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465 - Applied Nutrition > VETM 465 - Applied Nutrition__Midterm 1 > Flashcards

VETM 465 - Applied Nutrition__Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What disease should you assume every reptile that comes into your clinic has?

A

Metabolic bone disease

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2
Q

True or False: A buffet feeding style is appropriate for wildlife

A

False. Animals rarely pick out a balanced diet (ex. if you were at a buffet and there was vegetables and candy, you’d probably take more candy than vegetables)

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3
Q

True or False: Seed-based diets are well balanced and appropriate for birds

A

False. Seeds are deficient in vitamin A, protein, calcium, and other nutrients and are high in fat so seeds are not a great option.

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4
Q

What is aflatoxicosis in birds?

A

A mycotoxin common with chronic ingestion of seed-based diets

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5
Q

Which pathogen causes aflatoxicosis in birds?

A

Aspergillus

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6
Q

How can you prevent aflatoxicosis in birds?

A
  • Proper seed storage (low moisture to prevent mold formation) - Use human grade seeds
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7
Q

What pathologies does aflatoxicosis in birds cause?

A
  • Hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis - Hepatic carcinoma
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8
Q

True or False: Non-domesticated mammalian omnivores (ex. bears, raccoons) can be fed dog food as a domestic food substitute

A

True

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9
Q

True or False: Hippos, rhinos, and kangaroos are ruminants

A

False

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10
Q

Tortoises and iguana are __________ fermenters

A

Hindgut

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11
Q

Kangaroos and sloths are ___________ fermenters

A

Foregut

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12
Q

True or False: Respiratory disease in pet rabbits can be due to poor nutrition

A

True

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13
Q

What is the most common respiratory disease in rabbits caused by poor nutrition?

A

Pasteurellosis (called “snuffles”)

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14
Q

What is the most important nutrient for rabbit GI processes?

A

Fiber (coarse non-digestible particles will stimulate GI movement)

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15
Q

What can an inadequate fiber content lead to in rabbits (three)?

A
  • Fur chewing (barbering) - GI stasis - Hepatic lipidosis
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16
Q

True or False: Carrots are a good source of fiber for rabbits

A

False. This is a common myth. It is much better if you feed the carrot stem versus the carrot

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17
Q

Which rodents participate in corporophagy and why?

A

Rabbits, chinchillas, guinea pigs, hamsters (most rodents). These are all hindgut fermenters, so dietary fiber is divided into large (indigestible) and small (digestible) fibers. Large particles are eliminated directly as hard fecal pellets but smaller particles are sent back to cecum for fermentation

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18
Q

What are cecotrophes?

A

Re-ingested fecal pellets (coated in mucus that protects nutrients from stomach acids)

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19
Q

When is cecotrophe ingestion the highest in rabbits?

A

When rabbits are fed a diet high in non-digestible fiber

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20
Q

What are the nutritional benefits of cecotrophes?

A

It has double the protein and half the fiber of a normal pellet. It is also high in vitamins B and K

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21
Q

Which two exotic domestic species are obligate carnivores?

A

Ferrets and snakes

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22
Q

What are four unique facts about the ferret GI system?

A
  • No cecum - Very short GI system (3 hours transit time) - Spontaneous secretors of HCl - Few brush border enzymes
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23
Q

True or False: Seasonal obesity is not harmful and should be considered normal in ferrets

A

True (they will slim down in spring)

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24
Q

Which two nutrients are more important in ferrets?

A

Protein (35%) and fat (20%)

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25
Q

Which two nutrients should be restricted in ferrets?

A
  • Sugar - Fiber
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26
Q

True or False: Ferrets can be fed dog food as long as it’s well balanced

A

False. High quality cat/kitten food is acceptable (because cats are also obligate carnivores) but less recommended than an actual ferret diet

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27
Q

What is the main challenge in feeding ferrets (in relation to their unique GI anatomy)?

A

They require frequent small meals due to a fast gastrointestinal transit time

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28
Q

The first three food ingredients in a ferret diet should be __________

A

Animal protein products

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29
Q

Which two nutritional disorders do ferrets get?

A
  • Urinary stones (caused by feeding plant proteins or dog food) - Insulinomas (caused by feeding a high carbohydrate diet)
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30
Q

What are insulinomas?

A

A pancreatic islet beta cell tumour (most common neoplasia of North American ferrets)

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31
Q

What are some clinical signs of insulinomas?

A
  • Hypoglycemia - Lethargy - Paresis - Seizures (rare)
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32
Q

How can insulinomas be medically managed (three)?

A
  • Glucocorticoids (prednisone) - Diazoxide (inhibits pancreatic insulin release) - Diet changes (high protein, low carb, food available all the time)
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33
Q

True or False: Ferret insulinomas rarely metastasize

A

True

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34
Q

What is the BMR formula for passerines (songbirds)?

A

129 x BW^0.75kg

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35
Q

What is the BMR formula for placental mammals?

A

70.5 x BW^0.75kg

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36
Q

What is the BMR formula for marsupials?

A

49 x BW^0.75kg

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37
Q

What is the BMR formula for reptiles?

A

10 x BW^0.75kg

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38
Q

Deficiencies of what nutrients can cause feather destructive behaviour in birds?

A

Vitamin A and/or iodine

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39
Q

What is required by birds for digestion? What is the purpose of this?

A

Grit (or clay in the wild). It binds tannins and toxins and is necessary for whole seed eaters (granivores)

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40
Q

What are the six most common nutritional deficiencies in exotics?

A
  1. Metabolic bone disease 2. Hypovitaminosis A 3. Vitamin E/selenium deficiency 4. Thiamin deficiency 5. Vitamin C deficiency 6. Obesity
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41
Q

What are the differences between rickets, osteomalacia, and fibrous osteodystrophy?

A
  • Rickets is the inadequate mineralization of bone due to deficiencies in vitamin D and or calcium (usually occurs in juveniles) - Osteomalacia is the softening of bone due to mineral loss from a previously mineralized bone (usually occurs in adults) - Fibrous osteodystrophy is the replacement of bone with fibrous material *All three are types of metabolic bone disease
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42
Q

What are the three main causes of metabolic bone disease?

A
  1. Absolute calcium deficiency 2. Ca:P imbalance 3. Vitamin D deficiency
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43
Q

Which four animals cannot utilize vitamin D2 and require D3?

A

New world primates, birds, reptiles, and fish

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44
Q

Which reptiles are unable to ingest enough vitamin D in their diet and therefore require adequate sunlight?

A

Iguanas

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45
Q

True or False: Birds do not have a requirement for vitamin D3 if they receive adequate sunlight

A

True

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46
Q

What are some clinical signs of metabolic bone disease in amphibians and reptiles?

A
  • Fractures and softening of bones - Swollen jaws and tooth loss - Hypocalcemic tetany - Deformed shells - Paralysis (especially lizards) - Deformed or soft eggs
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47
Q

What are some clinical signs of metabolic bone disease in birds?

A
  • Poor feathering - Deformed or soft eggs
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48
Q

What are some clinical signs of metabolic bone disease in primates?

A

Reluctance to climb

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49
Q

What species is extraosseous calcium storage most common in?

A

Geckos

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50
Q

True or False: Extraosseous calcium storage is easily identified on radiographs

A

True

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51
Q

Metabolic bone disease (MBD) is most common in what species?

A

Young carnivores, birds, and reptiles

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52
Q

Why is it important to ask for owner permission to examine a reptile with serious MBD?

A

If they have severe bone issues they will be all mangled and deformed. You need to ask the owner for permission to examine them as you may break bones. Their bones are so brittle they can snap, so make sure the owner understands this before you continue

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53
Q

How will MBD appear on radiographs?

