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VetPrep Flashcards

1
Q

Zoonotic pathogens shed in cow milk

A
  1. Salmonella dublin
  2. Brucella abortus
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis
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2
Q

Most effective treatment for leptospira infection in growing pigs

A

Long term use of tetracyclines. Vaccinations are usually only used in the breeding herd where bacterins, containing the appropriate serovar, can reduce the prevalence of infection and leptospirosis-induced abortions. Depopulation or euthanasia is not necessary as in growing pigs the clinical signs are not life threatening (leptospirosis-induced abortions is not a concern). Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are not useful against leptospirosis. Besides tetracycline antibiotics, other effective antibiotics include tylosin, erythromycin, and penicillins.

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3
Q

Toxocara (roundworms) cause what in people?

A

Visceral and ocular larva migrans

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4
Q

What endocrine disorder causes myxedma (increased amount of mucin and other ground substances in the dermis)

A

Hypothyroidism

Acromegaly

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5
Q

Nervous coccidiosis is a disease of cattle of what age?

A

<1 yr old

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6
Q

Hey, what’s produced by the liver??

A

Fibrinogen
Albumin
Urea
Antithromin III

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7
Q

3 most common causes of colic

A
  1. Intussusception
  2. Cecal dilation (+/- torsion)
  3. Abomasal volvulus
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8
Q

Synovial gout or articular gout cause and treatment

A

The disease occurs when uric acid crystallizes in the synovium and causes lameness. Allopurinol is used to decrease uric acid formation. The underlying pathophysiology is not completely understood, but renal disease is found in many affected birds; treatment generally consists of a low-protein diet, allopurinol, and addressing underlying renal disease.

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9
Q

3 MC abx for rodents:

A
  1. Enrofloxacin
  2. Chloramphenicol
  3. TMS
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10
Q

Carcinoma

A

These tumors come from epithelial cells including cells of glandular tissues such as salivary glands, mammary glands, and cells lining most tissues including squamous cells or transitional cells. The cytologic appearance is that of COHESIVE CLUSTERS of cells. Here, you can see some of the tight cellular junctions in the cluster which is typical. Cells are often polygonal in shape.

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11
Q

Which organisms is a normal inhabitant of the guttural pouch of a healthy horse?

A

Streptococcus equi ssp zooepidemicus

** Streptococcus equi ssp. equi can be present when there is guttural pouch empyema. Aspergillus nidulans can be present in cases of guttural pouch mycosis. Salmonella should not be present in the guttural pouch.**

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12
Q

Treatment for Chlamydophila psittaci

A

Doxycycline

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13
Q

High ringbone (Equine)

A

osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal (pastern) joint

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14
Q

What test is needed to diagnose Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

Measuring serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (fTLI) concentration

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15
Q

Keep or cull cows with Mycoplasma bovis mastitis?

A

CULL

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16
Q

Ancylostoma caninum (hookworms) cause what in people?

A

Cutaneous migrans

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17
Q

Enzyme most liver specific in cow, sheep, goat, and horses:

A

Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH).

AST can be found in muscle, liver and red blood cells. LDH is found in many places such as muscle, heart and liver. ALP is found in liver, intestine, kidney and bone.

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18
Q

Best prognosis for recovery in chickens?

A

Infectious coryza (bacteria, tx with abx)

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19
Q

Equine Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID) ( Cushing’s disease)

A 
Signalment: > 15yrs old
ponies and Morgan horses
CS: Hirsutism + classic cushing signs
Dx: ACTH (mult. seasons), TRH, HHDST
Tx: Pergolide
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20
Q

Ddx for otitis externa

A

Foreign body
Hypothyroidism
Atopy

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21
Q

Describe high ring bone in a stupid horse

A

OA of the proximal interphalangeal (pastern) oint

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22
Q

Normal inhabitant in the guttural pouch of a healthy horse

A

Strep. equi ssp. zooepidecmicus

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23
Q

Pacheco’s disease (Herpes virus)

A

Ruffled plumage
Necrotic foci in the liver and kidneys
Splenomegaly
Cowdry type- ! intranuclear inclusion bodies in the liver and renal parenchyma

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24
Q

Anaplasmosis

A

A rickettsial organism that is transmitted by ticks. Infected calves have a low mortality rate, but adult cattle have a 20-50% mortality rate with this disease

Tx: Oxytetracycline

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25
Q

Guillian-Barre syndrome is associated with which agent?

A

Camplyobacter jejuni

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26
Q

Lidocaine Toxicity CS

A

Early CS: Seizures and tremors

Later CS: Cardiovascular and respiratory depression

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27
Q

Treat or cull cows with Strep ag or coliform mastitis?

