

A
  • six personality and work environment types
  • congruence between a person’s personality and the nature of the work environment lead to job satisfaction, persistence, and productivity especially in people with high degree of differentiation

R- realistic
I- investigative
A- artistic
S- social
E- enterprising
C- conventional

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35
Q

Holland’s self-directed search

A
  • assesses six personality types
  • congruence I personally typing job environment is predictive of job outcomes when a score profile indicates a high level of differentiation- high score on one type and low on others
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36
Q

Realistic

A

Holland

  • jobs involving working with objects, machines, plants, tools, or animal/ working outside
  • electrician veterinarian assistant or surveyor
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37
Q

Investigative

A

Holland

  • prefer work that involves observing, learning, investigating, analyzing, evaluating and problem solving
  • biologist, mathematician, or computer programmer
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38
Q

Artistic

A

Holland

  • prefer work that is unstructured, and involves using creative abilities and intuition
  • graphic designer, photographer, or cosmetologist
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39
Q

Social

A

Holland
. Prefer jobs that involve informing, inspiring, helping, training, and curing people

Child care worker, mental health counselor, and tour guide

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40
Q

Enterprising

A
  • Holland
  • work that involves influencing, persuading, leading, or managing people to achieve organizational goals/ for economic gain
  • personnel recruiter, lawyer or marketing manager
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41
Q

Conventional

A

Holland

  • jobs that involve explicit, systematic manipulation of data, attention to detail, and orderly routines
  • accountant, statistician, or librarian
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42
Q

Dawis and loftquest theory of work adjustment

A
  • The length of time person stays on the job( tenure) is primary indicator of work adjustment
  • work adjustment is determined by satisfaction and satisfactoriness
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43
Q

Satisfaction

A

Dallas and loftquist

  • employees satisfaction with the job
  • depends on the correspondence of the person’s needs and the rewards provided by the job
  • determined whether or not person stays on the job
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44
Q

Satisfactoriness

A
  • dawis and loftquist
  • employer satisfaction with worker
  • correspondence between worker skills and the skill requirements of the job
  • determines whether or not the employer reattains the employee
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45
Q

Tiedman’s career decision model

A
  • career decision making is related to ego development
  • two phases: anticipation and implementation
  • each consist of different stages
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46
Q

Anticipation

A
  • tiedman
  • exploration, crystallization, choice, and the clarification
  • person becomes familiar with different jobs, makes a tentative job choice and prepares to implement that choice
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47
Q

Implementation phase

A

Tiedman

  • induction, Reformation, and integration stages
  • begin chosen job, becomes proficient at it and achieve a balance between needs and the orgs demands
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48
Q

Krumboltz social learning theory of career decision making

A
  • people are most likely to choose a particular occupation when they have a history of succeeding in tasks they believe are relevant to that occupation, have observed important person being reinforced performing tasks that are similar to those relevant to the occupation, and have developed positive associations with the occupation through direct or indirect messages

four factors contribute to career decision-making process: genetic endowment and special abilities, environmental conditions and events, learning experiences, and task approach skills

  • optimal career decision making requires being exposed to a variety of career related learning experiences, regardless of race,ethnicity, or gender
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49
Q

Genetic endowment and special abilities

A

Krumboltz

  • may support or limit a person’s career choices
  • gender, ethnicity, abilities and disabilities
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50
Q

Environmental conditions and events

A

Krumboltz

  • beyond person’s control
  • nature and number of job training and job opportunities, family/social and financial resources and community resources
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51
Q

Learning experiences

A
  • krumboltz

instrumental and associative learning

  • effect A person’s career related choices and behaviors and attitudes and beliefs about different occupations
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52
Q

Task approach skills

A

krumboltz

  • A result of interactions between other 3 factors
  • skills and standards person brings to work: decision making skills, performance standards, and work related values
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53
Q

Job analysis

A

Systematic procedure That serves several functions in orgs

  • provides information needed to identify job selection and performance appraisal measures
  • initial step in determining appropriate salary for a job(Job evaluation) and goals and content of training programs
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54
Q

Methods of job analysis

A

Observing employees while they perform the job

  • interviewing employees and supervisors about the job
  • having employees, supervisors and others familiar with the job completes surveys and questionnaires
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55
Q

Structure techniques of job analysis

A
  • work oriented
  • worker oriented
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56
Q

Work oriented

A
  • task oriented job analysis

Focuses on the tasks that must be accomplished in order to get the desired job outcomes