A

It will be really hard to visualize the bones as they are less dense

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54
Q

In an animal with MBD will their total serum calcium be low, normal, or high?

A

Surprisingly, it will be normal. This seems weird because their bones have hardly any calcium and are less dense, but the reason their bones are like this is that the body is taking calcium from the bones in order to maintain blood calcium levels. So while their bones are deficient, their blood should be normal.

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55
Q

Can you reverse bone damage from metabolic bone disease?

A

You can’t reverse it, but if you intervene you can stop it from getting worse

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56
Q

How can you treat acute metabolic bone disease?

A

Give calcium gluconate IV

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57
Q

What is the proper calcium to phosphorus ratio a diet should have?

A

0.08402777777777781

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58
Q

How can you treat chronic MBD?

A

Supplement with vitamin D (make sure the product you use is only vitamin D because if there is vitamin A in there you could overdose them on vitamin A)

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59
Q

True or False: Seeds, muscle/organ meat, fruit, grains, and insects all have proficient levels of calcium in them.

A

FALSE!!!! They are actually deficient in calcium so you have to supplement reptiles with calcium.

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60
Q

What is the proper way to supplement calcium using crickets?

A
  1. Use young crickets 2. Feed crickets a high calcium diet to stuff their little guts with tasty goodness 3. Dust the crickets in calcium powder (you have to feed them immediately after this as the calcium powder blocks their breathing holes and they will suffocate soon) 4. Feed crickets directly to reptile with tongs so you know how many they are eating
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61
Q

What are five considerations you need to make when storing frozen mice to feed to reptiles?

A
  • Individually bag them - Date the bags and don’t keep longer than 6 months - Do not microwave them (some parts might get super hot and burn reptiles) - Let food thaw overnight in the fridge and then warm to 37 degrees in a warm water bath - Do not heat higher than 40 degrees
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62
Q

What type of UV light do reptiles need?

A

UVB

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63
Q

True or False: All meat or all seed diets are deficient in vitamin A

A

True

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64
Q

What are five clinical signs of vitamin A deficiency in birds?

A
  • White plaques form in mouth - Blunted choanal papillae - Conjunctivitis, sinusitis, and respiratory infections - Poor growth - Gout
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65
Q

What bird species is most prone to vitamin A deficiency?

A

Parrots

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66
Q

What reptile species is most prone to vitamin A deficiency?

A

Tortoises

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67
Q

What is short tongue syndrome?

A

Occurs in amphibians with vitamin A deficiency. Amphibians will be unable to catch bugs. What is happening is their tongue is hitting the prey but the prey are not sticking because there is a lack of sticky mucous.

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68
Q

What does vitamin A deficiency cause in rabbits?

A
  • Neonatal hydrocephalus - Stillbirths
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69
Q

What does vitamin A deficiency cause in fish?

A
  • Poor growth - Retinal atrophy
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70
Q

Blindness is a symptom of ___________________ deficiency in all species

A

Vitamin A

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71
Q

How can you treat vitamin A deficiency?

A
  • Give vitamin A injection (but don’t overdo it) - Adapt diet
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72
Q

True or False: It is safe to feed reptiles spinach and broccoli

A

False. It is not recommended as they can be high in oxalates and cause goiters

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73
Q

What food is best to feed to ensure adequate vitamin A levels?

A

Fruits and vegetables (particularly dark, leafy greens but no spinach or broccoli)

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74
Q

What species cannot utilize the vitamin A in carrots and why?

A

Birds because they lack cellulase

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75
Q

Which four species are most prone to vitamin E/selenium deficiency?

A

Guinea pigs, hamsters, fish, and hooved mammals

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76
Q

Is vitamin E/selenium deficiency an issue in Alberta?

A

Yes, at Elk Island the soil is very low in selenium and it has caused issues in animals there

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77
Q

What are five clinical signs of vitamin E/selenium deficiency?

A
  • White muscle disease - Stiffness - Cardiomyopathy - Ill thrift and lethargy - Conjunctivitis
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78
Q

What is steatitis in reptiles caused by?

A

High fat diets

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79
Q

True or False: It is common to give ungulate neonates an injection of vitamin E/selenium

A

True

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80
Q

Thiamin deficiency is common in what species?

A

Fish-eating species

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81
Q

What causes thiamin deficiency in fish eaters?

A

Dead fish release thiaminase (an enzyme that dissolves thiamine)

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82
Q

How can you prevent thiamin deficiency in fish eaters?

A

Buy thiamin paste and smear it in the gills of the fish you are going to feed them

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83
Q

Which two species are most prone to vitamin C deficiency?

A

Guinea pigs and primates

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84
Q

A deficiency in what vitamin causes teeth to fall out?

A

Vitamin C

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85
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

An excessive accumulation of iron in tissues

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86
Q

Hemochromatosis is common in what species?

A

Lemurs

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87
Q

What happens if rabbits eat too much calcium?

A

Their serum calcium is not regulated in a narrow range so excess calcium will be excreted in urine in high concentrations. This will cause urine to become sludgy and this can build up in the urinary tract, causing blockages

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88
Q

What should growing rabbits (< 7 months) be fed (three)?

A
  • Legume-based alfalfa pellets - Grass hay ad lib - Veggies (but no spinach or cabbage)
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89
Q

What should adult rabbits be fed?

A
  • Non-legume based pellet - Grass hay ad lib
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90
Q

What are the seven benefits of hay for rabbits?

A
  1. High fiber 2. Ideal Ca:P ratio 3. Good behavioral enrichment (promotes foraging) 4. Reduces aggression 5. Reduces excessive grooming, fur chewing, and chewing on inappropriate objects 6. Decreased risk of obesity and pododermatitis 7. Reduced risk of uroliths, dental, and infectious diseases
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91
Q

Arthrosclerosis is common in ___________________

A

Captive parrots

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92
Q

What is the leading cause of death of adult male gorillas?

A

Fibrosing cardiomyopathy

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93
Q

How do you treat gout?

A

With palliative care

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94
Q

Commercial pet foods supply all nutrients except __________

A

Water

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95
Q

Which nutrients do commercial pet food supply?

A
  1. Energy (fat, carbs, protein) 2. Essential fatty acids 3. Essential amino acids 4. Minerals 5. Vitamins
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96
Q

What are the three energy sources?

A
  1. Protein 2. Carbohydrates 3. Fat
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97
Q

Which energy source has the most calories per kg?

A

Fat. Carbohydrates and protein are about equal with each other (3.5 cals/kg) but fat has significantly more (8.5 cals/kg)

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98
Q

Which animal requires more protein in their diet, dogs or cats?

A

Cats (30% DM basis). Dogs are a little lower at 22% DM basis

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99
Q

Essential fatty acids are required at _______% DM

A

0.02

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100
Q

What are the three required essential fatty acids?

A
  1. Linolenic acid 2. Linoleic acid 3. Arachidonic acid (cats)
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101
Q

What are the two main considerations when adding minerals to a diet?

A
  1. Meeting absolute requirement (calories) 2. Maintaining a ratio (ex. Ca:P)
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102
Q

What are the water soluble vitamins?

A

B

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103
Q

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

A

K, A, D, E

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104
Q

There is no definitive requirement for Vitamin _______ in small animals

A

C

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105
Q

Why are vitamins generally added in excess in diets? Name two examples.

A

There may be extensive loss during processing or storage. Ex. Vitamins A and B can be destroyed through heat or canning and lipid peroxidation consumes Vitamin E

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106
Q

The largest proportion of energy on a DM basis in wet food is due to what?

A

Fat

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107
Q

Canned food has a higher ________ and ______ content but a lower _______ content than dry food

A

Protein and fat, carbohydrate

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108
Q

What does AAFCO stand for?

