Veterinary Public Health Flashcards
Who creates the legislation for veterinary public health?
DEFRA executive agencies
Food standards agency
UK health secretary agency
Who are the DEFRA executive agencies?
Veterinary medicine directorate
Animal and plant health agency
Environment agency
APHA
Animal and plant health agency
FBO/BO
Food business operator/business operators
FCI
Food chain information
FSA
Food standards agency
HACCP
Hazard analysis and critical control points
LA
Local authority/trading standards
MHI
Meat hygiene inspectors/ meat inspectors
OV
Official veterinarian
What are the proportions of imports and exports of beef to/from the UK?
Imports 35% of beef
Exports 15% of beef - 90% go to EU
Self sufficient score for Beef
65%
Pork imports and exports
Import 60%
Exports 25% to EU and china
Self sufficient score for pork
60%
Lamb imports and exports
Imports 33%
Exports 33%
Lamb self sufficient score
100%
How has brexit affected meat industry?
Lack of workforce
Reduced exports
Increased costs and labour
Pork production system in the UK
Vertically integrated
Mostly indoor (outdoor demand is growing)
3 main groups involved
When are pigs killed for pork?
24 weeks
Beef production system in the UK
Traditional - outdoor normally
When are cows slaughtered
18-24 months old
Sheep production system in the UK
Very traditional
When are sheep slaughtered?
6-11 months old
What are the transport requirements for live animals?
Handlers must be competent and trained
Vehicles approved if over 8 hour journey
Animals not caused injury or harm
Animals are fit to travels
Rules on journey times, resting and feeding req
When is an animal not fit for the abattoir?
Animals that cannot move independently
Severe open wounds or prolapses
Pregnant or gave birth in a week
New born animals with naval not healed
pigs less than 3 wk lambs less than 1wk calves less than 10d
Medicated within withdrawal period
rules to be applied with for unloading
Unload ASAP
Equipment must be available - slope walls railings
Floor must be non slip with side guards
No sharp edges or areas for injury
What are the responsibilities of FBO
Food business operator
Skilled and knowledgeable stockmen
Caring responsible planning and management
Appt env design
Handling and support
Humane slaughter
Paperwork and FCI available to OV
What are the benefits of good management in meat production?
Reduction of post mortem rejections
Meat quality
Efficiency - animals move through design with no encouragment
Less stress= less defecation= less contamination
What is Food chain information?
FCI is a valuable source of information for decision making in relation to animal health and welfare and is needed for every animal intended for human consumption.
OV must check FCI before authorizing slaughter
When did FCI become legislated?
No 853/2003 laying down rules for food of animsl
Came into force Jan 1st 2010
What are the minimum elements for FCI?
The animal health’s status;
The holding health status (imp. cattle);
Details of medicines and withdrawal periods;
Private veterinarian details (pigs and poultry);
Relevant production data, diseases and analysis.
Farmed game definition
Traditionally wild animals kept as domestic animals
Wild boar in Uk and farmed deer
Wild game
Means they have been living in the wild
Includes those that have been released into the wild for shooting
What game is allowed in the UK food chain
Only wild game killed by hunting is allowed into the food chain
What is the required food chain information for game?
FCIiIf Killed at the abattoir, same as any cattle FCI
Is needed for Farmed Game animals: if killed at the farm, this is called “Health Certificate”
Is not needed for Wild Game animals, but you would still need:
Hunter’s declaration/Trained person declaration in large Wild Game
- In Small wild game nothing is needed (hunter’s declaration recommended
FCI for abbatoir
Health certificate if in wild and large
Nothing if sm
What is the role of the OV at the abattoir?
Legislation puts responsibility down to the FBO and OV
OV will have to carry out several checks on the day to ensure compliance
OV req to carry out antemortem of all live animals and check FCIs
Ensure welfare
When does disinfection need to occur in meat industry?
Before new animals are loaded;
Inside or outside the abattoir;
Farmer & FBO responsibility;
FSA (MHI/OV) verifies FBO compliance;
Breaches to be reported to Local Authority (L.A.).
What are the five freedoms of animal welfare at the abattoir?
From hunger and thirst; (Nutrition domain)
From discomfort and extremes of temperature;(Physical environment domain)
From pain, suffering and disease;(Health domain)
To express natural behaviour;(Behavioural interactions domain)
From fear and distress.( Mental State domain)
What is the flow for beef production?