Functional Job analysis

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57
Q

Functional job analysis

A
  • used to identify what tasks a job involves and how those tasks are performed
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58
Q

Worker oriented job analysis

A
  • K. Identifies what knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics are required to successfully perform job tasks
  • position analysis questionnaire
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59
Q

Position analysis questionnaire

A

,- worker oriented

,- job in terms of the extent to which it requires certain behaviors

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60
Q

Job evaluation

A
  • begins with a job analysis
  • conducted to make decisions about worker compensation

I.e. establish comparable worth

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61
Q

Comparable worth

A
  • equal pay for work of equal value
  • jobs that require the same skills experiences, and responsibilities or are of comparable value to the employer should pay similar wages
  • applied primarily to the gender gap in wages
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62
Q

Point system

A
  • most common type of job evaluation
  • determine the value of job by assigning points to job-related factors identified by job analysis and then summed up points to derive a total score which is used to determine the appropriate wage
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63
Q

Performance appraisals (criterion measures)

A
  • information needed to provide employees with performance feedback, help with decisions about raises, promotions, training, and layoffs

Objective measures and subjective measures

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64
Q

Objective measures

A
  • provide quantitative data
  • include: direct measures of productivity and number of errors, absences, and accidents

Can provide important information but aren’t available for some jobs, may not provide complete information about an employee’s performance, can be affected by unexpected or uncontrollable events

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65
Q

Subjective measures

A
  • rely on the judgment of the reader
  • categorized as relative or absolute

Most commonly used criterion measures

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66
Q

Subjective measures

A
  • rely on the judgment of the reader
  • categorized as relative or absolute

Most commonly used criterion measures

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67
Q

Pros of subjective measures

A
  • can provide information on aspects of performance that can’t be evaluated with an objective measure
  • allow raters to take into consideration situational factors that might affect performance
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68
Q

Con of subjective measures

A
  • can be affected by rater biases
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69
Q

Relative measures

A
  • compare performance of two or more employees
  • paired comparison, technique and forced distribution method
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70
Q

paired comparison technique

A
  • compare each employee to all other employees in pairs on each dimension of job performance
  • indicate which employee’s performance is best
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71
Q

Pro and con of paired comparison technique

A
  • reduces rater biases
  • can be time very consuming when there’s many employees to rate
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72
Q

Forced distribution method

A

-
raters categorize employees on each dimension of job performance in terms of a specified distribution (can only give a certain percentage of employees a specific rating)

-

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73
Q

Forced distribution method

A

-
raters categorize employees on each dimension of job performance in terms of a specified distribution (can only give a certain percentage of employees a specific rating)

-

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74
Q

Pro and cons. Force distribution method

A
  • alleviates rater biases
  • provides inaccurate information when the performance does not match the pre-specified categories
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75
Q

Pro and cons. Force distribution method

A
  • alleviates rater biases
  • provides inaccurate information when the performance does not match the pre-specified categories
76
Q

Absolute measures

A
  • evaluate employees without considering performance of other employees
  • critical incident technique, graphic rating scale, and behavioral anchored rating scales
77
Q

Critical incident technique

A
  • Job analysis and performance assessment
  • identify certain behaviors that are associated with exceptionally poor and exceptionally good performance by observing employees where they work or interviewing people about the job
  • list of critical incidences used to evaluate performance by checking those apply to the employee
78
Q

Advantage of critical incident technique

A
  • provides useful information for employee feedback because focus is on specific observable behaviors
79
Q

Disadvantages of critical incident technique

A
  • can be time consuming
  • focuses on extreme. Not typical behaviors
  • Job specific, new critical incidents must be identified for different jobs
80
Q

Disadvantages of critical incident technique

A
  • can be time consuming
  • focuses on extreme. Not typical behaviors
  • Job specific, new critical incidents must be identified for different jobs
81
Q

Graphic rating scale

A
  • rates an employee’s job performance on each dimension of performance on a Likert type rating scale
82
Q

Graphic rating scale

A
  • rates an employee’s job performance on each dimension of performance on a Likert type rating scale
83
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of graphic rating scale

A
  • easy to construct
  • very vulnerable to rater biases
84
Q

Advantage and disadvantage of graphic rating scale

A
  • easy to construct
  • very vulnerable to rater biases
85
Q

Behaviorally anchored rating scales

A
  • type of graphic rating scale.
  • each point on the scale for each dimension of performance is anchored with the description of a specific behavior
  • behaviors represent levels of performance ranging from very ineffective to very effective
  • Have employee supervisors and subject matter. Experts identify essential dimensions of job performance and specific behaviors for each dimension that represent good, average and poor performance
86
Q