A

Association of American Feed Control Officials

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109
Q

What is AAFCO?

A

It is a non-governmental organization that sets guidelines for uniform labelling and nutritional adequacy. Each state sets separate pet food regulations

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110
Q

What are nine things AAFCO-compliant labels must include?

A
  1. Product name 2. Net weight 3. Name and address/email of manufacturer 4. Guaranteed analysis (crude protein, crude fat, crude fiber and moisture) 5. Ingredients in descending order by weight 6. The words “dog or cat food” 7. Caloric content per common unit of measure 8. Statement of nutritional adequacy or purpose (ex. kitten, weight loss, etc.) 9. Directions for feeding
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111
Q

AAFCO guidelines form a basis of regulations in all states except for which two states?

A

Nevada and Alaska

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112
Q

True or False: AAFCO compliance is “voluntary”

A

True

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113
Q

What four pieces of information are not availiable on an AAFCO label?

A
  1. Overall digestibility 2. Biologic value of protein 3. Quality of product 4. Contamination
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114
Q

What are the two primary AAFCO methods of substantiating nutritional adequacy?

A
  1. Computer analysis to meet AAFCO guidelines 2. Standardized AAFCO feeding trials
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115
Q

What are the four things a feeding trial can tell you that a computer analysis can’t?

A
  1. Palatability 2. Digestibility and nutrient availability 3. Nutrient interactions 4. Toxins and contaminants
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116
Q

What is the “family product” rule?

A

A rule that allows manufacturers to use a label claiming it has passed AAFCO feeding trial standards when it has not, due to a very similar product in the line with the same computer analysis results having passed the AAFCO feeding trials standards.

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117
Q

What are five indicators of pet food quality?

A
  1. Animal protein high on ingredient list (#1 or #2 for cats) 2. Check for added calcium 3. Digestibility >75% 4. Quality of packaging 5. Be suspicious when a label has different forms of the same ingredient listed separately (it’s a sketchy way for a company to hide how much of a certain ingredient they are putting in the food by breaking it up)
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118
Q

True or False: Corn is a common allergen in dogs

A

False. Very few dogs are actually allergic or intolerant of corn

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119
Q

Wheat has an unusually high ______ content

A

Protein (up to 18%!)

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120
Q

True or False: Wheat is a common allergen in dogs

A

True, it is one of the top three common causes of allergies in dogs (way more likely to cause problems than corn)

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121
Q

What are the first three limiting amino acids in corn or wheat?

A
  • Lysine - Methionine - Threonine
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122
Q

What are the disadvantages of a grain-free diet?

A
  1. Very high in fat and protein content (expensive and can lead to obesity) 2. Poor choice for hepatic or renal insufficiency, fat intolerance, or pancreatitis 3. It has been linked with causing DCM in dogs
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123
Q

What are the disadvantages of a raw diet?

A
  1. Harder to balance 2. Risk of bacterial infections 3. Iatrogenic hyperthyroidism and foreign bodies
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124
Q

What is a maintenance energy requirement (MER)?

A

An energy requirement that meets the needs for basal metabolic rate, body temperature, obtaining and digesting food, and recovery from normal activity

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125
Q

What formula should you use to calculate MER for adult dogs?

A

MER = 110 (BW in kg) ^ 3/4

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126
Q

What is metabolizable energy?

A

The gross energy in food minus energy lost in feces and urine (energy that can be metabolized by the animal)

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127
Q

Treats should not be more than ______% of daily calorie intake

A

0.1

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128
Q

What percent more protein do geriatric dogs need to maintain muscle mass versus young dogs?

A

They need 50% more protein to gain the same amount of muscle as a young dog

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129
Q

True or False: As a dog gets older, we should automatically decrease protein intake since they are less active

A

False. Remember they actually need more protein to maintain muscle mass versus a younger dog

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130
Q

Cats have an absolute requirement for which two amino acids?

A

Taurine and arginine

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131
Q

What are the protein requirements for an older cat versus a younger cat?

A

Likely increased or unchanged. It is less of a problem in cats than it is in dogs

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132
Q

Puppies and kittens have increased requirements for which nutrients versus adult dogs and cats?

A

They have increased requirements for ALL nutrients, especially protein, energy, and calcium and phosphorus

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133
Q

Should puppies eat more dry or more wet food?

A

More dry food, although wet food can be used if it’s a smaller breed puppy

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134
Q

True or False: You should never use vitamin and mineral supplements in growing puppies

A

True. This can cause disastrous mineral imbalances and ratios

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135
Q

True or False: Ad limitum feeding is recommended for puppies

A

False! Puppies are better to be underfed versus overfed. An obese puppy is likely to grow into an obese dog

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136
Q

What two things should you especially avoid when feeding a large breed puppy?

A
  1. Excessive energy intake (growing too quickly into their “big adult body” is very bad!) 2. Moderate Ca:P intake (high calcium intake leads to bone pathology, especially in large breeds)
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137
Q

What amino acid is absolutely essential for growth in kittens?

A

Taurine

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138
Q

True or False: Ad limitum feeding is recommended for kittens

A

True. They have a very high calorie requirement as kittens and kittens are less likely to overeat versus puppies

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139
Q

At what age should you introduce an adult diet to a kitten and why?

A

Around 6 months of age. This is because they are 75% of their adult size by the time they are 6 months old.

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140
Q

How often should you feed warmed formula to puppy and kitten neonates?

A

Every 4 hours (use a stomach tube if necessary!)

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141
Q

How often should you weigh bottle fed neonates?

A

At least once daily

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142
Q

When should you introduce commercial pet food to kittens and puppies?

A

Around 2 weeks of age

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143
Q

When should puppies and kittens be weaned?

A

Around 6 weeks of age

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144
Q

Rank these species by the energy content in their milk from most to least: Cats, cows, dogs, goats

A

Dogs > Cats > Goats > Cows

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145
Q

What are the three primary components of a nutritional assessment?

A
  1. Food and food related factors 2. Animal and animal related factors 3. Feeding management (the owner)
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146
Q

How can animal related factors impact nutritional assessment (three)?

A
  1. Environment (dogs in hot climates have greater nutritional needs) 2. Activity level (working dogs like arctic sled dogs need a crazy amount of calories) 3. Dietary sensitivities (animal may have an allergy but confirm is this is definitive or if it’s just an owner assumption)
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147
Q

What are some owner related factors that can affect nutritional assement?

A

How the owner is feeding that animal: - Ad libitum - Who feeds them - Where are they being fed - Are there additional food sources - Other pets

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148
Q

What does body condition score reflect?

A

It reflects body composition (the amount of fat compared to the lean body mass)

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149
Q

Are cats or dogs harder to score on body condition? Why?

A

Cats are due to their inguinal fat pad, where cats store fat (and gives them a little swinging tum tum)

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150
Q

What nutritional disorders does each breed commonly get: Arctic breeds, irish setters, bedlington terriers

A
  • Arctic breeds get zinc responsive dermatosis - Irish setters get gluten-sensitive enteropathy - Bedlington terriers get hepatic copper storage disease
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151
Q

What is a nutritional assessment comprised of?

A
  1. History 2. Physical exam 3. Lab work
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152
Q

What information do you need to get during a physical exam in regards to nutrition?

A
  1. Body weight - record it in medical record 2. Body condition score 3. Are there signs of malnutrition?
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153
Q

Is it common for pets to have deficiencies in specific nutrients?

A

No, because most pets eat a commercial pet food that is complete and balanced

154
Q

What is protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?

A

A disorder caused by inadequate intake of protein and energy/calories. It is common in critically ill patients

155
Q

What three amino acids can cats not convert/cannot synthesize?

