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VFR Departures Training - Scholarly Flashcards

1
Q

What is the terminal objective of Lesson 202 VFR Departures?

A

In a simulated environment depart VFR aircraft in accordance with MATS.

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2
Q

What are the enabling objectives of Lesson 202 VFR Departures?

A

EO 202.1 Issue taxi clearance to VFR departure. EO 202.2 Apply runway separation. EO 202.3 Issue take-off clearance. EO 202.4 Apply ATS surveillance.

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3
Q

What are the total training hours for Lesson 202 VFR Departures?

A

Theory: 3 hours Skill: 2 hours.

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4
Q

What aids are used in the training of VFR Departures?

A

PowerPoint BAC 202 VFR Departures EN BAC 202 VRR LAB EN BAC 202 Phraseology Lab VFR Departures optional IWP CBT Space-Based ADS-B.

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5
Q

What is the motivation for learning about VFR departures?

A

A large part of an airport controller’s job is to clear aircraft for takeoff. Processing departures is a daily task of any unit and it is essential to be highly competent at fulfilling this task.

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6
Q

What does the pilot need to do before taxiing for takeoff at a controlled airport?

A

A pilot must contact ATC the ground controller before taxiing for takeoff.

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7
Q

What should the pilot state upon initial contact for departure?

A

The pilot will state their intentions such as destination and requested altitude.

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8
Q

What should pilots do if no flight plan has been filed?

A

The pilot should inform the tower Clearance Delivery or ground control of the nature of the flight on initial contact such as local VFR or proceeding VFR to destination.

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9
Q

What is the expected communication from ground control to a pilot requesting taxi clearance?

A

Ground control will provide RUNWAY number WIND in magnetic degrees and knots ALTIMETER four-digit group giving the altimeter in inches of mercury TAXI VIA runway or other specific point and other information such as traffic or airport conditions.

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10
Q

What should a pilot do if they have not received specific authorization to cross a runway?

A

Pilots should hold short and request authorization to cross the runway.

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11
Q

What happens if a taxiing aircraft is given normal taxi authorization?

A

The pilot is expected to proceed to the taxi-holding position for the runway assigned for takeoff.

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12
Q

What is an FDE in the context of airport control?

A

An FDE is a Flight Data Entry created for a vehicle and a taxiing aircraft.

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13
Q

What is the procedure if there is no FDE already existing when an aircraft calls the ground controller?

A

The controller must create one using F8 or the NEW FDE Button.

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14
Q

What information is MATS concerned with regarding aircraft events?

A

MATS requires recording only aircraft events that are controlled by the tower or not already recorded in another category.

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15
Q

What is the protocol for recording aircraft event data?

A

Record the initial takeoff and final landing of each aircraft and specific details such as aircraft identification and type.

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16
Q

What altitude must a VFR flight flying east adhere to according to CARs?

A

An aircraft heading east must fly at an odd number of thousands of feet.

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17
Q

What altitude must a VFR flight flying west adhere to according to CARs?

A

An aircraft heading west must fly at an even number of thousands of feet.

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18
Q

What is the altitude requirement for VFR flights as specified in CARs?

A

A pilot on a VFR flight must add 500 feet to the selected number of thousands of feet to distinguish the flight from an IFR flight.

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19
Q

What needs to be recorded for the departure runway in the context of a flight data entry?

A

The departure runway is required for the airport controller the IFR controller and statistics.

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20
Q

What is the importance of the SSR transponder code in FDE?

A

The transponder code will be generated on the FDE itself.

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21
Q

What should the notepad in the FDE include?

A

It must include the direction of flight special intentions and requested altitude.

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22
Q

What is the significance of the ATIS letter in the FDE?

A

It serves as a reminder of which ATIS the pilot received filled in with one click.

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23
Q

What is meant by a published VFR route?

A

A published VFR route is a route included in the Canada Flight Supplement CFS aimed at standardizing the routes of VFR aircraft.

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24
Q

What are VFR routes and how do they assist pilots and controllers?

A

VFR routes make the pilots and controllers’ jobs easier since arrival and departure routes may be separated laterally and/or vertically in the vicinity of the airport.

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25
Q

How should a VFR waypoint be identified in communications with pilots?

A

In communications with pilots identify a VFR waypoint by its full name not by its identifier.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of VFR waypoints?

A

VFR waypoints allow greater ease in locating reporting points with GNSS and other Area Navigation receivers.