Antemortem inspection
Stunning
Shackling
Sticking and bleeding
Head removal
Hide removal
Evisceration
Splitting
Spinal cord removal
Trimming
Marking
sometimes washing
Chilling
Quartering
Deboning
Flow diagram for lamb production
Antemortem inspection
Stunning
Shackling
Bleeding
Hide removal
Evisceration
Splitting when over 1yr old
Trimming
Marking
Sometimes washing
Chilling
Deboning
Flow diagram pork production
Antemortem inspection
Stunning
Shackling
Bleeding
Scalding
Dehairing
Singing sometimes
Polishing
Washing
Evisceration
Splitting
Washing
Health mark
Chilling
Deboning
What is the council regulation No1099/2008
on the protection of animals at the time of killing
Killing
Intentionally induced process= death of an animal
Emergency killing
means the killing of animals which are injured or have a disease associated with severe pain or suffering and where there is no other practical possibility to alleviate this pain or suffering;
Stunning
Intentionally induce process which causes loss of consciousness and sensibility without pain
Slaughtering
Killing of animals intended for human consumption
What are the aims of stunning
Kill humanely
Obtain the max amount of blood from the animal= increases keeping quality
Health and safety
What is simple stunning?
Stun an animal unconscious but do not instantly kill it
A procedure to kill the animal must be followed before it recovers conciousness
What is CoC
Certificate of competence - licence of slaugtermen
What are the requirements for slaughtermen to reach the CoC?
handle animals;
stun animals;
pith animals;
restrain animals;
shackle animals;
hoist animals;
bleed live animals;
check stunning has worked;
check pithing has worked.
What are the stunning methods?
Captive bold
Electronarcosis
Gas
What regulation covers the slaughter methods?
Reg EC 1099/2009 & WATOK
What are the types of captive bolts?
Penetrative
Non penetrative - for simple stunning of ruminants under 10kg
What are the physiological effects of a captive bolt pistol?
Heavy blow= acceleration of head= brain impact
Damages N and BV
Massive rise then fall of pressure
Disruption of normal electrical activity
Duration depends on severity of damage
What are the signs of an effective stun?
Collapse
No rhythmic breathing
Fixed glazed expression
No corneal reflex
Relaxed jaw
Tongue hanging out
What are the phases of an effective stun?
Tonic phase
Clonic phase
Relaxation
What occurs in the tonic phase of stunning?
Animal collapses
Stops breathing
Becomes rigid
Head extended and hind legs flexed
Forelegs gradually straighten out
What occurs in the clonic phase of stunning?
Involuntary kicking
What occurs in the relaxation phase of stunning?
Walking/padding movements
Where should the captive bolt gun enter the brain?
cerebrum
What are the properties of electrical stunning?
Low voltage system = 7sec application
High voltage system= 3 sec application
When is electrical stunning reversible?
When the voltage is head only
When is electrical stunning irreversible?
Head to body because it causes a cardiac arrest
The body is never electrically stunned alone
Calculation of the intensity of the current for electrical stunning?
Intensity of the current (amps)=Strength or Voltage(v)/Resistance (Ohms)
Or V=IR (Ohms’law)
What would be seen in an epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
Unconscious and insensible to pain.
TONIC: rigid, breathing stops, head raised, hind legs flexed.
CLONIC: gradual relaxation, walking/paddling movements, downward rotation of eyes, foaming/urination.
RECOVERY (quiet) - regain consciousness.
NO TONIC = NO STUN
What is the standard timing for pigs, sheep and goats phases of epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
Tonic= 10-20 secs
Clonic= 15-45 secs
recovery= 30-60 secs
What is the standard timing for cattle phases of epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
tonic= 5-20 secs
clonic= 10-60 secs
recovery= 40-70 secs
What is the standard timing for calves phases of epileptic fit following electrical stunning?
Tonic = 8-14 secs
clonic= 8-28 secs
recovery= 40-70
How is gas stunning carried out?
Carbon dioxide at high conc
Carbon dioxide mixed with inert gases
Inert gases alone
When is gas stunning used in the UK?
Method of killing pigs and poultry in the UK
What is the minimum Co2 conc for gas stunning using CO2 alone?
80% CO2
Exposure is required to cause anoxia
The concentration must reach 80% CO2 within the first 30seconds of pigs entering the chamber
What are the requirements for using CO2 and inert gases for stunning?
Pigs must be exposed directly or progressively to a gas mixture containing up to 40% of carbon dioxide mixed with inert gases.
The maximum concentration is 40% carbon dioxide. Direct or progressive exposure of conscious pigs to the gas must lead to anoxia.
What are the requirements for inert gas stunning?
Pigs must be exposed directly or progressively to an inert gas mixture such as argon or nitrogen
Must lead to anoxia
What equipment is required for gas stunning?
Chamber to contain pigs/CO2/air and conveyor system.
Flush with air for staff
Back-up mechanical device.
Monitor animals
Easy access for bleeding
Pigs can stand until unconcious
SPACE for lying down
Lighting
Gas stunners and operators should not harm animals .
What are the signs of an effective stun in pigs?
Recumbent animal - limbs, jaw relaxed.
No voluntary movements or righting reflexes present.
No response to pin prick on nose.
Absence of normal breathing.
What are the advantages of gas stunning?
No excitement.