A
  1. Decreased capacity to synthesize vitamin D 2. Cannot convert carotene to vitamin A (retinol) 3. Cannot convert tryptophan to niacin
156
Q

What are three specific nutritional deficiencies that occur in pets?

A
  1. Taurine deficiency in cats- causes DCM and retinal degeneration 2. Vitamin K deficiency- causes coagulopathy 3. Thiamine (B1) deficiency in cats- causes brainstem necrosis and neurological signs
157
Q

Describe the presentation of cats with thiamine deficiency:

A
  • Ventral flexion of the neck - They keep trying to somersault Can be fatal if you don’t give them thiamine quickly!
158
Q

What will you see with protein energy malnutrition on a serum chemistry panel?

A
  1. Creatinine (creatinine is proportional to your muscles (lean body mass) so having low creatinine can mean muscle loss) 2. BUN (being low in protein will decrease BUN)
159
Q

What will you see with protein energy malnutrition on a CBC?

A
  • Normocytic/normochromic non-regenerative anemia - Lymphopenia
160
Q

What should you do when recommending a food?

A
  • Identify brand name, flavour, and form (be specific) - Give several choices that have varying price - Tell owner exactly how much to feed and frequency with written instructions
161
Q

True or False: Once you recommend a food to an owner you don’t need to follow up

A

FALSE! You need to follow up and see how the food change is going and if it is working

162
Q

What are five detrimental effects of PEM (protein-energy malnutrition)?

A
  • Anemia and hypoproteinemia - Delayed wound healing - Decreased immune function - GI, respiratory, or cardiovascular compromise - Death
163
Q

What adaptation do canids have to survive food deprivation?

A

Acute: They can maintain their blood glucose concentrations with hepatic glycogen but if that isn’t available they can use amino acids Long-term: Most tissues can use fat for energy which allows them to preserve their lean body mass (muscle)

164
Q

What happens when an animal has PEM?

A

Their adipose stores cannot meet energy demands and so lean body mass is rapidly catabolized

165
Q

What species is more predisposed to PEM and why?

A

Cats because they have a high basal protein requirement

166
Q

If a patient has PEM what will laboratory tests show?

A

Decreased creatinine and hypoalbuminemia

167
Q

What are the five steps to initiating nutritional support?

A
  1. Determine fluid requirement 2. Determine energy requirement 3. Select calorie sources 4. Micronutrient requirements 5. Select route of administration
168
Q

What is the average daily fluid requirement of small animal patients?

A

~ 60mL/kg

169
Q

Which patients would need even more water than the daily requirement?

A

Those with renal dysfunction or ones that are vomiting or have diarrhea

170
Q

How can fluids be given (three)?

A

Through voluntary intake, through a tube, or IV

171
Q

True or False: Fluid deficits should be corrected prior to starting feeding

A

True

172
Q

What should you use to calculate energy requirements for sick patients?

A

Resting energy requirement (RER) because they ain’t running around and going on hikes

173
Q

How can you calculate RER?

A

For animals 2kg-45kg: RER= 30(BWkg) + 70 For all animals: RER= 70(BWkg)^3/4 *use their current weight

174
Q

Diabetic pets need to be careful how many ____________ they eat

A

Carbohydrates

175
Q

Animals with liver or kidney disease should be careful with what in their diet?

A

Protein

176
Q

Assuming liver and kidney function are normal, what is the optimal protein caloric percentage of a dog and cat?

A

Dog: 25-45% of calories Cat: 30-50% of calories

177
Q

Critical care diets are often high in _________________

A

Fat

178
Q

Do dogs/cats need carbohydrates?

A

No, but if some illness is limiting the amount of protein or fats they can have, carbs can be another source of calories

179
Q

What micronutrients are important in the immune response (five)?

A

Vitamin A Iron Protein Zinc Arginine VIPZA

180
Q

What micronutrients allow tissue synthesis and repair (three)?

A

Protein, B vitamins, and glutamine PBG

181
Q

In vet med do we do IV feeding often?

A

No, we usually do tube feeding

182
Q

What can you do to increase voluntary food intake (three)?

A
  • Feed by hand - Give highly palatable food - Warm food up
183
Q

What three drugs can we give to stimulate appetite?

A

Mirtazapine, diazepam, cyproheptadine (antidepressants)

184
Q

What is a con of using drugs to stimulate the appetite?

A

We give these drugs hoping to get them eating and we sit around waiting for it to work which ends up delaying us placing the feeding tube and that lost time is critical

185
Q

What are four types of feeding tubes we can place?

A
  1. Nasoesophageal 2. Pharyngostomy/esophagostomy 3. Gastrostomy 4. Jejunostomy
186
Q

What food can you use in tube feeding (three)?

A
  1. Put commercial pet food in a blender and sieve it 2. Commercial paste-type formulation that are made for tube feeding 3. Commercial veterinary liquid/or powdered formulations
187
Q

What patients should you not give critical care diets to?

A

Animals with pancreatitis as these food are really high in fat

188
Q

What nutrients are critical care diets high and low in?

A

High in protein and fat, and low in carbohydrates

189
Q

How frequently should you tube feed?

A

First bolus every two hours. Then you can do 4-6 small feedings a day

190
Q

What should you do when you want to stop tube feeding (two)?

A
  • Stop feeding and see if they are eating because you don’t want to take the tube out and then have to put it back in - Gradually transition to a highly digestible GI food
191
Q

What is the most common malnutrition?

A

Obesity

192
Q

What are two main causes of obesity?

A
  • Consumption of excess calories - Lack of exercise
193
Q

What are the deleterious effects of obesity (eight)?

A
  1. Musculoskeletal problems 2. Immunosuppression 3. Glucose intolerance and insulin resistance 4. Predisposition for hepatic lipidosis (cats) 5. Difficult to dose drugs 6. Increased risk during anesthesia and surgery 7. Increased risk of cancer 8. Significantly shorter life span (dogs)
194
Q

What are the six steps to successful weight loss?

A
  1. Thorough patient assessment 2. Determine energy intake for weight loss 3. Choose a weight loss ration 4. Institute weight loss program 5. Monitor patient progress 6. Transition to maintenance diet
195
Q

What are three medical causes of obesity that you must rule out before you start a weight loss plan?

A
  • Medication (corticosteroids, anticonvulsants) - Hypothyroidism - Hyperadrenocorticism
196
Q

How do you determine ideal food intake for weight loss?

A

For cats, calculate the maintenance energy requirement for the ideal body weight and times it by 0.6 or 0.8 for weight loss (more conservative for cats)

197
Q

What is different about weight loss diets?

A

The protein content is ample as to not cause PEM, and the fiber quantity is higher to ensure satiety (insoluble fiber is best)

198
Q

What would ideal weight loss entail?

A

That they lose adipose tissue but maintain lean body mass

199
Q

What are the undesirable effects of a weight loss diet that is high in fiber (four)?

A
  • Increased frequency of defecation (not ideal in an apartment dog) - Abdominal distension - Flatulence - Poor coat quality
200
Q

In safe weight loss, animals will lose _______% of body mass per week

A

0.01

201
Q

True or False: Once target weight is reached, animals should be switched to a maintenance ration

A

True

202
Q

What is the second most common nutritional issue we see?

A

Acute small intestinal disease

203
Q

True or False: Acute small intestinal disease occurs more in dogs than cats

A

True

204
Q

What should a diet for chronic small bowel disease look like?

A
  • Highly digestible, low residue (low in fiber) - Low in simple carbohydrates - Lactose-free - Low or moderate fat - Adequate high biologic value protein content +/- considerations for allergies (ex. hydrolyzed diet)
205
Q

What are prebiotics?