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27
Q

What is the structure of VFR waypoints?

A

Waypoints are depicted in latitude and longitude and use unique five-letter identifiers beginning with the letters VC.

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28
Q

What is the mandatory requirement regarding the destination in flight operations?

A

A destination is mandatory.

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29
Q

What is the significance of location indicators air traffic designators suffixes and abbreviations?

A

These codes help to standardize how data is written and guarantee that the controller will be able to read an FDE.

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30
Q

What code is used if the destination has no location code?

A

If the destination has no location code ZZZZ is used instead.

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31
Q

What should the Site Remarks indicate?

A

The Site Remarks should indicate the pilots’ intentions or direction of flight.

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32
Q

How should information be entered into the Flight Data Entry (FDE)?

A

Information is entered into the FDE as it is received from the pilot.

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33
Q

Why is it critical to learn how to input data into IWP?

A

It is critical to learn how to input data into IWP while listening or talking to concentrate on controlling airplanes not managing IWP.

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34
Q

What must a ground controller ensure before advancing the strip to the airport controller?

A

The ground controller must be diligent and ensure the FDE is complete prior to advancing the strip to the airport controller.

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35
Q

What is the importance of complete strips for the airport controller?

A

Incomplete strips can confuse or slow down the airport controller leading to undesirable outcomes.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of a transponder in air traffic control?

A

The purpose of a transponder is simple: it takes a surveillance target and allows us to link the target to a specific aircraft.

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37
Q

What does a Mode C transponder provide?

A

A Mode C transponder also provides accurate altitude information which is essential in our work.

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38
Q

What must pilots comply with regarding transponders?

A

Pilots must comply with instructions from air traffic control (ATC) regarding the use of transponders until they receive other instructions or until the aircraft has landed except in emergencies communications failures or unlawful interference.

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39
Q

What is a discrete code in transponder assignment?

A

Assign an aircraft a discrete code in preference to a non-discrete code.

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40
Q

What non-discrete code do gliders use?

A

Gliders use the non-discrete code 1202.

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41
Q

What non-discrete codes do VFR aircraft use below and above 12500 ASL?

A

VFR aircraft use the following non-discrete codes: 12500 ASL and below 1200 above 12500 ASL 1400.

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42
Q

What must ATC ensure when issuing transponder codes?

A

Minimize discrete code assignment changes due to system limitations regarding the number of codes.

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43
Q

What should be avoided during departure and arrival phases of flight regarding transponder code changes?

A

Avoid issuing code changes during these phases of flight due to high pilot workload.

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44
Q

What happens when an aircraft without a serviceable transponder requests to operate in transponder airspace?

A

Respond as indicated in Requests to Operate without a Transponder.

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45
Q

What conditions allow an aircraft without a functioning transponder to continue operating in transponder airspace?

A

An aircraft may continue to operate in transponder airspace to the next point of intended landing without ATC authorization and thereafter in accordance with an ATC clearance.

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46
Q

When must transponders normally be set to STANDBY?

A

Transponders must normally be set to STANDBY during taxi.

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47
Q

What order should taxi departure clearance items be issued?

A
  1. Aircraft identification 2. Unit identification 3. Runway information 4. Wind information 5. Altimeter information 6. Movement instructions 7. Supplementary information 8. Communication instructions.
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48
Q

What should be done to prevent information overload when issuing taxi instructions?

A

You may issue an SSR code as a separate transmission.

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49
Q

What is the format for issuing runway identification?

A

Identify a runway by saying the word RUNWAY followed by the number using separate digits.

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50
Q

What is the historical method of providing wind information?

A

Historically wind indicators had a needle to indicate the wind speed and direction and controllers provided a rounded estimation of the wind.

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51
Q

What should be issued if wind data is extracted from automated observations?

A

Time wind direction and speed.

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52
Q

How should altimeter settings be relayed to pilots?

A

The most recent altimeter setting must be relayed with stale altimeter settings requiring the time issued.

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53
Q

What should be included in the taxi instructions?

A

The taxi instructions should include the phraseology rules discussed in previous lessons and any other relevant information.

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54
Q

How is communication transferred as an aircraft moves to the departure runway?

A

Communications control is transferred from the ground controller to the airport controller.

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55
Q

What must a pilot ensure when requesting an intersection departure?

A

The pilot must ensure that the length of the runway to be used will be enough for their takeoff run.

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56
Q

What is required before approving an intersection departure?