Completely relaxed: easy bleeding.
Non invasive.
Reduced blood splash.
Reduced Pale Soft Exudative (PSE).
What are the disadvantages of gas stunning?
Very expensive - only used for large throughputs
Welfare doubts:
Acidic gas is pungent to inhale at > 40%.
Potent respiratory stimulant: breathlessness.
Not instantaneous.
How is bleeding carried out?
During the tonic phase
Neck cut = carotids and jugulars (small ruminants).
Thoracic stick = ascending aorta (cattle and pigs).
What factors affect bleeding?
Health of animals.
Rest prior to slaughter (muscle tone).
Back bleeding into thoracic cavity.
What is the cause of blood splashing in bleeding?
normally capillary rupture
-Could be related to increase in blood pressure
-electrical stunning (more common)
-stress, diet, physiological or genetic factors
What are the 2 methods of scalding?
Vertical
Tank
What is the role of singing in pigs and why is it carried out?
Eliminate the remaining hair on the surface of the carcase.
1.000ºC.
Step added in the process in regard of meat quality, however it also improves food safety.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of polishing pigs?
Improve quality.
Eliminate burned hair and superficial epidermis.
Excessive force could produce some minor damage in carcase.
Increase contamination.
What is the role of the EU health mark?
shows that the food has been produced to the current standards of hygienic food production in licensed premises and allow food to be traced back to those premises.
What information does the EU health mark carry?
Country
Producer
European community
Who provides third country approval of meat products?
The European Commission’s Directorate-General (DG) for Health and Food Safety: Directorate ‘Health and Food Audits and Analysis
APHA
Animal and plant health agency
ASF
African swine fever
AV
Authorised veterinarian
CSF
Classical swine fever
DIL
Dead in the lairage
DOA
Dead on arrival
FIP
Further inspection procedures
LA
Local authority
hc
Human consumption
H1
Hygeine package
EU legislation 852/2004
H2
Hygiene package
EU legislation 853/2004
MHI
meat hygiene inspector
ND
notifiable disease
VIP
Visual inspection procedures
Why is antemortem important?
Human health - zoonosis and veterinary residues
What is antemortem inspecting?
Animal health (fitness for slaughter and welfare)
Fitness for human consumption
ND surveillance
What law surrounds antemortem
EU legislation 853/2004 (FBO)
Regulation 2017/625, 2019/624 (FSA requirments)
What is the role of the food business operator?
Ensures all animals are presented to the OV
Health status
Identification
What are the requirments for animals accepted into the slaughter house?
Identified
Doccumented
not come from areas under disease control
Clean and healthy
Welfare correct
Can animals be moved from the farm back to the slaughterhouse?
APHA may approve movement of cattle nad sheep in EC
Pigs cannot be moved back to the farm
What is category 1 for antemortem? (Cattle)
dry
Clean
Very minor amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
What us category 2 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Dry/damp
Light contamination with dung/dirt
Small amounts of loosley adherent beddding
What is category 3 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Will be rejected for slaughter unless exceptional circumstances
Dry/damp
Significant contamination with dirt
Significatnt bedding/ straw adhered
What is category 4 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Will be rejected for slaughter unless exceptional circumstances
Dry/damp
heavily contaminated with dirt
Significant bedding
what is category 5 for antemortem? (Cattle)
Will be rejected for slaughter
Very wet
Very heavily contaminated with dirt
A lot of bedding adherent to the coat
What is category 1 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Accepted for slaughter
Clean
Very minor adherent bedding
What is category 2 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Sheep in this category will be accepted for slaughter without any special treatment Dry/damp.
Light contamination with dirt/dung.
Small amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding.
What is category 3 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Sheep in this category will be rejected for slaughter except in circumstances which are exceptional, e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons.
Dry/damp
Significant contamination with dirt/dung and/or
Significant amounts of adherent straw/bedding.
What is category 4 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Rejected for slaughter except in circumstances which are exceptional, e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons.
Dry/damp.
Heavily contaminated with dirt/dung.
Significant amounts of adherent bedding.
What is category 5 for antemortem? (Sheep)
Sheep in this category will be rejected for slaughter.
Very wet.
Very heavily contaminated with dirt/dung.
A lot of bedding adherent to the coat.
What are the most prevalent cattle notifiable diseases in the UK at the moment?
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Foot and mouth disease
Tuberculosis (Bovine TB)
What are the clinical signs of anthrax?
Sudden death
High fever
Muscle tremours
Unclotted blood from body openings
No rigor mortis
What are the clinical signs of for foot and mouth disease and swine vesicular disease?
Highly contagious
All cloven hoofed animals for FMD and SVD for pids
Pyrexia
Lameness
Myocarditis
Vesicles and erosions in mouth feet, teats and nose
How does ASF and CSF appear on antemortem?