A

Food for the good bacteria in the gut

206
Q

What are probiotics?

A

The good bacteria you want in your gut

207
Q

What are the two most common prebiotics we use?

A

Fructooligosaccharides (FOS) and mannanoligosaccharides (MOS) are commonly used

208
Q

What are the 3 primary components of a nutritional assessment?

A
  1. food and food related factors 2. animal and animal related factors 3. feeding management (the owner)
209
Q

How can animal related factors impact nutritional assessment?

A
  1. environment- dogs in hot climates have greater nutritional needs 2. activity level- working dogs like arctic sled dogs need a crazy amount of calories 3. dietary sensitivities- animal may have an allergy but confirm is this is definitive or just an owner assumption
210
Q

What are some owner related factors that can affect nutritional assement?

A

How the owner is feeding that animal: -ad libitum -who feeds them -where are they being fed -are there additional food sources -other pets

211
Q

What does body condition score reflect?

A

it reflects body composition, that is the amount of fat compared to the lean body mass

212
Q

What point system is BCS graded on?

A

a 5 or 9 point system 1/9= cachectic 5/9= optimal 9/9= obese

213
Q

What does a BSC of 1 look like?

A
214
Q

Are cats or dogs harder to score on body condition?

A

cats are (due to their inguinal fat pad, where cats store fat and give them a little swinging tum tum)

215
Q

What information do you need to get during a physical exam in regards to nutrition?

A
  1. body weight - record it in medical record 2. Body condition score 3. are there signs of malnutrition?
216
Q

Is it common for pets to have deficiencies in specific nutrients?

A

no because most pets eat a commercial pet food that is complete and balanced

217
Q

What is protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?

A

a disorder caused by inadequate intake of protein and energy/calories it is common in critically ill patients

218
Q

What are some specific nutritional deficiencies that occur in pets?

A
  1. taurine deficiency in cats- causes DCM and retinal degeneration 2. vitamine K deficiency- causes coagulopathy 3. thiamine (B1) deficiency in cats- causes brain stem necrosis and neurological signs
219
Q

Describe the presentation of cats with thiamine deficiency:

A

-they have ventral flexion of the neck -they keep trying to summersault -it can be fatal if you don’t give them thiamine quickly

220
Q

How can protein energy malnutrition be detected with laboratory tests?

A

creatinine- creatinine is porpotional to your muscles (lean body mass) so having low creatinine can mean muscle loss BUN- being low in protein will decrease BUN

221
Q

What should you do when recommending a food?

A

-identify brand name, flavor, and form (be specific) -give several choices that have varying price -tell owner exactly how much to feed and frequency with written instructions

222
Q

True or false: once you recommend a food to an owner you don’t need to follow up

A

FALSE! you need to follow up and see how the food change is going and if it is working

223
Q

What are some of the detrimental effects of PEM (protein-energy malnutrition)?

A

-anemia and hypoproteinemia -delayed wound healing -decreased immune function -GI, respiratory, cardiovascular compromise -death

224
Q

What adaptation do canids have to survive food deprivation?

A

Acute: they can maintain their blood glucose concentrations with hepatic glycogen but if that isn’t available they can use amino acids long-term: most tissues can use. fat for energy which allows them to preserve their lean body mass (muscle)

225
Q

What happens when an animal has PEM?

A

their adipose stores cannot meet energy demands and so lean body mass is rapidly catabolized

226
Q

What species is more predisposed to PEM and why?

A

cats because they have a high basal protein requirement

227
Q

If a patient has PEM what will laboratory tests show?

A

decreased creatinine and hypoalbuminemia

228
Q

What are the 5 steps to initiating nutritional support?

A
  1. determine fluid requirement 2. determine energy requirement 3. select calorie sources 4. micronutrient requirements 5. select route of administration
229
Q

What is the average daily fluid requirement of small animal patients?

A

~60mL/kg

230
Q

What patients would need even more water than the daily requirement?

A

those with renal dysfunction or ones that are vomiting or have diarrhea

231
Q

How can fluids be given?

A

voluntary intake, through a tube, or IV

232
Q

True or false: fluid deficits should be corrected prior to starting feeding

A

true

233
Q

What should you use to calculate energy requirements for sick patients?

A

resting energy requirement (RER) because they ain’t running around and going on hikes

234
Q

How can you calculate RER?

A

For animals 2kg-45kg: RER= 30(body weight kg) + 70 For all animals: RER= 70(body weight kg)^3/4 *use their current weight

235
Q

Diabetic pets need to be careful how many ____________ they eat

A

carbs

236
Q

Animals with liver or kidney disease should be careful with what in their diet?

A

protein

237
Q

Assuming liver and kidney function are normal what is the optimal protein intake of a dog and cat?

A

Dog: 25-45% of calories Cat: 30-50% of calories

238
Q

Critical care diets are often high in _________________

A

fat

239
Q

Do dogs/cats need carbohydrates?

A

no they don’t but if some illness is limiting the amount of protein or fats they can have, carbs can be another source of calories

240
Q

What micronutrients are important in the immune response?

A

protein, zinz, iron, vitamin A, arganine

241
Q

What micronutrients allow tissue synthesis and repair?

A

protein, B vitamins, and glutamine

242
Q

In vet med do we do IV feeding often?

A

no, we usually do tube feeding

243
Q

What can you do to increase voluntary food intake?

A

-feed by hand -give highly palatable food -warm food up

244
Q

What drugs can we give to stimulate the appetite?

A

mirtazapine, diazepam, cyproheptadine

245
Q

What is a con of using drugs to stimulate the appetite?

A

we give these drugs hoping to get them eating and we sit around waiting for it to work which ends up delaying us placing the feeding tube and that lost time is critical

246
Q

What are 4 types of feeding tubes we can place?

A
  1. nasoesophageal 2. pharyngostomy/esophagostomy 3. gastrostomy 4. jejunostomy
247
Q

What are the pros and cons of a jejunostomy tube?

A

Pros: -good if they are vomiting a lot Cons: -must be surgically placed -cannot bolus feed, must feed as a CRI -its a tiny tube so no chunky food, you must use a liquid formulation

248
Q

What are the pros and cons of a gastrostomy tube?

A

Pros: -best choice for long term tube placement Cons: -require anesthesia to place

249
Q

What are the pros and cons of a nasoesophageal tube?

A

Pros: -don’t need anesthesia to place -work well in cats and dogs with smushed faces Cons: -can’t use them in patients that are having seizures -not great in dogs with long noses -not good for long term support

250
Q

What are the pros and cons of pharyngostomy/esophagostomy tubes?

A

Pros: -bigger diameter tube so can put chunkier food down it -good for long term Cons: -poor choice if they are vomiting a ton

251
Q

What food can you use in tube feeding (three)?

A
  1. put commercial pet food in a blender and sieve it 2. commercial paste-type formulation that are made for tube feeding 3. commercial veterinary liquid/or powdered formulations
252
Q

What patients should you not give critical care diets to?

A

animals with pancreatitis as these food are really high in fat

253
Q

Generally speaking, what are critical care diets high/low in?

A

high in protein and fat, low in carbs

254
Q

How frequently should you tube feed?

A

best case scenario you can do 4-6 small feedings a day

255
Q

What do you have to do when you want to stop tube feeding?

A

-stop feeding and see if they are eating because you don’t want to take the tube out and then have to put it back in -gradually transition to a highly digestible food

256
Q

What is the most common malnutrition?

A

obesity

257
Q

What are caused of obesity?

A

-consumption of excess calories -lack of exercise

258
Q

Wha are the deleterious effects of obesity (eight)?