A

Due consideration for factors such as traffic wake turbulence direction of flight etc.

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57
Q

Why must the ground controller obtain approval from the airport controller before authorizing an intersection departure?

A

It is routine for a pilot to use the full runway for departures and the airport controller expects most aircraft to take off from the threshold.

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58
Q

What does the FDE indicate to the airport controller regarding intersection departures?

A

The FDE is used to indicate to the airport controller which intersection the aircraft will be departing from.

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59
Q

What can the ground controller access for the intended runway for departure?

A

A drop-down menu of taxiways and the remaining runway length by clicking on the intersection popup in IWP.

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60
Q

What are the steps to indicate an intersection departure after selecting a runway for departure?

A
  1. Tap the RWY control on a departure FDE. 2. Tap the Intersection INT control. 3. Tap the intersection to be used for departure.
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61
Q

What happens after an intersection is selected for departure?

A

The Intersection popup closes and the FDE shows the departure intersection below the runway.

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62
Q

What should the ground controller do if a request for a bad intersection is made?

A

The ground controller is encouraged to unilaterally refuse a bad intersection request without coordinating with the airport controller.

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63
Q

What is the definition of an oblique angle in the context of taxiway departures?

A

Any angle that is not 90 degrees.

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64
Q

What concern do runway incursions present in Canada?

A

Runway incursions mainly pilot deviations are of great concern to all aviation stakeholders and continue to be part of the Transportation Safety Board watchlist.

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65
Q

What must be visible for an oblique taxiway departure to be approved?

A

The flight crew must be able to see the threshold of the active runway and the final approach of the active runway.

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66
Q

What conditions allow oblique taxiway departures?

A

Oblique taxiway departures are approved if there are no other options to access the active runway without crossing an active runway.

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67
Q

What should ground controllers do regarding oblique angle intersections?

A

Do not permit aircraft to use oblique angle intersections to access an active runway if the departure threshold and final approach are not visible to the flight crew.

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68
Q

What are examples of non-routine situations that may require the use of oblique angle intersections?

A

MEDEVAC flights a closed taxiway or a disabled aircraft or vehicles.

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69
Q

What must a pilot do if they wish to backtrack on a runway?

A

They must inform the controller of these intentions and obtain clearance before entering the runway.

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70
Q

What is the difference between ‘CONTACT HOLDING SHORT’ and ‘HOLD SHORT’?

A

CONTACT HOLDING SHORT is used when a ground controller asks a pilot to contact the Tower while holding short of the runway and does not require a readback while HOLD SHORT requires a readback.

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71
Q

What does the expression HOLDING SHORT signify in communication transfer?

A

It is used as a location for the purpose of communication transfer and does not require a readback.

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72
Q

What must the ground controller ensure regarding frequency changes?

A

The ground controller must specify the function and frequency for the pilot to change to when changing from ground to tower frequency.

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73
Q

What is the appropriate take-off clearance instruction for an aircraft?

A

TAKE-OFF CLEARANCE ISSUED ON THE TOWER FREQUENCY.

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74
Q

When must the ground controller advance the FDE to the tower?

A

While the aircraft is taxiing for departure but before arriving at the control transfer point before the runway or intersection from which it will begin take off.

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75
Q

What is the importance of advancing an FDE?

A

For transferring control of the aircraft from the ground controller to the airport controller ensuring that all relevant information for the flight has been recorded properly.

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76
Q

What is the procedure if a runway or RPA is not free before a departure?

A

Inform the pilot that a clearance cannot be issued provide the reason and request the pilot’s intentions.

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77
Q

What should be done if there is traffic in the RPA when an aircraft is ready for takeoff?

A

The aircraft cannot begin their take-off roll until the RPA is clear.

78
Q

What is successive departure separation?

A

Separation between two VFR departures following one after the other from the same runway.

79
Q

What must be ensured before issuing a take-off clearance?

A

A visual scan of the aircraft’s location must confirm that the entire runway final approach and departure path are clear.

80
Q

What must occur before the second aircraft begins its take-off roll?

A

One of the following must apply: 1. The first aircraft has departed and turned to clear the departure path. 2. The first aircraft has departed and reached a point on the departure path where it will not conflict with the second aircraft.

81
Q

What are the two conclusions regarding issuing take-off clearance to the second aircraft?

A
  1. We may issue take-off clearance to the second aircraft provided the appropriate runway separation will exist prior to its take-off roll. 2. We need only one separation standard to exist prior to the take-off roll.
82
Q

What must an airport controller do before issuing a take-off clearance?