High mortality high fever
loss of appetite
Haemorrhages in the skin and internal organs
What are the clinical signs in antemortem for BSE - ND?
Changes in gait (hind ataxia) and behaviour and hyper reactivity to stimuli
Once the symptoms appear the disease is always progressive and fatal
How does scrapie appear on antemortem?
Progressive weight loss (but not loss of appetite)
Ataxia
Fine head tremors
Cutaneous hypersensitivity and pruritis
What might neurological signs be a sign of in antemortem
Listeria monocytogenes
Coenurus cerebralis
Vestibular disease
Louping III
How will bluetongue appear on antemortem?
Eye and nasal discharges
Drooling as a result of ulcerations in the mouth.
Fever.
Swelling of the mouth, head and neck.
Lameness.
Haemorrhages into or under the skin.
Inflammation (coronary band).
Mortality may reach 70%.
A bluetongue is rarely a clinical sign of infection
How will brucellosis appear on antemortem?
B.melitensis,B.abortus (sheep and goats,cattle),B.ovis (sheep) B.suis (pigs, not ND)
Zoonosis (Occupational disease)
Abortion/ Orchitis and/orEpididymitis
Where is psoroptes ovis prevalent?
Sheep scab prevalent in scotland only
What can be seen in the image?
Contagious pustular dermatitis (CPD)/ orf/ ecthyma contagiousum
What can be seen in the image?
papillomatosis
What can be seen in the image?
Emaciation and poor condition
What are the VIPs and FIPs looking for in pig contamination?
Mastitis (if associated with general signs)
Moribund/ recumbent
Orchitis (marked to consider Brucella, occupational zoonosis)
Suspect emaciation, poor condition
Suspect fever
Slaughtered in lairage
Gathering of evidence for enforcement purposes (welfare breach suspect)
What welfare concerns can be identified in antemortem?
Lameness
Prolapse
Pregnancy
trauma
Transport
What is the role of post mortem inspection?
Supplement antemortem
Detect diseases, residues and contaminents
Contamination
Unfit for human consumption
animal welfare
What are the legislations for post mortem inspection?
2017/625 and 2019/627
Purpose, procedures and decisions
H2 : Regulation (EC) 853/2004
FBO standards
Who is responsible for post mortem inspection?
Meat Hygiene Inspector (MHI)
Official Veterinarian (OV)
- Emergency slaughter
- Unusual conditions
What are the areas of inspection for post mortem?
Head
Offal
carcase
How is post mortem inspection carried out?
Take into account ante-mortem inspection results;
View all external surfaces;
Pay particular attention to the detection of zoonotic and notifiable diseases;
Take into account FCI;
Take place without delay after slaughter;
Include carcases and accompanying offal.
How is post mortem inspection carried out for pigs?
VIP id normal at antemortem
FIP if marked at antemortem or PM
What may have a pig marked at antemortem or post mortem?
Multiple abscesses
Enlarged Lymph nodes (suspect TB)
Anaemia
Badly bled
Contamination with gut content
Emaciation
Oedema
Erysipelas
Generalised TB
Tumours
Melanosis
Jaundice
What are the possible outcomes for post mortem inspection?
pass the meat as fit for human consumption;
declare the meat unfit for human consumption;
detain the meat for further examination
What would be the outcome for meat marked with Taenia saginata- cysticercus bovis?
Generalised: Total condemnation
Localised: Partial plus freezing
How is the lymphatic system assessed?
Assessed for lesions
In cattle TB like lesions
What is the protocol for Bovine tuberculosis suspicions?
If bTB is suspected in the carcase of any bovine, deer or farmed mammal, APHA must be notified immediately.
In addition to the normal inspection procedures, the prescapular and superficial inguinal lymph node must be inspected.
What is the appearance of TB lesions?
Cream/yellow, granulomatous caseoys/ calcified/ purulent material in retropharyngeal l.n , lunds, bronchial and mediastinal l.n
What can be seen in the image?
TB lesions in the chest cavity
What can be seen in the image?
Hypertrophy of the mesenteric l.n
What can be seen in the image?
Common TB lesions in the mesenteric lymph nodes
What can be seen in the image?
Actinomycosis (lumpy jaw caused by actynomices bovis)
What can be seen in the image?
Wooden tongue caused by Actinobacillosis
What is is being inspected on the heart in post mortem>
Pericarditis
Endocarditis
Disease
What can be seen in the heart?
C.ovis
What can be seen in the image
C. bovis (T. Saginata)
What can be seen in the image?
C. cellulosae
(T. solium)
What is the appearance of the swine lungs on PM?
: 2-3 left lobes, 3-4 right lobes, marked surface lobulation, accessory bronchus to right lobe, weight 300-400gr
What is the appearance of the ovine lungs on PM?
Indistinct lobulation ( left 3, right 4), weight 400-
What is the appearance of the swine heart on PM?