Advantages of behavioral anchored rating scales

A
  • behavioral anchors describe specific behaviors which provides information that’s useful for employee feedback and helps reduce rater biases
87
Q

Advantages of behavioral anchored rating scales

A
  • behavioral anchors describe specific behaviors which provides information that’s useful for employee feedback and helps reduce rater biases
88
Q

Disadvantages of behavioral anchored rating scales

A
  • Job specific
  • take a lot of time to construct
89
Q

Distributional biases

A
  • raider consistently uses one part of the rating scale
  • central tendency, leniency, and strictness bias
90
Q

Central tendency bias

A
  • rater consistently gives all employers average ratings regardless of performance
91
Q

Central tendency bias

A
  • rater consistently gives all employers average ratings regardless of performance
92
Q

Leniency and strictness bias

A
  • rater consistently gives all employees either High ratings or low ratings, regardless of actual performance
93
Q

Halo bias

A
  • AKA Halo error and Halo effect
  • raiders rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how the rater rates that employee on all other unrelated dimensions
  • can be positive or negative
94
Q

How to reduce rater biases?

A
  • using relative rather than absolute measures
  • anchoring points on a graphic rating scale with descriptions of specific job behaviors
  • adequate training: frame reference training
95
Q

How to reduce rater biases?

A
  • using relative rather than absolute measures
  • anchoring points on a graphic rating scale with descriptions of specific job behaviors
  • adequate training: frame reference training
96
Q

Frame of reference training

A
  • designed to increase the accuracy of ratings And comparability of ratings by different raters

-making sure raters understand the multi-dimensional nature of job performance, can distinguish between different levels of performance, and have opportunities to practice assigning ratings and receive feedback about the accuracy of their ratings

97
Q

Employee selection techniques

A

– also known as predictors

  • commonly used: interviews, general mental ability, test, integrity tests, biographical information, work samples, and assessment centers
98
Q

Employee selection techniques

A

– also known as predictors

  • commonly used: interviews, general mental ability, test, integrity tests, biographical information, work samples, and assessment centers
99
Q

Interviews

A
  • most commonly used selection techniques
  • unstructured or structured
100
Q

Structured interviews

A
  • most valid because questions ask for information that has been found to be related to job performance
  • same questions are asked of all applicants
  • responses can be scored using the scoring key
  • behavioral and situational interviews
101
Q

Behavioral interviews

A
  • ask interviewees how they respond to specific job specific situations in the past
    .
  • higher validity
102
Q

Situational interviews

A
  • questions that ask interviewees how they would handle situations? They’re likely to encounter on the job
103
Q

General mental ability tests

A
  • cognitive ability test
  • among the mostfrequently used selection techniques

most valid predictor across different jobs, job settings, and different criterion measures

-

104
Q

Disadvantage of mental ability tests

A
  • greater risk to unfairly discriminate against members of some racial and ethnic minority groups
105
Q

Integrity test

A
  • used to predict whether applicants are likely to engage in counter productive behavior

,- Don’t discriminate and good predictors of counterprotective behaviors and to a somewhat lesser degree job performance

  • overt integrity tests and personality based integrity tests
106
Q

Overt integrity test

A

-ask about attitudes towards and previous engagement in counterproductive behaviors

107
Q

Overt integrity test

A

-ask about attitudes towards and previous engagement in counterproductive behaviors

108
Q

Personality based integrity test

A

personality characteristics that have been found to predict the risk for engaging in counterproductive behaviors

109
Q

Biographical information

A
  • based on the assumption past behavior is The best predictor of future behavior
  • most useful when requested information has been found to correlate with job performance
  • biographical information blanks: empirically derived and used multiple choice/ other formats that are easily scored
  • ask about education , job history, and other information found to predict job performance like health, hobbies and social relationships
  • may lack face validity
110
Q

Biographical information

A
  • based on the assumption past behavior is The best predictor of future behavior
  • most useful when requested information has been found to correlate with job performance
  • biographical information blanks: empirically derived and used multiple choice/ other formats that are easily scored
  • ask about education , job history, and other information found to predict job performance like health, hobbies and social relationships
  • may lack face validity
111
Q

Work samples

A
  • require job applicants to perform tasks that they would complete while on on the job to evaluate current level of performance

-
- among the most valid predictors of job performance

112
Q

Realistic job preview

A
  • includes work sample
  • providing job applicants with accurate information about the job so they have realistic job expectations and as a result are satisfied with their jobs and at lower risk for quitting
113
Q