A
  1. Scan IWP and ensure that the FDE is consistent with the visually observed position of the aircraft. 2. Scan final approach the full length of the runway including RPA and the departure path. 3. Scan both the aircraft’s intended route and the entire control zone on SiT.
83
Q

What is the instruction given to line up an aircraft if a take-off clearance cannot be issued immediately?

A

The instruction is to ‘LINE UP RUNWAY ID’.

84
Q

When must a controller include the location when issuing a LINE UP instruction?

A
  1. At any location other than the threshold. 2. Including the threshold if another entry point is in use on the same runway.
85
Q

What should be stated when an aircraft is authorized to enter the runway?

A

State the entry point as indicated in the relevant instructions.

86
Q

What does ‘BACKTRACK’ mean in airport control?

A

When an aircraft requires backtrack it means the pilot will taxi at normal speed turnaround and wait for departure clearance.

87
Q

What should the controller do when an aircraft is instructed to lineup?

A

The controller must promptly use the NEXT function in IWP to advance the FDE to the runway bay.

88
Q

What is the recommendation for lining up multiple aircraft for departure?

A

The airport controller should line up two or more aircraft for departure when an operational advantage exists.

89
Q

What are the conditions to line up more than one aircraft for takeoff?

A
  1. All aircraft are visible to the airport controller. 2. If an aircraft is not visible from the tower ASMGCSSMGCS may be used to confirm its position. 3. You specify the name of the runway intersection taxiway or threshold as appropriate.
90
Q

What does A-SMGCS stand for and what is its purpose?

A

A-SMGCS stands for Advanced Surface Movement Guidance and Control System and it is used for the detection and display of aircraft aircraft under tow or a vehicle on or near the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.

91
Q

What is the phrase to use when a runway has been temporarily shortened due to construction?

A

Include ‘SHORTENED’ in the line up clearances such as ‘LINE UP runway id SHORTENED’.

92
Q

What is the format of a take-off clearance?

A
93
Q

What does A-SMGCS stand for and what is its purpose?

A

A-SMGCS stands for Advanced Surface Movement Guidance and Control System and it is used for the detection and display of aircraft under tow or a vehicle on or near the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.

94
Q

What is the format of a take-off clearance?

A

The format includes: 1. Aircraft id. 2. Unit id. 3. Special information. 4. Control instructions. 5. Wind information. 6. From intersection or threshold. 7. Cleared for takeoff runway id.

95
Q

What is the purpose of including special information in a take-off clearance?

A

Special information may include details such as hazards or obstructions near the airport.

96
Q

What type of instructions should be given regarding turns at take-off clearance?

A

The controller should issue a turn instruction to a VFR aircraft at the same time as take-off clearance.

97
Q

What is a straight-out departure?

A

A straight-out departure emphasizes that the aircraft is expected to fly generally on course to a destination roughly in line with the departure runway.

98
Q

What altitude restriction formats can be applied in VFR departures?

A
  1. NOT ABOVE altitude. 2. NOT BELOW altitude.
99
Q

What must be done when an altitude restriction is issued or cancelled?

A

It must be marked in IWP promptly when issued or cancelled.

100
Q

What is the significance of observing the departure time in IWP?

A

The exact time of the aircraft’s departure becomes important especially when considering wake turbulence.

101
Q

What does MATS refer to in airport control?

A

MATS refers to the Manual of Air Traffic Services which provides guidelines and procedures for airport control.

102
Q

What must not be assumed about VFR pilots leaving the zone?

A

Do not assume how a VFR pilot might leave the zone; pilots may deviate from expected flight paths.

103
Q

What should be included in take-off clearance to avoid confusion about turn instructions?

A

Include the phrase ‘AFTER DEPARTURE’ as part of the control instruction if needed.

104
Q

What are examples of common special information that may be included in communications?

A
  1. Relevant traffic. 2. Bird activity. 3. An obstacle near the airport.
105
Q

What is the responsibility of the controller regarding altitude restrictions?

A

Do not apply altitude restrictions that contravene terrain clearance requirements.

106
Q

What does a yellow background in the HDGALT control indicate?

A

The selected heading and altitude is displayed in the HDGALT control with a yellow background to show that readback is required.

107
Q

Is readback mandatory for IFR aircraft?

A

Yes readback is mandatory for IFR aircraft.