Fat is soft and greasy due to presence of olein, 2 ventricular farrows, weight 250-400gr
What is the appearance of the bovine heart on PM?
Fat is crispy due to stearin, 2 bones at aortic origin, 3 ventricular furrows. Weight ~2kg in adults
What is the appearance of the ovine heart on PM?
Fat is crispy due to stearin, 2 bones present at aortic origin in older animals, 3 ventricular furrows, weight 100-150gr
What is the appearance of the bovine lungs on PM?
left 3 lobes, right 4 lobes, 3 main bronchi, long trachea (50-55 cartilage rings), distinct lobulation, weight 2,5-3,5kg in adults
What is being assessed of the lungs in PM?
Pneumonia
Pleurisy
Lungworm
Abscesses
What is the appearance of the swine liver on PM?
:5 lobes, clearly demarcated polyhedral lobules with interlobular connective tissue, Moroccan leather surface texture, teardrop shaped gall bladder, weight 1-2kg
What is the appearance of the bovine liver on PM?
3 lobes( left, right, caudate), renal impression at the base of caudate lobe, hepatic lymph nodes surround portal opening, pear shaped gall bladder, weight 5.5-6.5kg in adults
What is the appearance of the ovine liver on PM?
3 lobes, cigar shaped gall bladder
What pathology may be seen in the swine liver on PM inspection?
Milk spot(A.suum) (c.tenuicollis, Fasciola hepatica, hydatid cyst, abscesses)
What pathology may be seen in cattle and sheep liver on PM inspection?
Abscesses, Fasciola, Cysticercus tenuicollis, Hydatid cysts
What can be seen in the image?
Bacterial/ parasitic necrosis
What can be seen in the image?
bTB
What can be seen in the image?
C. tenuicollis
What is hydatidosis?
Echinococcus granulosus
Cyst found in lungs, liver etc of all species
What parasite can be seen in the image?
Echinococcus granulosus
What can be seen in the image?
Hydatidosis
What can be seen in the image?
Hydatidic cyst in the lung
What is the control program for hydatidosis?
Educate public.
Treat dogs (praziquantel).
Control access by dog to offal.
Good meat inspection => condemn offal
What causes distomatosis?
Fasciola hepatica
(Liver rejection?
What can be seen in the image?
Distomatosis
What causes milk spot?
Ascaris suum
pigs ascariasis
What is the appearance of swine kidneys on PM?
Bean shaped, flattened and elongated , 10+ renal papillaw, renal pelvis
weight 80-200gr
What is the appearance of bovine kidney on PM?
right help tight to the body, left loose, reddish brown, 15-20 lobules, weight 275-350gr
What is the appearance of the ovine kidney on PM?
right held tight to the body, left loose, reddish brown, weight 60-90gr
What pathology is being inspected on the kidneys for PM inspection?
Congenital cysts
Nephritis/pyelonephritis/nephrosis/ hydronephrosis
ND: ASF/CSF
How does the swine spleen appear on PM?
Tongue/strap shaped, omentum attached to longitudinal ridge, weight 200-250gr.
How does the bovine spleen appear on PM?
: Flat and oval in outline, bluish/red, attached to rumen, weight 1-1.5kg in adults.
How does the ovine spleen appear on PM?
Flat and oval-triangular,
attached to rumen, weight 50-100gr
What spleen conditions can be recognised on PM?
TB lesions: granular nodules
Abscesses
haemorrhage, hydatid cyst…
What can be the causes for green offal?
Enteritis
Tuberculosis
peritonitis
What is EBL and what is the protocol?
Enzootic bovine leukosis (tumour in cattle)
Contact APHA
What are common conditions of the carcase?
Arthritis
Skin lesions
Contamination
What is the protocol for arthritis findings on PM?
Non septic mild case- pass
Non septic severe- reject joint check organs
Septic or purulent- reject on case by case base
What can be seen in the image?
Erysipelas
What will cause full carcase condemnation?
Emaciation
Jaundice
Fevered (Septicaemia
/Toxaemia)
DOA, DIL, Unborn
Or under 7 days
Generalised Oedema
Pyemia
Abnormal odours (uraemia, acetonemia)
No ante-mortem
What are the signs of emaciation on PM?
Carcase - shrunken, muscles pale/wet, prominent connective tissue.
Fat scarce/soft/slimy/gelatinous.
Lymph nodes enlarged/watery
What are the signs of jaundic on PM?
Yellow discoloration of the carcase tissues.
Origin: Pre-hepatic (Haemolysis due to leptospirosis or babesiosis, Hepatic (toxicity due to ragwort)or Post-hepatic (parasites, calculi, tumours)
Yellow fatted vs Icterus
What can be seen in the image?
Jaundice
What can be seen in the image?
Septicaemia - poorly bled carcase
Protocols on road kill?