Realistic job preview

A
  • includes work sample
  • providing job applicants with accurate information about the job so they have realistic job expectations and as a result are satisfied with their jobs and at lower risk for quitting
114
Q

Assessment centers

A
  • used to select, promote, and train managerial level applicants and incumbents
  • multiple raters rate candidates unessential dimensions of job performance using multiple methods
  • general mental ability test, structured interviews, and situational judgment test
115
Q

Assessment centers

A
  • used to select, promote, and train managerial level applicants and incumbents
  • multiple raters rate candidates unessential dimensions of job performance using multiple methods
  • general mental ability test, structured interviews, and situational judgment test
116
Q

In basket test

A
  • situational judgment test commonly used
  • assess decision-making skills and requires participants to respond to memos, reports and other communications that are similar to those likely to encounter on the job
117
Q

In basket test

A
  • situational judgment test commonly used
  • assess decision-making skills and requires participants to respond to memos, reports and other communications that are similar to those likely to encounter on the job
118
Q

Leaderless group discussion

A
  • evaluate leadership potential
  • group of five to six members that work together to solve a work-related problem without an assigned leader
119
Q

Steps in evaluating predictors and criteria

A

1 Conduct a job analysis- what task in ksaos required to perform the task

2 select/develop the predictor and criterion measure- using results of job analysis

  1. Determine the reliability and validity predictor and criterion measure
  2. If measures are not new and reliability and validity exist, unnecessary, if new or haven’t been used before in similar circumstances, obtain the information needed to evaluate the reliability and validity then
    Check for the adverse impact
  3. Evaluate incremental validity
120
Q

Steps in evaluating predictors and criteria

A

1 Conduct a job analysis- what task in ksaos required to perform the task

2 select/develop the predictor and criterion measure- using results of job analysis

  1. Determine the reliability and validity predictor and criterion measure
  2. If measures are not new and reliability and validity exist, unnecessary, if new or haven’t been used before in similar circumstances, obtain the information needed to evaluate the reliability and validity then
    Check for the adverse impact
  3. Evaluate incremental validity
121
Q

Incremental validity

A
  • the degree to which use of the predictor increases decision-making accuracy
122
Q

Incremental validity

A
  • the degree to which use of the predictor increases decision-making accuracy
123
Q

Evaluating predictors and criteria

A
  • reliability and validity they used to determine the adequacy and predictors and criterion measures
124
Q

Evaluating predictors and criteria

A
  • reliability and validity they used to determine the adequacy and predictors and criterion measures
125
Q

Reliability

A
  • the degree to which to predictor or criterion measure is unaffected by measurement (random) error
  • provides consistent scores
126
Q

Reliability

A
  • the degree to which to predictor or criterion measure is unaffected by measurement (random) error
  • provides consistent scores
127
Q

Reliability coefficient

A

0-+1

  • The closer the coefficient is the plus one, the less the effect of measurement error and the greater the consistency of scores
128
Q

Validity

A
  • The degree to which predictor a criterion measure assesses what it was designed to
  • content, construct,and criterion related validity
129
Q

Criterion related validity

A
  • most important for hiring decisions
  • correlating the scores obtained by a sample of individuals on the predictor and the criterion measure to obtain a criterion related validity coefficient
130
Q

Criterion related validity

A
  • most important for hiring decisions
  • correlating the scores obtained by a sample of individuals on the predictor and the criterion measure to obtain a criterion related validity coefficient
131
Q

Adverse impact

A
  • A use of selection, test or other employment procedure results in unfair discrimination against elite members of a legal protected group
132
Q

Causes of adverse impact

A
  • differential validity
  • unfairness
133
Q

Differential validity

A
  • predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups

-

134
Q

Test unfairness

A
  • Members of legally protected group consistently obtain scores on a selection test or other employment procedures and members of the majority group, but the score difference is not reflected in group differences in scores on job performance measures
135
Q

80% rule

A
  • used to determine whether a selection test is having an adverse impact
  • hiring rate of majority group is multiplied by 80% to determine the minimum hiring rate for a legally protected group
136
Q

Incremental validity

A
  • increase in decision making accuracy. That occurs when a new predictor is added to the existing selection procedure
  • Taylor Russell tables are used to determine increment validity when the predictors criterion related validity coefficient, selection ratio, and base rater known
137
Q