108
Q

Do VFR aircraft require a readback for HDG or ALT?

A

No VFR aircraft do not require a readback for HDG or ALT so no yellow background colouring.

109
Q

What happens when a correct readback is received in the HDGALT control?

A

When a correct readback is received tap the HDGALT control. The yellow background is removed and the heading and altitude are displayed in green to reinforce that the aircraft is cleared to these values.

110
Q

What impact does wind have on aircraft performance?

A

Wind has a significant impact on aircraft performance.

111
Q

What should be done when wind speed gusts are 15 knots or more?

A

When the wind speed gusts are 15 knots or more we must re-issue the wind direction and speed even if we issued it previously via the ATIS.

112
Q

What is the recommended wind information format when issuing it?

A

WIND TWO-SEVEN-ZERO AT FIFTEEN GUSTING TWENTY-FIVE.

113
Q

What must a controller specify when clearing a pilot for takeoff from a taxiway or runway intersection?

A

The controller must specify either the name of the taxiway or the name of the runway intersection.

114
Q

What is an example of a take-off clearance from the threshold?

A

Example: BAQ LEFT TURN AFTER DEPARTURE FROM HOTEL CLEARED FOR TAKEOFF RUNWAY ONE-FOUR.

115
Q

What phraseology should be used when clearing an aircraft for takeoff?

A

Once all of our criteria and phraseology is met we can finally clear the aircraft for take-off for example: BAQ TOWER INSTRUCTIONS CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF RUNWAY NUMBER.

116
Q

What does ‘IMMEDIATE TAKEOFF’ mean in ATC terminology?

A

IMMEDIATE TAKEOFF is used by ATC to indicate that the pilot is expected to taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.

117
Q

What are the two forms an immediate take-off can take?

A
  1. An aircraft holding short is expected to taxi onto the runway and take off in a continuous movement. 2. An aircraft already lined-up should depart without delay.
118
Q

What should be considered when issuing an immediate take-off clearance?

A

Consider the aircraft operating characteristics and the effect that precipitation and surface conditions may have on the pilot’s ability to comply.

119
Q

How should a controller communicate if a pilot is unable to take off immediately?

A

If unable the controller should include alternate instructions such as CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKEOFF runway id . IF UNABLE HOLD SHORT runway id .

120
Q

What is the procedure if circumstances require cancelling a take-off clearance?

A

Cancel a previously issued take-off clearance and when appropriate inform the pilot of the reason.

121
Q

What is a controller-initiated aborted takeoff?

A

A controller-initiated aborted takeoff is an extreme measure used only where no clear alternative exists.

122
Q

What factors must a controller consider when aborting a take-off?

A

The controller must consider the aircraft’s movement and the reason to prevent this departure.

123
Q

What is TC AIM’s guidance on aborted take-offs?

A

Aborting a takeoff is an emergency procedure used by a pilot when continuing the takeoff would present a grave hazard to the aircraft.

124
Q

What should be communicated if an aircraft is rolling and a take-off clearance is cancelled?

A

The aircraft does not need to be immediately informed of the reason for aborting takeoff especially if it has already started to roll.

125
Q

How should a controller handle the timing of informing the reason for an aborted takeoff?

A

If the aircraft has not started to roll the controller can inform the pilot at the same time as they cancel take-off clearance.

126
Q

When should departure times be given?

A

When an aircraft rotates and becomes airborne the FDE is moved from the SEQ DEP panel to the AB DEP panel to record the departure time in the system.

127
Q

What is the importance of spotting an aircraft’s rotation?

A

Habitually spotting an aircraft’s rotation will help in later tasks such as managing wake turbulence.

128
Q

What is the definition of ATS surveillance according to MATS Tower Glossary?

A

ATS surveillance includes all methods of remotely sensing aircraft using certified/commissioned electronic equipment including PSR SSR MLAT ADS-B without the benefit of visual observation.

129
Q

What must be displayed on the Situation Display used by tower controllers?

A

The Situation Display must display a composite input of surveillance sources provided by equipment called FUSION.

130
Q

What should controllers ensure regarding aircraft deviations from their path?

A

Ensure that the aircraft does not deviate from its path and notify if it is likely to pass through regulated or other airspace.

131
Q

What should be done if an aircraft deviates from its assigned airspace route or altitude?

A

Inform the pilot if you observe any deviations and assist them in returning to the assigned airspace if necessary.