Road kills are not allowed to enter human food chain
Not fit for human consumption
Animal health status unknown
Only animals killed as a result of hunting activity are considered fit for human consumption
What can be seen in the image
Melanosis
What can be seen in the image?
Caseous lymphadenitis
Zoonotic
How can welfare issues be identified via PM?
Which species are affected by trichinella?
Breeding domestic swine: Boars and sows
Wild boars (farmed or truly wild) any age
Solipeds (any age)
Swine bred under uncontrolled housing conditions (as per FCI)
What is the protocol for trichinella infection in meat industry
Freezing possible (but uncommon) in domestic pigs only (not solipeds or wild boar)
Carcases ( and any part containing striated muscle) remain under official control until results obtained.
How can trichinella be detected?
Sampling:
Diaphragm, tongue, masseter muscle, foreleg (wild boar only)
Trichinelloscopy (Pressure method)
Digestion ( HCL + Pepsin)
Who carries out health marking?
OV
MHI
FBO
What can be seen in the image?
Pyelonephritis
What can be seen in the image?
Actinomycosis
What can be seen in the image?
Actinobacillosis
What can be seen in the image?
Bovine tuberculosis
What can be seen in the image?
Bovine tuberculosis
What can be seen in the image?
Pericarditis
What can be seen in the image?
Bovine leucosis
What can be seen in the image?
Caseous lymphadenitis
What can be seen in the image?
Fasciola hepatica
What can be seen in the image?
Muellerius capillaris
What can be seen in the image?
Arthritis
What are the major food chain hazards?
Bacterial contamination at farm or cross cont within processing plants
Chemical contamination (deliberate illegal adulteration)
What are the 8 pillars of food integrity?
Consumers first
zero tolerance
Intelligent gathering
Laboratory services
Government support
Leadership
Crisis management
What hazards can the farm have?
prevalence of pathogens affects healthy animals
Rising prevalence of pathogens
Intensively managed flocks/ herds
What hazards can the processor have?
ante and post mortem testing
Hygiene and controls
failure of controls, complex supply chains
fraudulent behaviour
What hazards can the consumer have?
Hygiene and cooking
Storage, sourcing best products
poor hygiene and provenance
What are the control points for farm hazards?
Farm assurance to reduce risk of hazards
Inspection and audit
What are the control points for processing hazards?
Testing
Inspection
HACCP
What are the control points for consumer hazards?
Education
Who sets the minimum standard for farm assurance>
Red tractor farm assured standard
What is the role of the red tractor farm assured standard?
Standards updated regularly and farms are assessed every 12-18 months
Standards of farm assurance are set for farmers
Which food chain can be seen in the image?
Beef food chain farm to abbatoir
Which food chain can be seen in the image?
Beef food chain abattoir to consumer
Which food chain can be seen in the image?
Dairy food chain
What influence does the supermarket have on farm assurance?
Supermarket predominance has driven direct contracts with farmers to individual supermarkets with their own set of standards/ farm assurance
What are LISA food chain and control points?
LISA – (Longitudinal Integrated Food Assurance) has become the norm where all elements of the supply chain have responsibilities to reduce risks
Historically often there was an over reliance on “ end point testing”
What is the original dairy farm assurance plan?
Set up post BSE to provide a uniform standard
Problem was that most farms had to pass!
Farms are assessed and given non compliances
90 days to rectify
Health Plan is one part of the process
Vets are encouraged to engage in creating health plan annually
Now superceded by Red Tractor as an all encompassing farm assurance plan
What does HACCP stand for, and what is its primary purpose in the food industry?
HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points. Its primary purpose is to identify, evaluate, and control significant hazards related to food safety.
Describe the relationship between Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP), Good Hygienic Practices (GHP), and HACCP.
GMP and GHP are essential prerequisite programs that form the foundation for an effective HACCP system. They ensure the environment, processes, and personnel adhere to necessary hygiene and manufacturing standards, providing a platform for HACCP implementation.
What is the significance of Codex Alimentarius in food safety regulation?
Codex Alimentarius, established by FAO and WHO, provides international standards and guidelines on food safety, covering areas such as food hygiene, additives, contaminants, labeling, and inspection, to promote safe food practices globally.
Explain the need for HACCP in comparison to traditional food inspection systems.
HACCP, a risk-based approach, aims to proactively prevent food contamination by identifying critical control points. In contrast, traditional systems rely on end-product testing and are reactive, often unable to prevent contamination effectively.
What is the Stable to Table risk-based approach in food safety?
It emphasizes that agents causing food poisoning accompany food from its origin (stable) until it reaches the consumer’s table, stressing the importance of ensuring food safety throughout the entire production and distribution chain.
Enumerate the steps involved in implementing HACCP.
Conducting a hazard analysis.
Determining critical control points (CCPs).
Establishing critical limits.
Implementing monitoring procedures.
Establishing corrective actions.
Verifying the system.