Criterion related validity coefficient

A
  • indicates the correlation between predictor and criterion measure
  • larger the coefficient, the greater the incremental validity
  • predictors with low to moderate validity coefficients can have adequate incremental validity as long as the selection ratio is low and the base rate is moderate
138
Q

Selection ratio

A

-0-1(out of 10)
ratio of job applicants to job openings

  • lower the selection ratio, the greater the incremental validity, because have a better pool of candidates and increases the likelihood that the employer has good applicants to choose from
139
Q

Selection ratio

A

-0-1(out of 10)
ratio of job applicants to job openings

  • lower the selection ratio, the greater the incremental validity, because have a better pool of candidates and increases the likelihood that the employer has good applicants to choose from
140
Q

Base rate

A
  • percentage of current employees who are considered successful And hired without the new predictor

Ranges from 0 to 100%

  • incremental validity is greatest when base rate is moderate (near 50%): when face rate is high, adding a new predictor won’t have much effect and when base rate is low something other than the hiring procedure is at fault
141
Q

Maslow’s need hierarchy theory

A
  • we have five biological And instinctive needs that are the primary source of motivation
  • emerge in a hierarchical order from basic to most complex
  • The lowest unfulfilled need is the highest motivator and once it’s fulfilled we’ll move on to the next except for self-actualization equals never fulfilled The lowest unfulfilled need is the highest motivator and once it’s fulfilled we’ll move on to the next except for self-actualization-never completely satisfied
  • physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization
142
Q

Self-Actualization

A

Maslow

  • The need to fulfill one’s potential
  • never completely satisfied
143
Q

Criticisms of Maslow theory

A

– not supported by research

144
Q

Harrisburg’s two-factor theory

A
  • theory of satisfaction and motivation
  • factors that contribute to job satisfaction and motivation differ than those that contribute to job dissatisfaction

-

145
Q

Hygiene factors (job context)

A

+ pay, benefits, work conditions, and coworker relationships

  • fulfill lower order needs
  • cause dissatisfaction when not adequate but don’t cause satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate
146
Q

Motivator (job content) factors

A
  • interesting work conditions, opportunities for responsibilities, challenge, and job advancements
  • fulfill higher order needs
  • when adequate cause satisfaction and motivation when inadequate don’t cause dissatisfaction
147
Q

Job enrichment

A

Herzberg

  • developed two design jobs to provide motivator factors
  • can be applied to different jobs but the effects depend on certain worker characteristics
  • most effective for younger, more educated, and workers with the high need for achievement
148
Q

Goal setting theory

A
  • most important contributor to workers motivation to achieve goals is the acceptance and commitment to goals
  • levels of goal, acceptance and commitment are greatest when goals are specific, moderately difficult, and workers are provided with regular and frequent feedback about goal progress
149
Q

Workers participation in goal setting

A
  • goals tend to be more difficult than gold. Supervisors would have set for them
150
Q

Equity theory

A
  • worker motivation is due to comparisons between your own inputs and outputs and the input and outputs of workers doing same or similar jobs
151
Q

Inputs

A
  • knowledge, skills, experience, and effort
152
Q

Outputs

A
  • compensation, benefits, recognition, and satisfaction
153
Q

Equity

A
  • if input output ratio matched out of others, workers are motivated to maintain current job performance
154
Q

Inequity

A
  • if feel ratio differs, act in ways to establish equity
  • especially if inputs are greater than the outputs
  • motivated to decrease quantity or quality of work or attempt to obtain better outcomes
155
Q

Expectancy theory

A
  • motivation is related to expectancy, instrumentality, and valance
  • workers motivation will be high when all three factors are positive
156
Q

Expectancy

A
  • belief that exerting certain level of effort will lead to successful job performance
157
Q

Instrumentality

A
  • belief that successful job performance lead to certain outcomes
158
Q

Valence

A
  • the value of the outcomes to the worker
159
Q

Fidler’s contingency theory

A
  • two leadership styles. Most effective style depends on situational favorableness
  • status on three factors of situational favorableness combined to produce a very favorable, moderately favorable or unfavorable situation
160
Q

Situational favorfulness

A

Fiedler

  • amount of influence that a leader has on subordinates
  • depends on leader-subordinate relations( range from poor to good ), task structure. (Range from low to high) And leaders position power (range from weak to strong)
161
Q

Least preferred coworker scale up in (LPC)

A
  • used to assess leadership style, , believed leaders were either task or person oriented
  • you at least preferred coworker on setup bipolar adjectives, (friendly/ unfriendly, and sincere/ sincere, rejecting/accepting)
162
Q