132
Q

What is the standard minimum lateral separation between two aircraft for the TCU?

A

The standard minimum lateral separation between two aircraft is 3 NM.

133
Q

What is ATS surveillance separation?

A

Spacing of aircraft in accordance with established minima based on information derived from ATS surveillance.

134
Q

What is ATS surveillance control service?

A

An air traffic control service provided with information derived from ATS surveillance equipment sources.

135
Q

What is required for ATS surveillance service to be provided?

A

The controller must use certified equipment which means that the equipment must be approved by technologists as being operational.

136
Q

What is the primary method of separating airport traffic?

A

Separation of airport traffic is primarily accomplished through visual scanning of the manoeuvring area and airport vicinity.

137
Q

What must be satisfied to apply ATS surveillance control procedures?

A
  1. The aircraft is identified. 2. The aircraft is in the TRA. 3. You are satisfied that the displayed ATS surveillance information is adequate.
138
Q

What ensures better use of airspace in ATS surveillance?

A

Using a surveillance system ensures a better use of airspace by allowing ATC to reduce separation between aircraft.

139
Q

What additional flight information services can ATS provide through surveillance systems?

A

Traffic information navigational assistance and bird activity.

140
Q

What is a transponder?

A

A receiver and transmitter that generates a reply signal upon proper interrogation the interrogation and reply being on different frequencies.

141
Q

What is a mode C transponder?

A

A type of transponder with altitude-encoding capability.

142
Q

What must ATC establish before providing ATS surveillance service?

A

Identification of the aircraft concerned either through the use of position reports identifying turns or transponders.

143
Q

What must pilots be notified of regarding identification?

A

Pilots will be notified whenever identification is established or lost e.g. IDENTIFIED or IDENTIFICATION LOST.

144
Q

What does the identification of an aircraft not relieve the pilot from?

A

The responsibility for collision avoidance or terrain obstacle clearance.

145
Q

What is the process known as to ensure the target on the display represents the right aircraft?

A

Identification.

146
Q

How many methods are there for identifying an aircraft according to the document?

A

Nine (9) methods.

147
Q

What is the first identification method mentioned?

A

Identification by Handoff or Point-Out.

148
Q

What does a handoff represent in ATS?

A

The process of transferring the identification of an aircraft and radio communications for that aircraft to another sector or unit.

149
Q

What is a point-out in the context of ATS?

A

The process of transferring the identification of an aircraft to another sector or unit without transferring communications or control of the aircraft.

150
Q

What is an appropriate PPS change in identification?

A

You may consider the aircraft identified when you observe an appropriate change in the PPS after specific instructions are given to the pilot.

151
Q

What is the significance of observing the aircraft’s position on the situational display?

A

You may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display under specific conditions.

152
Q

What are the conditions that apply to consider an aircraft identified on the situational display?

A
  1. The aircraft’s position is within one mile of the departure end of the take-off runway. 2. Its position is consistent with the time of takeoff and the route of flight or assigned heading.
153
Q

What is required for identification by ADS-B data tag?

A

The flight identification element in an ADS-B data tag must be recognized and consistent with the aircraft’s expected position.

154
Q

What does the term ‘PPS’ refer to in ATS?

A

PPS refers to the position symbol of the aircraft on the display.

155
Q

What is the significance of consistent positions of PPS and aircraft?

A

You may consider the aircraft identified when the position of the PPS is consistent with the visually observed position of the aircraft.

156
Q

What should you avoid when an aircraft is carrying out a specified identifying turn?

A

Avoid a turn that would cause an aircraft to follow an airway or a frequently used flight path as it could lead to misidentification of the aircraft.

157
Q

What does ACID stand for in the context of ATS identification?

A

Aircraft Call Sign Identifier.

158
Q

What happens in the case of identification by data tag ACID in adjacent airspace?

A

You may consider the aircraft identified by observing its data tag ACID in adjacent airspace where ATS surveillance service is normally provided.

159
Q

What should you do after the pilot is instructed to operate the aircraft’s transponder Ident feature?

A

You can consider the aircraft identified when it flashes on SiT.

160
Q

What is the phraseology for instructing a pilot to squawk a specific code?

A

Phraseology: GKNC SQUAWK [four-digit code].

161
Q

What is the minimum specified identifying turn for an aircraft?

A

The specified identifying turn must be at least 30 degrees.

162
Q

What does a position report received directly from the aircraft indicate?

A

It indicates that the aircraft is within ATS surveillance coverage of the area being displayed.