A

Treat with frequent milking, anti-inflammatories, and abx

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28
Q

Neospora CS

A

Abortion – 3-8 mo gestation and typically results in an autolyzed fetus.

No retained fetal membranes or metritis

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29
Q

Causative agent of Blue tongue

A

Reovirus

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30
Q

3 causes for infectious footrot of sheep and goats

A
  1. Wet conditions
  2. Fusobacterium necrophorum
  3. Dichelobater nodosus (produces proteases that cause horny wall separation)
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31
Q

Which breed of dog is most predisposed to development of histiocytic neoplasia?

A

Bernese Mountain Dogs

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32
Q

Terbutaline is given to cats with asthma for which reason?

A

it is a beta 2 adrenergic agonist which causes bronchodilation and mild effects on the heart

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33
Q

E.Coli 3 lesions in broilers

A
  1. Pibrinous pericarditis
  2. Perihepatitis
  3. Airsacculitis
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34
Q

Isotonic crystalloid shock dose in cats

A

40-60 ml/kg

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35
Q

Compounds that effectively bind to activated charcoal

A

Theobromine
Nicotine
Brodifacoum

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36
Q

Causative agent of Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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37
Q

Right atrial hemangiosarcoma

A

CARDIAC TAMPONADE –> excessive accumulation of fluid in the pericardium resulting in an increased intrapericardial pressure impairing diastolic filling of the heart

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38
Q

MC isolated organism isolated in pituitary abscesses of ruminants

A

Arcanobacterium pyogenes aka Actinomyces pyogenes

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39
Q

Avipoxvirus

A

Scabbing skin lesions or diptheric lesions in the respiratory tract

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40
Q

Which two conditions may be diagnosed by finding a ping on the left side of the cow using simultaneous auscultation and percussion?

A

Ruminal tympany and left displaced abomasum .

Gas in the spiral colon, cecum, and torsion of the abomasum are diagnosed by a ping on the right side

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41
Q

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

A

Tissue mineralization: acts by becoming converted to calcitriol and increases calcium and phosphorus levels leading to mineralization of organs, esp. kidneys

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42
Q

Mast cell tumors in horse: benign or malignant?

A

Benign.

Excision= curative

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43
Q

Round cell tumors

A

There are 5 round cell tumors and most but not all come from blood cells. They are lymphoma, mast cell tumors, plasma cell tumors, histiocytic tumors, and transmissible venereal tumors. Remember, these are also sometimes also referred to as sarcomas (i.e. lymphosarcoma or histiocytic sarcoma). Cytologically, they appear usually as large populations of cells that are not in defined clusters. The cells have a round shape, often with unique identifiable features such as the purple granules in mast cell tumors.

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44
Q

Zinc toxicity

A

Hemolysis and Heinz body anemia

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45
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Signalment: Boxer
CS: Syncope ad exercise intolerance. Auscultation reveals a 4/6 left systolic murmur heard best at the base of the heart.
Dx:
- Rads (mildly enlarged left ventricle and left atrium, and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta.)
- ECG (Left ventricular hypertrophy, stenosis of the aortic outflow tract, and post-stenotic dilatation of the aorta)

46
Q

Osselets (equine)

A

Inflammation of the periosteum on the dorsal distal epiphyseal surface of the 3rd metacarpal bone and fetlock joint

47
Q

Mast cell tumors cause what?

A

GI ulceration

Tx: H1/2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors

48
Q

Causative agent of Vesicular stomatitis

A

Rhabdovirus

49
Q

Smishmortion of a cow between 5-8mo of gestation

A

PGF2-alpha and dexamethasone. This is because at this point (5 to 8 months), both the CL and the fetus are involved in maintaining the pregnancy.

50
Q

Tx for insulinoma in a ferret?

A
  • Prednisone
  • Diazoxide
    Diet: high protein and low carbs
51
Q

Uroabdomen electrolyte abnormalities

A

HYPOnatremia
HYPOchloremia
HYPERphosphatemia

52
Q

Describe osselets in a stupid horse

A

Inflammation of the periosteum on the dorsal distal epiphyseal surface of the dorsal distal epiphyseal surface of the third metacarpal bone and fetlock joint

53
Q

Causative agent of Foot and Mouth Disease

A

Picornavirus

54
Q

Glaucoma

A

Buphthalmic and painful. Corneal edema ( blue haze over the cornea)

Inspect eye for aqueous flare and measure pressures

55
Q

Myxomatous degeneration

A

Signalment: Older animals
Murmur: best heard at the left apex

would NOT cause dilation of the ascending aorta

56
Q

MC Equine Urolith

A

Calcium carbonate.