Low LPC

A
  • task oriented
  • describe lpc in negative terms because focus on task performance
  • most effective in extreme situations. (Very favorable or very unfavorable)
163
Q

High LPC

A
  • person-oriented)
  • describe LPC in positive terms because can separate personal characteristics from task performance
  • most effective and moderately favorable situations
164
Q

Leaders according to fiedler

A

,- It’s very difficult for leaders to change their styles

  • in order to be effective, must alter work situation to match their styles
165
Q

Hershey and blanchards situational leadership theory

A
  • there’s four leadership styles that differ on levels of task and relationship orientation
  • most effective leadership style depends on job maturity( willingness to assume responsibility, and ability to perform job)
166
Q

Hershey and blanchards situational leadership theory

A
  • there’s four leadership styles that differ on levels of task and relationship orientation
  • most effective leadership style depends on job maturity( willingness to assume responsibility, and ability to perform job)
167
Q

Telling leader

A
  • Hershey and Blanchards
  • High task & low relationship orientation
  • provide specific instructions and close supervision
  • best for employees low in both willingness and ability
168
Q

Selling leader

A
  • Hershey & Blanchard

High task, high relationship orientation

  • directive but explains decisions to employee
  • Best floor employees high in willingness and low in ability
169
Q

Participating

A

Hershey and blanchards

  • low in task and high-end relationship orientation
  • provides assistance and encourages involvement in decision making

Best for low and willingness and high in ability

170
Q

Delegating leader

A

Hershey and blanchards

  • low and task, low in relationship orientation
    Encourages employees to assume responsibility and provides minimum supervision
  • best for employees high in both willingness and ability
171
Q

House’s goal path theory

A

+ effective leaders act as facilitators that help employees achieve work and personal goals

  • they adopt one of four styles and the most effective style depends on characteristics of the employee and the employee’s task
172
Q

Directive

A

House

  • best if the employee is dogmatic or authoritarian and the task is ambiguous or complex
173
Q

Achievement-oriented

A

House

  • employee has a high need to excel and the task is ambiguous /complex /challenging
174
Q

Supportive

A

House

  • employee has low job satisfaction and high need for affiliation, & the task is repetitive, mundane, or unchallenging
175
Q

Participative

A

House

  • house employee has a high need for autonomy or control and the task is ambiguous or unstructured
176
Q

Vroom-yetton-jago contingency model

A
  • leadership is a decision-making process
  • there’s decision making matrices that help identify optimal decision making strategy for different situations
  • using matrices requires leader to consider series of different conditions that include leaders, level of expertise, employees, level of expertise, and the importance of employees commitment to a chosen course of action
  • based on leaders, ratings of high or low importance, matrix indicates what strategy to adopt
  • five strategies that range from highly autocratic to highly democratic
177
Q

Rational (economic) model

A
  • decision makers choose optimal alternative after identifying and evaluating all possible alternatives in an objective, deliberate, and orderly way
  • maximizing and optimizing
178
Q

Bounded rationality model

A
  • rational decision making is limited by individual organization factors
  • limited time, limited information acts as, cognitive abilities of decision maker
  • decision makers consider alternatives until they find a minimally acceptable alternative (satisfying)
179
Q

Organizational process model

A

_ decisions at an organization are made by multiple individuals or in a group

Constrained by the orgs rules and standard operating procedures that make decisions somewhat predictable

180
Q

Groupthink

A
  • suspension of critical thinking that can occur in a highly cohesive group with a strong directive leader, that is isolated from outside opinion and must make a important decision quickly
181
Q

Symptoms of group think

A
  • illusions of invulnerability and unanimity
  • belief in the inherent morality of the group
  • pressure to perform
  • self-censorship

+ Self-appointed mind guards that shield the group from contradictory information

182
Q

Outcomes of group think

A
  • failure to identify alternative solutions to the problem or failure to consider potential risks of the chosen solution
183
Q

Strategies to reduce groupthink

A
  • assuring that the group leader refrains from expressing their opinion at the beginning of the decision making process
  • encouraging group members to be critical and express their opinions
  • appointing someone to play the devil’s advocate by challenging the group’s favorite solutions
  • bringing in outside opinions
184
Q

Risky shift

A

Tendency of groups to make riskier decisions than individual group members would make alone

185
Q

Group polarization

A
  • tendency for groups to make more extreme decisions. (Risky or cautious) Than individuals would make alone
  • The direction of the decision depends on The direction that most group members were leaning towards before they began discussing the problem

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