Documenting and record-keeping.
What aspects are covered in the Control of Operation within the HACCP framework?
It involves ensuring the safe production of food, controlling hazards, describing products and processes, and maintaining key aspects of Good Hygienic Practices (GHPs), including water quality, documentation, and recall procedures.
Discuss the importance of personal hygiene in food safety.
Personal hygiene is crucial in preventing food contamination. Adequate cleanliness, appropriate behavior, and health monitoring of individuals involved in food handling are vital to ensure food safety.
What are the key elements involved in a maintenance and sanitation program within a food processing plant?
A maintenance and sanitation program involves regular inspection, cleaning schedules, pest control, and proper documentation to ensure effective control of food hazards and contamination sources.
: How does transportation play a role in maintaining food safety standards?
Transportation measures aim to prevent food contamination, damage, and the growth of pathogens during transit, ensuring that food reaches its destination in a condition suitable for consumption.
What are the primary goals of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)?
The primary goals of HACCP are to identify, evaluate, and control significant hazards related to food safety throughout the food production process.
Explain the importance of conducting a hazard analysis in HACCP implementation.
Conducting a hazard analysis involves identifying and assessing potential biological, chemical, or physical hazards in food production to determine the critical control points necessary for effective risk management.
Define Critical Control Points (CCPs) and their role in the HACCP system.
CCPs are specific points in the food production process where control can be applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce potential hazards to acceptable levels. They are crucial in maintaining food safety.
Describe the significance of setting critical limits in HACCP.
Critical limits are established criteria or boundaries that must be met at each critical control point to ensure food safety. They act as guidelines for acceptable parameters at each stage of food production.
Discuss the importance of monitoring procedures within the HACCP framework.
Monitoring procedures involve scheduled observations or measurements to ensure that critical control points are under control. Regular monitoring helps identify deviations and enables timely corrective actions.
What role does verification play in the HACCP system?
Verification involves confirming that the HACCP plan is effectively implemented and ensures that control measures are working as intended. It includes reviewing records, conducting audits, and validating procedures.
Explain the significance of documentation and record-keeping in HACCP.
Documentation provides a written record of HACCP procedures, including hazard analysis, CCPs, critical limits, monitoring results, corrective actions, and verification activities. Proper record-keeping is essential for compliance and traceability.
How does the concept of Corrective Actions apply in HACCP?
Corrective actions involve procedures implemented when monitoring indicates that a critical limit has not been met. These actions aim to identify the cause of deviation and restore control at critical points.
Discuss the role of employee training in successful HACCP implementation.
Employee training ensures that personnel are aware of and proficient in implementing HACCP principles. Properly trained staff are crucial for maintaining food safety standards.
What is the importance of continuous improvement and review in the HACCP system?
Continuous improvement involves regularly reviewing and updating the HACCP plan to adapt to changes in processes, technologies, or regulations, ensuring ongoing effectiveness in managing food safety hazards.
What is a HACCP plan?
A HACCP plan is a formal document outlining critical food safety management details for a product or process. It includes a process flow diagram, HACCP control chart, supporting documentation, and other relevant details like team information and product specifics.
What are the preliminary steps necessary before implementing a HACCP plan?
The preliminary steps include assembling the HACCP team, describing the food and its distribution, outlining the intended use and consumers of the food, developing a process flow diagram, and verifying the accuracy of the flow diagram on-site.
What are Critical Control Points (CCPs) in a HACCP plan?
CCPs are locations, steps, or procedures where control can be applied to prevent, eliminate, or reduce biological, chemical, or physical hazards to acceptable levels. Loss of control at a CCP could result in an unacceptable risk to the consumer or product.
Explain the steps involved in establishing Critical Control Points (CCPs) in HACCP.
Establishing CCPs involves identifying significant hazards, determining actions to reduce these hazards, utilizing decision trees, and setting specific measures to prevent or eliminate these hazards to ensure food safety.
What are Critical Limits in HACCP?
Critical Limits are values that separate acceptability from unacceptability in a HACCP plan. They must be measurable criteria for each preventative measure at a Critical Control Point (CCP) and ensure the process is under control.
What are the key elements of Monitoring Procedures in HACCP?
Monitoring involves planned measurements or observations at Critical Control Points to ensure that Critical Limits are continuously achieved. It involves methods, frequency, and written records for verification purposes.
Explain the significance of Corrective Actions in HACCP.
Corrective Actions aim to prevent and address deviations from Critical Limits. They involve adjusting processes, determining the cause of non-compliance, and determining the disposition of non-compliant products.
What is the purpose of Validation and Verification in a HACCP plan?
Validation ensures the HACCP plan is scientifically sound, while Verification ensures the plan is working correctly. It involves ongoing monitoring, reassessment, and assessment of the process area.
Why is Documentation and Record Keeping important in HACCP?