163
Q

What should be avoided during aircraft turns during identification?

A

A turn that would cause an aircraft to follow an airway or a frequently used flight path should be avoided to prevent misidentification of the aircraft.

164
Q

When must identification be established before offering any ATS surveillance service?

A

Identification must be established before offering any ATS surveillance service.

165
Q

What must be done once the aircraft has been identified?

A

You must notify the pilot that the aircraft has been identified and that surveillance service is being offered.

166
Q

What is the identification process not complete until?

A

The identification process is not complete until the pilot has been notified that identification has been established.

167
Q

What must be done after aircraft identification is established?

A

Inform the pilot of the IDENTIFIED position.

168
Q

Is it necessary to reinform the pilot of identification upon receiving a handoff?

A

No it is not necessary to reinform the pilot that the aircraft is identified when establishing communication with them.

169
Q

What must be confirmed once an aircraft has been identified?

A

You must confirm the altitude of the aircraft.

170
Q

How do controllers validate the altitude?

A

The controller validates the displayed altitude by comparing it to the altitude given by the pilot.

171
Q

What is the criteria for an altitude readout to be considered valid?

A

The altitude readout is valid if the numbers are accurate within 200 feet.

172
Q

When should altitude readouts be validated?

A

Altitude readouts should be validated on initial contact or as soon as feasible if the readout cannot be validated on initial contact.

173
Q

What is the phraseology for reporting altitude?

A

The phraseology includes ‘REPORT YOUR ALTITUDE’ ‘SAY YOUR ALTITUDE’ or ‘CONFIRM AT altitude’.

174
Q

What happens to surveillance service normally?

A

Surveillance service continues until the aircraft leaves surveillance coverage or leaves controlled airspace.

175
Q

What must be communicated to the pilot when surveillance service ends?

A

The pilot must usually be informed when surveillance service ends.

176
Q

What should be said if ATS surveillance service cannot be provided or is terminated?

A

Inform the pilot with ‘SURVEILLANCE SERVICE TERMINATED’ and provide instructions.

177
Q

What happens if ATS surveillance service is terminated after an approach clearance is issued?

A

You do not need to inform the pilot.

178
Q

What frequency do VFR pilots typically stay on until cleared to enroute frequency?

A

A VFR pilot will stay on the tower frequency until the controller clears them to enroute frequency.

179
Q

What is the protocol for changing frequencies for VFR aircraft?

A

Normally a VFR aircraft remains on the tower frequency until advised by ATC.

180
Q

What should the airport controller ensure regarding frequencies in the control zone?

A

The airport controller must ensure that all aircraft flying in the control zone are on the tower frequency.

181
Q

What should be done before changing frequency?

A

Ensure that there is no relevant information to transmit such as traffic on the surveillance display.

182
Q

What instruction is given when an aircraft is leaving the control zone into uncontrolled airspace?

A

The controller will advise the pilot they are leaving the zone and are released from tower frequency.

183
Q

How should VFR aircraft be treated when climbing into Class C airspace?

A

A VFR aircraft requesting to climb into Class C airspace must be switched to terminal frequency before entering.

184
Q

What are the responsibilities of the airport controller when coordinating with ACC?

A

Coordinate for any VFR overflights entering Class C airspace and for any simulated approach requests.

185
Q

What is the protocol for releasing communications to another controller’s frequency?

A

Release the aircraft from tower frequency without specifying another frequency in certain situations.

186
Q

What should be expected when operating in airspace with surveillance coverage?

A

A VFR aircraft may request flight following from the appropriate IFR unit even outside controlled airspace.

187
Q

What should be included in a take-off clearance if more than one entry point is used?

A

The take-off clearance must include relevant entry point information.

188
Q

What is the phraseology if an aircraft you have identified is leaving controlled airspace?

A

You would use the phraseology ‘SURVEILLANCE SERVICE TERMINATED’.

189
Q

What is the objective recall for the VFR Departures Basic Airport Control Course?

A

Issue taxi clearance to VFR departure apply runway separation issue a take-off clearance and apply ATS surveillance.

190
Q

What is one method used to identify an aircraft?

A

Identification can be established using methods such as position reports transponder codes or visual observation.

191
Q

What is the valid difference for an altitude readout compared to the transmitted altitude?

A

The altitude is valid if it does not differ by more than 200 feet from what is transmitted by the pilot.

TestImport (1 decks)

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