57
Q

Ponderosa Pine CS

A

Abortion– LAST TRIMESTER and characterized by hemorrhagic condition of the placenta and fetus

58
Q

“Powder loss” and an irregular beak in a cockatoo

A

Psittacine beak and feather virus

59
Q

Splints/Metacarpal exostosis (Equine)

A

Periostitis and new bone formation along the second metacarpal bone
Tx: rest and NSAIDs +/- sx if bony exostoses impinge on the suspensory ligament

60
Q

Describe splints (metacarpal exostosis) in a stupid horse

A

Involves periostitis of the interosseous ligament between the third and second metacarpal (or metatarsal) bone. Treatment usually involves rest and anti-inflammatory medications, although if the bony exostoses impinge on the suspensory ligament, surgical removal of the proliferative tissue may be indicated.

61
Q

Synthetic colloids dose in dogs

A

10-20ml/kg

62
Q

Tx for tapeworms

A

Praziquantel

63
Q

Psittacine beak and feather disease

A

Causative agent: Circovirus
Signalment: <3yrs old
CS: Feather less, abnormal pin and mature feathers, lack of powder down and various beak abnormalities.
Dx: Based on appearance of birds and by blood tests using a viral DNA probe.

64
Q

Causative agent of BVD

A

Flavivirus

65
Q

5 type of Round Cell Tumors

A

Pneumonic: Please Help Me Learn This

Plasma cell tumors
Histiocytic tumors
Mast cell tumors
Lymphoma
Transmissible venereal tumors
66
Q

Tyzzer’s Disease

A

Caused by Clostridium piliformis-> causes acute necrotizing hepatitis

Signalment: 1-6 wk old foals

CS: ACUTE fever, icterus, and diarrhea

67
Q

Yo dawg, can you use Chloramphenical in food animal?

A

HELLLL NAHHHH. This drug is not labeled for use in food animals and is prohibited for food animals in the USA, with the possibility penalty of losing one’s license.

68
Q

Sidebone (equine)

A

Ossification of the alar cartilage of the coffin bone

69
Q

Cats with taurine deficiency develop what kind of heart issue?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy. Taurine is an essential amino acid for cats because they cannot synthesize it. Taurine deficiency causes dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). Since DCM is relatively uncommon otherwise in cats, taurine deficiency should be suspected in any cat with DCM.

**They also develop feline central retinal degeneration (FCRD) because the photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine and cants cannot synthesize it. Classic lesion= elliptical area of tapetal hyperreflectivity starting in the area centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal band and eventually can involve the entire fundus

70
Q

Causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

71
Q

Only type of mange to infect camels

A

Sarcoptes scabiei var. cameli.

MC in the winter when camels huddlge together for warmth. .

Typically starts around the head and neck and then spreads to the res of the body

72
Q

Mast Cell Tumors

A

GI ulcers, perioperative hypotension and coagulation

73
Q

3 known potential inciting causes/predisopsing factors for immune-mediated polyarthritis (IMPA)

A
  1. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  2. Sulfonamide exposure
  3. Mammary adenocarcinoma
74
Q

MC urolith in ferrets

A

Struvite

75
Q

Where’s trypsin produced in the body?

A

Pancreas

76
Q

Respiratory infections that can cause head shaking, sneezing, and rhinitis in birds Ddx:

A

Mycoplasma infection
Chlamydiosis
Bordetella infection

77
Q

Boxer cardiomyopathy (Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy)

A

Electrical disease causing frequent VPCs to occur.

Dx: 24hr cardiac Holter monitor

78
Q

Sarcoma

A

These tumors come from mesenchymal cells and are named by the specific cell type such as fibroblasts (fibrosarcoma) and osteoblasts (osteosarcoma). Cytologically, they tend to appear as isolated spindle-shaped cells with elongated cytoplasm and often oval nuclei.

79
Q

Average lifespan of a rat

A

2.5 years

80
Q

Tx for Strongylus vulgaris (equine)

A

Ivermectin

81
Q

Brucellosis CS

A

Abortion– LAST HALF OF THE PREGNANCY
Retained placenta
Metritis
Lack of signs in younger animals

82
Q

Gangrenous mastitis is caused by which two organisms?

A

Mannheimia spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.

Occurs sporadically during the first 3 months of lactation. It is generally associated with poor milk supply related to ewe undernutrition and over vigorous suckling by the lambs.

Despite antibiotic and supportive therapy, the prognosis is grave, and gangrenous udder tissue eventually sloughs leaving a large granulating surface with superficial bacterial infection. The granulation tissue continues to proliferate over the coming months. These ewes are unsuitable for breeding stock. The infected granulation tissue and resultant drainage lymph node enlargement would result in carcass condemnation (and raise genuine welfare concerns). The fleece is very poor because growth has occurred during this period of illness. The ewe should be euthanized for welfare reasons at first presentation.