A
  1. musculoskeletal problems 2. immunosuppression 3. glucose intolerance and insulin resistance 4. predisposition for hepatic lipidosis (cats) 5. difficult to dose drugs 6. increased risk during anesthesia and surgery 7. increased risk of cancer 8. significantly shorter life span (dogs)
259
Q

What are the 6 steps to successful weight loss?

A
  1. thorough patient assessment 2. determine energy intake for weight loss 3. choose a weight loss ration 4. institute weight loss program 5. monitor patient progress 6. transition to maintenance diet
260
Q

What are some medical causes of obesity that you must rule out before you start a weight loss plan?

A

-medication (corticosteroids, anticonvulsants) -hypothyroidism -hyperadrenocorticism

261
Q

How do you determine ideal food intake for weight loss?

A

calculate the maintenance energy requirement for the ideal body weight and times it by 0.6 or 0.8 for weight loss

262
Q

What is different about weight loss diets?

A

-protein content -fiber type and quantity

263
Q

What would ideal weight loss entail?

A

that they lose adipose tissue but maintain lean body mass

264
Q

What are undesirable effects of a weight loss diet that is high in fiber?

A

-increased frequency of defecation (not ideal in an apartment dog) -abdominal distension -flatulence -poor coat quality

265
Q

In safe weight loss, animals will lose _______% of body mass per week

A

0.01

266
Q

True or false: once target weight is reached, animals should be switched to a maintenance ration

A

true

267
Q

What is acute small intestinal disease and how should you treat it?

A

essentially a dietary indiscretion like when the dog gets into the garbage and then has an upset tummy. Just feed them a bland diet (chicken and rice) for a few days and gradually return to normal diet

268
Q

What are prebiotics?

A

food for the good bacteria in the gut

269
Q

What are probiotics?

A

good bacteria you want in your gut

270
Q

Suspect every reptile you see to be suffering from some form of nutritional deficiency…which one is most common?

A

Metabolic bone disease

271
Q

What are the Overarching goals of nutrition for wildlife and exotics?

A
  • Growth - Overall health – longevity (Decreases in infectious and non infectious disease incidences) - + / - breeding success
272
Q

What are 4 goals of any feeding strategy?

A

1 – Provide a nutritionally balanced diet 2 – stimulate natural feeding behaviours 3 – Balanced diet that’s consistently 4 – Practical and economical to feed

273
Q

How do birds get aflatoxicosis?

A

moldy peanuts, corn & tree seeds

274
Q

what mycotoxin is responsible for aflotoxicosis in birds?

A

Aspergillus spp.

275
Q

Describe the pathology of aflatoxicosis

A

hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis and hepatic carcinoma

276
Q

how is aflatoxicosis avoided/prevented?

A

Proper food storage + use of human grade seeds/nutes

277
Q

What is a rabbit (in a nutritional sense)

A

Monogastric, hindgut fermenting, concentrate selecting herbivore

278
Q

What part of a rabbit diet is often overlooked by owners?

A

High fiber is essential but often overlooked by clients

279
Q

What GI processes do coarse non-digestable particles stimulate?

A

*Secretion *Digestion *Absorption *Peristalsis *Cell regeneration *Excretion

280
Q

Inadequate fiber content in rabbits can lead to what? (5)

A

*Fur chewing (barbering) *Trichobezoars *GI stasis (hepatic lipidosis) *Lethargy, anorexia *Possibly death

281
Q

Excessive energy content in rabbits can lead to what? (4)

A

*Obesity *Pododermatitis *Urinary tract disease *Dental disease

282
Q

In hindgut, dietary fiber is divided into large (___________) and small (_________) fibers

A
  1. indigestible 2. digestible
283
Q

What happens to large particles of dietary fibre in a rabbit diet? Why is this significant?

A

Large particles (>0.5mm; 1lignocellulose) are eliminated directly as hard fecal pellets. This mechanically stimulates motility of the cecum and colon

284
Q

What happens to small particles of dietary fibre in a rabbit diet?

A

Smaller particles (<0.3mm) collect in haustra of colon and are sent back to cecum via reverse peristalsis for fermentation

285
Q

What are cecotrophes?

A

Cecum synthesizes amino acids and volatile fatty acids and concentrates this into pellets (cecotrophes)

286
Q

why are cecotrophes covered in mucus?

A

protects the nutrients from stomach acids after ingestion

287
Q

Why are cecotrophes important in a rabbit diet? (2)

A

*High in Vitamin Bs and K *2x’s the protein (28%) and ½ the fiber of a normal pellet

288
Q

when is cecotroph ingestion higest in rabbits?

A

Cecotroph ingestion is highest when rabbits are fed diet high in nondigestible fiber.

289
Q

What type of animal are ferrets?

A

strict obligate carnivores

290
Q

Describe the GI system of ferrets (include transit times for different age groups) (4)

A
  • Short GI tract o 3 hour transit time in adults o 1 hour in pups - Simple tube from stomach to rectum o No cecum o No ileocolic valve - Spontaneous secretors of HCl - Minimal gut flora o Few brush border enzymes
291
Q

why is the short GI tract of a ferret significant?

A

Means they require small meals frequently (every 3hrs)

292
Q

Food consumption and weight regulated by _______[1]_______ *20-30% increase in ____[2]______ *Inhibited by _______[3]__________

A
  1. daylight 2. winter 3. artificial lighting
293
Q

Describe the nutrient requirements of a ferret diet

A

*High quality protein (>35 %) *fat 20 % *fibre and carbs (<5%)

294
Q

what should be avoided in a ferret diet?

A

diets/treats with sugars, high fibre

295
Q

Why should you introduce your ferret to many foods early in life?

A

Food preferences set early in life (first few months) *Need to be fed a variety of nutritious foods *Variety of food tastes, textures, smells, and different protein sources as juveniles so their diet has more flexibility as an adult. *This can be extremely helpful when ferrets experience medical conditions that require altered diets

296
Q

why is a high carb/high fibre diet bad for ferrets?

A

*Urolithiasis via plant proteins -High prevalence if fed dog kibble (struvite) *Association/exacerbation of pancreatic disease of beta cells (Insulinomas)

297
Q

What is an insulinoma

A

Pancreatic islet beta cell tumour INDISCRIMINATE OF INSULIN PRODUCTION

298
Q

What makes up 25% of all neoplasia cases in North American ferrets?

A

insulinomas

299
Q

why are insulinomas in ferrets uncommon in the EU?

A

their ferrets are fed a low carb diet

300
Q

What are the clinical signs of insulinomas in ferrets? (6)

A

*Acute hypoglycemia and chronic lethargy *Hind end ataxia and weakness *Presumed nausea due to hypersalivation and pawing at the mouth *Depression and longer, deeper sleeps *Star gazing *Rarely seizures

301
Q

how can you diagnose a ferret with insulinoma?

A

Presumptive diagnosis when: *Very low fasting blood glucose *3.3 to 3.6 mmol/L (normal 35 250 mmol/L) *Neurological signs and symptoms abate after meal or IV glucose

302
Q

You are a veterinarian at an exotic clinic. a 4y.o. male North American ferret comes in for an examination. The owner reports he has been very slow and not running around as he used to. You are suspicious of insulinoma. List what tests you would use to assist this diagnose (list from most to least definitive)

A

Surgical Biopsy + histology > blood glucose (glucometer stick test) > xrays/Ultrasound

303
Q

Client management of hypoglycemic episodes in ferrets (3)

A

*Client education key (know what signs to look for) *Corn syrup on gums or under tongue, then feed high protein/fat food *Get to vet quickly

304
Q

What are the 2 types of pharmaceuticals that could be used to medically manage insulinoma in ferrets?

A

Glucocorticoids and Diazoxide

305
Q

Why are glucocorticoids useful in management of insulinomas in ferrets? Which is most common to use?

A

Boost hepatic gluconeogenesis, decrease tissue uptake of insulin Most common: prednisone

306
Q

Why is diazoxide useful in management of insulinomas in ferrets? When is it used?

A

*Inhibits pancreatic insulin release Usually only started once prednisone dose reaches 2mg/kg

307
Q

T or F: Ferret insulinomas rarely metastasize

A

TRUE!

308
Q

What causes the variation of Volume and Frequency of Feedings in exotics? (4)

A

*Age *Reproductive status *Season (Molt = Increase protein required) *Temperature (Hibernation/Brumation)

309
Q

What are some Common Nutritional Diseases in exotic animals? (6)

A

*Metabolic Bone Disease *Hypovitaminosis A *Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency *Thiamin deficiency *Vitamin C deficiency *Obesity

310
Q

What are 3 examples of metabolic bone diseases?

A
  1. Rickets 2. Osteomalacia 3. Fibrous osteodystrophy
311
Q

What is rickets? What does it involve? Who does it affect?

A

inadequate mineralization of bone due to deficiencies in vitamin D and or calcium *Usually involving growth plates or physis of long bones *Typically affects young, growing animals

312
Q

What is osteomalacia? Who does it typically affect?

A

softening of bone due to mineral loss from a previously mineralized bone. *Usually a condition affecting adult animals

313
Q

What is fibrous osteodystrophy? When do we see it in exotics?

A

replacement of bone with fibrous material *Common feature of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism (NSHPT) in reptiles

314
Q

Describe the Multifactorial etiology of metabolic bone disease (3)

A

*Absolute calcium deficiency *Ca:P imbalance *Vitamin D deficiency

315
Q

Most mammals can utilize D2 (____[1]_______) and dietary D3 (_______[2]_________)

A
  1. ergocalciferol 2. cholecalciferol
316
Q

Which animals require D3 in their diet? Why?

A

*New world primates, birds, reptiles and fish Reason: can’t utilize D2

317
Q

Why do many retiles require special lighting? What is this lighting?

A

*Many reptiles (eg. Iguana ) are unable to ingest enough Vit D in their diet *Require adequate sunlight/UVB exposure

318
Q

Give 10 Clinical Signs of MBD

A

*Lameness *Bone deformities *Fractures and softening of bone *Swollen jaws and tooth loss *Hypocalcemic tetany *Deformed shells (turtles) *Paralysis (especially lizards) *Poor feathering *Deformed/soft eggs (birds and reptiles) *Reluctance to climb (primates)

319
Q

How do we diagnose MBD? (6)

A

*Thorough History and Clinical Signs *Facial and long bone swelling *Osteodystrophy *Radiographs (Reduced bone density, cortical thinning, etc) *Total serum calcium levels (Ionized calcium) *Plasma vitamin D levels may be extremely low

320
Q

how do we treat acute MBD?

A

Calcium gluconate given IV if seizures occurring

321
Q

How do we treat chronic MBD? (2)

A

*Ca:P supplementation at proper ratio (1.5 - 2:1 ) in diet *Vitamin D supplementation if not getting UVB light/sunlight

322
Q

What concentration should be given of Ca:P when treating MBD?

A

1.5 - 2:1

323
Q

When would euthanasia be most appropriate for an MBD case?

A

Euthanasia is appropriate if long bones/pelvis are not visible on X ray

324
Q

How do we prevent MBD? (6)

A
  1. Feed balanced diets with known nutritional profiles 2. Gut load insects (no more than 50% larval forms) with high calcium food 3. Dust insects in calcium just prior to every feeding 4. Feed nutritionally balanced whole food items 5. Allow access to unfiltered sunlight/full spectrum light or at min. UVB light 6. Keep reptiles in their POT(H)Z
325
Q

What common exotic pet foods are deficient in Calcium?

A

Seeds, muscle/organ meat, fruit, most grains, and most insects

326
Q

You are an exotic veterinarian at the new UCVM clinic! Your first patient is a 1y.o. male fancy bearded dragon. This is your client’s first beardie. They have been feeding crickets from PetSmart and pellets they bought off Amazon. What husbandry questions should you ask to assess risk of MBD in current setup?

A

Regarding food: 1. What setup do they have for the crickets (important to clarify if they buy as needed or raised at home. If latter, then asked about gut loading) 2. Do you dust the crickets before feeding? Regarding enclosure: 1. What lightbulbs do you have in the enclosure? (looking for UVB 290-315nm) 2. Expiration dates 3. Distance from animal 4. Basking areas 5. Mesh wire 6. Plastic or glass terrariums

327
Q

All meat and seed diets are deficient of what?

A

Vitamin A

328
Q

What is Vitamin A important for?(5)

A
  1. Important for vision, 2. re-modelling of bone, 3. integrity of epithelium, 4. immune function 5. reproduction
329
Q

In birds, what are the clinical signs of Hypovitaminosis A? (7)

A

*White plaques in mouth and esophagus *Blunting of choanal papillae *Conjunctivitis, sinusitis, resp. infections, *Poor growth, ataxia and gout *Occlusion of uropygial gland *Abnormal feathers *Parrots also exhibit squamous metaplasia of the salivary glands.

330
Q

Which reptiles are commonly found with hypovitaminosis A?

A

*Insectivore/omnivores *Red eared sliders *Leopard gecko s

331
Q

What is the key clinical sign of hypovitaminosis A in any species?

A

Poor fertility, growth rates and blindness (malfunctioning rods) in all species

332
Q

How do we treat hypovitaminosis A?

A

Vitamin A injection *Dietary correction *Animal liver *Dark leafy greens (e.g. dandelions, collards). *Fortified pellets

333
Q

When would it be detrimental to supplement vitamin A in a diet?

A

If diet contains whole prey

334
Q

How do we prevent hypovitaminosis A?

A

*Ensure diet has adequate levels of retinol

335
Q

What do herbivores require in their diet to prevent hypovitaminosis A?

A

Precursors (Beta carotene and other carotenoids)

336
Q

_____________ and __________ reduce free radical damage

A

Selenium and Vitamin E

337
Q

What is vitamin E/selenium important for?

A

Important for reproductive, muscular, circulatory, nervous and immune functions

338
Q

Which animals are commonly found with Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

*Guinea pigs , hamsters and fish

339
Q

What is the most common nutritional disease of captive ruminants?

A

Vitamin E/Selenium Deficiency

340
Q

Why is vitamin E/selenium deficiency a Common problem in Eastern North America, parts of AB?

A

Low levels in soils

341
Q

Clinical Signs and Pathology of Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency

A

*Most common in young but any age affected. *White muscle disease *Stiffness and paralysis due to Skeletal muscle necrosis and/or Mineralization *Cardiomyopathy *Sudden death especially when stressed *Ill thrift and lethargy (Guinea Pigs and deer) *Conjunctivitis (Guinea Pigs)

342
Q

How do we treat mild and severe cases of vitamin E/Selenium deficiency?

A

Mild cases *Respond to supplementation with vit E/Se injections Severe cases *Poor response *Supportive care, muscle relaxants and sedatives

343
Q

How do we prevent Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency

A

Ensure adequate levels in diet (Dependent on species, age and formulation) *Marked species variation *Measure Vitamin E serum levels *Supplement fish and high fat diets (100 IU vit E/kg fish) *Follow expiry dates on dry foods *Neonatal hoof stock should receive a vit E/Se injection within the first 24 48hrs in deficient areas

344
Q

What is a common nutrittional disorder in Pelicans, penguins, marine mammals, some snakes , amphibians and fish?

A

Thiamin Deficiency

345
Q

What are the clinical signs of thiamine deficiency?