Control measures include ensuring ewes are well fed. Concentrates should be supplied to ewes and lambs when pasture is poor. No ewe should be expected to rear triplets. Teat lesions should be identified and treated with topical antibiotics.

83
Q

Best radiographic view to dx/RO gastric dilatation and volvulus

A

Right lateral

84
Q

Abomasal torsion in cows

A

Hypochloremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis

IV saline with 20 meq/L

85
Q

What tick is associated with tick paralysis in the US?

A

Dermacentor

Dermacentor variabilis, also known as the American dog tick or wood tick, is a species of tick that is known to carry bacteria responsible for several diseases in humans, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever and tularemia

86
Q

Canine Thrombopathia

A

Autosomal recessive trait of Basset hounds

Platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli.

87
Q

Mycoplasma infection in cattle herd CS

A 
KCS
Otitis media
Mastitis
Infectious arthritis
Repro and joint disease
88
Q

What anesthetic agents don’t cause spleen enlargement?

A 
Xylazine
Diazepam
Ketamine
Propofol
Opioids (Morphine)
89
Q

What do cats require in their diet?

A

Arachidonic acid

90
Q

Liver specific enzymes in equine

A

GGT : Increase= biliary epithelial cells and liver-specific

SDH: Increase= hepatocellular injury

91
Q

Elbow dysplasia

A
  1. Ununited anconeal process
  2. Elbow incongruency
  3. Fragmented medial coronoid process
  4. Osteochondrosis of the humeral condyle
92
Q

Pulmonic Stenosis

A

D/t changes in the right heart and pulmonary outflow tract

93
Q

Hansen’s Type 1 Disc Disease

A

Chondrodystrophic dogs
Acute
Painful
Emergency

94
Q

MST for osteosarcoma:

A

cat: 12 mo or more
k9: 3-4 mo

95
Q

Isotonic crystalloid shock dose for K9

A

90ml/kg

96
Q

Thoroughpin (equine)

A

Effusion of the tarsal shealth (shealth of the deep digital flexor)

97
Q

Haemoproteus

A

Diagnosis of Haemoproteus infection is made by microscopic examination of a peripheral blood smear. Haemoproteus gametocytes partially encircle the nucleus of erythrocytes forming a “halter-shaped” appearance. Haemoproteus gametocytes often occupy over one-half of the erythrocyte cytoplasm with little displacement of the host cell nucleus as seen here.

The haemoproteus life cycle involves a blood sucking insect for transmission (mosquitos, lice, and culicoides). The infection often does not cause clinical signs but may cause an enlarged gizzard, spleen, liver, or kidney. Treatment of choice is the antimalarial drug, chloroquine.

98
Q

MC dermatophyte associated with ringworm in cattle

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

99
Q

Veratrum californicum CS

A

Cyclops condition in sheep

100
Q

Hepatic Lipidosis Chem panal

A

NORMAL GGT

  • mod. elevated ALP
  • mod. elevated bilirubin
101
Q

Septicemic cutaneous ulcerative disease (SCUD) in turtles is caused by what pathogen?

A

Citrobacter freundii

102
Q

Describe sidebones in a stupid horse

A

Ossification of the alar cartilage of the coffin bone

103
Q

Infectious coryza

A

Nasal discharge and facial swelling

104
Q

Describe Thoroughpin in a stupid horse

A

Effusion of the tarsal sheeth (sheath of the deep digital flexor)

105
Q

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP) aka Maedi-Visna

A

Caustaive agent: Retrovirus (closely related to Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus of goats)
Signalment: Sheep 2-4 yrs of age
CS: Progresses slowly with increasing wasting and respiratory distress. Secondary bacterial infections can occur, leading to coughing, bronchial exudate, depression, and fever.

Dx: Agar gel immunodiffusion or ELISA testing. PCR (+/- due to expense)

Control: Serologic testing and removal of + animals.

No vax or treatment

106
Q

End-point of warfarin therapy in animal with pulonary thromboemolism

A

A PT time of 1.5-2X normal

107
Q

2 conditions diagnosed by finding a ping on the LEFT side of the cow

A

Ruminal tympany and left displaced abomasum

108
Q

2 diseases that cause hydrocephalus in calvs

A

Akabane virus
Bovine viral diarrhea
Bluetonge

109
Q

Top Ddx for vague asymmetri/multifocal neurologic CS with focal muscle atrophy in equine?

A

Equine protozoal myloencephalitis

110
Q

Synthetic colloid dose in cats

A

5-10 ml/kg

111
Q

How often should a ferret be vaccinated for rabies?

A

At 3 mo and then annually

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