A

*Anorexia and weight loss *Ataxia and limb paralysis *Tremors and seizures *Stargazing *Cardiac failure *Loss of equilibrium, edema and poor growth in fish

346
Q

Why would we opt to feed our fish eater pets smelts instead of goldfish? Would they be thawed or frozen? Why?

A

To prevent thiamine deficiency *Thiaminase activated after death in fish *Enhanced by freezing

347
Q

Treatment and Prevention of thiamine deficiency

A

Supplement diet with thiamine (30 - 35 mg/kg of fish for animals on thiaminase containing diets)

348
Q

Why do Most primates, bats, cavies (guinea pigs , capybara), some birds (eg. swallows, bulbuls), fish and some cetaceans fall victim to Vitamin C deficiency?

A

they cannot synthesize ascorbic acid because * they lack enzyme that converts glucose to ascorbic acid

349
Q

Vitamin C deficiency results in:

A

Defective blood vessels and tooth position

350
Q

You are a goldfish enthusiast and own many tanks! One day, you notice a few of your fishies have their tailfin bent outwards to the side. You test the water parameters and everything appears normal. What should you suspect the issue is?

A

Vitamin C deficiency

351
Q

Clinical Signs of Vitamin C deficiency

A

*Poor coat and skin condition *Lameness *Stomatitis *Muscle and joint hemorrhage *“Broken Back Disease” in fish *Swelling at long bone epiphyses and CC junctions *Fractures *Increased susceptibility to infectious disease *Anorexia *Diarrhea

352
Q

If you’re feeding a fortified sommercial diet to your guinea pig to avoid Vitamin C deficiency, what is your “best before date” and why?

A

Feed within 90 days due to oxidation

353
Q

why should you feed lots of fruits and green veggies to guinea pigs?

A

Seeds and animal tissues have low to no vitamin C

354
Q

Why do fruit bats and lemurs often get iron toxicity?

A

Feeding an excess of Vitamin C (via fruits)

355
Q

Which nutritional disorder is Particularly common in carnivores, ungulates, birds, primates, reptiles (boids) and amphibians (White’s tree frog, horned frogs)

A

Obesity

356
Q

why is obesity in animals bad?

A

Increased weight = Increased strain on musculoskeletal system and decreased life span

357
Q

list the common issues associated with obesity and the animals most likely to be affected

A

Dystocia (all), hepatic lipidosis (all), atherosclerosis (parrots), pododermatitis, uroliths and dental disease (rabbits)

358
Q

Rabbits are prone to developing __________ (guinea pigs and chinchillas to a lessor degree).

A

uroliths

359
Q

You are a proud owner of a new 2y.o. bunny!! You are so excited and have been making sure they have lots of food available. The bag of hay you are using says “alfalfa” and your bunny seems to love it! You seem to refill it 2x a day! Your bunny lives in a hutch in your room but you take him out to brush/pet him a lot. You recently went to the vet. What does your vet tell you is a concern with your bunny and why?

A

The vet is concerned about obesity and urolith development in your bunny. 1. limited exercise (bunnies should be allowed to free roam in order to get enough exercise) 2. Alfalfa hay is high in carbs, can lead to excessive weight gain

360
Q

Describe Calcium regulation in rabbits (3)

A

*Serum calcium is not regulated in a narrow range *Excreted in high concentrations in the urine *Sludge starts building up in urinary tract

361
Q

Signs of Urinary Sludge and/or Calculi

A

*Frequent urination *Often outside the normal toilet area *Dribble urine *Hindquarters may be continually damp with urine. *Straining to urinate Hunched posture and grinding of their teeth *This is an emergency, because the urinary system may be blocked. *Urine thick and white *Blood in the urine *Loss of appetite

362
Q

Your have a bunny. You use a combination of litter pans and no-pill fleece for housing. You are about to do the fleece laundry when you find dry patches that have a little bit of grainy white material on them. Should you rush your bunny to the vet? Why or why not?

A

No. Grainy white material when dry (small amounts can be normal). Cause for concern when there is a large amount. You should keep an eye on bunny to be safe

363
Q

You have a bunny. You’ve noticed a dark orange colour in the litter pan after your bunny uses it. Should you panic and rush to an emergency vet? Why or why not.

A

No need to panic! Normal bunny urine is light yellow to a dark orange

364
Q

Rabbits and rodents have __________ incisors

A

Hypsodont

365
Q

Rabbits and rodents have hypsodont incisors. What does this mean?

A

*Continuous growth or “open ended” *Up to 10 12cm/yea r

366
Q

In terms of dental health in rabbits, what can an inappropriate diet lead to? (5)

A

*Spurs, points or overgrown teeth *“Slobbers” *Anorexia *GI stasis and dysbiosis *Hepatic lipidosis

367
Q

You have adopted a 5month old bunny from a rescue! What should you be feeding him? Include what to avoid and why

A

*A commercial legume based (alfalfa) pellet ad lib *16 - 18% protein *Protein in a rabbit diet comes from the leaves and stems of legume plants. *At least 16% fiber *Grass hay ad lib *Veggies (handful/day) *Avoid spinach and cabbage due to high oxalates

368
Q

You have adopted a 7y.o. male bunny from a rescue! What should you be feeding him? Include what to avoid and why

A

*Non-legume based (timothy) pellet, offered in a measured amount (30-60 grams/kg/day) *12 - 14 % protein *20 -25% fiber, *< 2.5% fat *< 1% calcium is recommended. *Grass hay ad lib (~ 35% fiber)

369
Q

You have acquired a 7y.o. female bunny online! The previous owner mentions she was housed with a male with no issues.As you’re cleaning her cage on day, you notice baby bunnies around her!! To ensure your bunny maintains her strength, what should you feed her? What should you avoid?

A

*A commercial legume based (alfalfa) pellet ad lib *16 - 18% protein *Protein in a rabbit diet comes from the leaves and stems of legume plants. *At least 16% fiber *Grass hay ad lib *Veggies (handful/day) *Avoid spinach and cabbage due to high oxalates

370
Q

Less than _______% fiber = diarrhea and anorexia

A

0.15

371
Q

What are the Benefits of Hay for Rabbits?(7)

A
  1. High fiber and ideal calcium to phosphorus ratio 2.Good behavioural enrichment *Promotes more natural foraging behaviour 3.Reduces aggression 4.Reduces excessive grooming and fur chewing *Decreased risk of trichobezoars 5.Reduces chewing on inappropriate objects *Decreased risk of impaction 6.Decreased risk of obesity and pododermatitis 7.Reduced risk of uroliths, dental and infectious disease
372
Q

What are the risks of obesity in parrots?

A

*Long term diets high in fat and cholesterol *Perch potatoes (lack of exercise) *Age *Concurrent hepatic lipidosis and right side heart failure

373
Q

Your client has had an African Grey parrot for 25 years. The last time you saw this parrot was 6 years ago. At that time, the parrot’s weight was on the higher side of normal but you mentioned this to the owner and was assured they were working on it. You receive a distressed call the other day wheere the owner tells you their parrot has died without warning. They have requested you perform a necropsy. What are your suspicions?

A

Obesity leading to right-sided heart failure

374
Q

What are the clinical signs of obesity in arrots?

A

*Acute death *Dyspnea, lethargy, paresis and collapse

375
Q

How can owners avoid their parrots turning into “perch potatos”?

A

*Improve diet and exercise *Omega 3 fatty acids (PUFAs): This helps to inhibit vasculitis and reduce plaque formation

376
Q
A

Toggle Masks

377
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378
Q
A

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379
Q
A

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380
Q
A

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381
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465 - Applied Nutrition (3 decks)

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