Efficient and accurate record-keeping is essential for HACCP implementation. It includes maintaining records of HACCP team composition, hazard analysis, CCP determination, monitoring activities, deviations, and verification procedures.
What are the prerequisites for successful HACCP implementation?
Prerequisites include management commitment, general principles of food hygiene, scientific research, validated analytical methods, data on hazard occurrence levels, determination of acceptable levels, and establishment of critical limits.
What are the core principles of HACCP?
The seven principles of HACCP are: Conduct Hazard Analysis, Identify Critical Control Points (CCPs), Establish Critical Limits, Implement Monitoring Procedures, Establish Corrective Actions, Verify Procedures, and Maintain Documentation.
: How does HACCP differ from traditional food safety management systems?
HACCP focuses on preventing hazards rather than relying solely on end-product testing, emphasizing proactive measures at critical stages of food production to ensure safety.
What are the benefits of implementing HACCP in a food processing facility?
Benefits include a preventive system, increased confidence in food safety, effective resource use, cost-effective control systems, international acceptance, and strengthened quality management.
What challenges might organizations face when implementing HACCP?
Common challenges include inadequate knowledge or training, limited resources, lack of management commitment, and the need for substantial investment and planning.
What is the significance of conducting a hazard analysis in HACCP?
Hazard analysis involves identifying and evaluating biological, chemical, and physical hazards in the food production process to determine where control measures are required.
How does HACCP ensure continual improvement and effectiveness?
HACCP emphasizes ongoing validation, verification, documentation, and management review to ensure the system remains effective and responsive to changes in hazards or processes.
What is the role of management in the successful implementation of HACCP?
Management must demonstrate commitment by providing resources, setting policies, conducting periodic reviews, and ensuring compliance with food safety standards and regulations.
What industries commonly utilize HACCP principles apart from food processing?
HACCP principles are also applied in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and other industries where product safety is critical.
What are the current strategies for controlling infectious diseases in veterinary public health?
Control strategies include host susceptibility reduction, transmission reduction via the environment, and pathogen reduction.
Name methods for reducing host susceptibility or increasing resistance against infectious diseases in animals.
Improving host resistance can be achieved through breeding for resistant genotypes (e.g., National Scrapie Plan) and strategic vaccinations.
How can transmission of diseases via the environment be reduced?
Reducing transmission includes restricting host movement, quarantine/isolation, controlling vectors, and implementing biosecurity measures.
What methods are used for pathogen reduction in disease control?
Pathogen reduction methods involve therapeutics (drugs), test-and-removal programs, pre-emptive culling, and stamping out.
Describe the available eradication methods for animal diseases.
Eradication methods include test and removal, pre-emptive culling, blanket culling, and stamping out strategies.
What are the main aims and approaches of an outbreak investigation?
The main aims are to identify the source, transmission, and control measures. Approaches involve observation, analysis, causation determination, and understanding disease ecology.
How multidisciplinary are outbreak investigations, and why?
Outbreak investigations involve various fields like epidemiology, veterinary science, environmental health, and social sciences due to their complex nature and broad impacts.
What is the role of veterinarians in an outbreak investigation?
Veterinarians play crucial roles in identifying animal-related diseases, contributing to disease control strategies, and communicating with relevant authorities during outbreak investigations.
How can disease prevention be achieved by modifying host resistance?
Modifying host resistance involves breeding for resistant genotypes and strategic vaccination programs.
What methods are used to control disease transmission via the environment?
Control methods include restricting host movement, quarantine/isolation, vector control, and implementing biosecurity measures.
Define epidemiology in the context of veterinary science.
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of diseases in animal populations and the application of this study to control health problems.
What are the basic parameters observed and recorded in the context of disease occurrence?
: Basic parameters include morbidity (rate of illness), mortality (rate of death), and the distribution of diseases in a population.
Explain the process of identifying the cause of a disease during an outbreak investigation.
Identifying the cause involves observing, recording, and analyzing patterns of disease occurrence, determining causal principles, and understanding disease ecology.
What is the significance of understanding disease transmission in epidemiology?
Understanding disease transmission helps predict and control disease spread, identify at-risk populations, and implement targeted interventions.
How does epidemiology assess the efficiency of disease control techniques?
Epidemiology evaluates the effectiveness of disease control techniques by analyzing their impact on disease prevalence and incidence rates over time.
Describe syndromic surveillance in epidemiology.
Syndromic surveillance involves collecting and analyzing health-related data to provide early warnings of public health threats, requiring prompt action.
What are the aims of syndromic surveillance systems?
: Syndromic surveillance aims to detect trends indicating higher-than-usual illness levels, enabling timely public health responses to potential health threats.
How does the role of syndromic surveillance apply to veterinary public health?
Syndromic surveillance in veterinary public health aims to identify and monitor trends in animal diseases, facilitating rapid intervention and control measures.
What factors are considered when assessing the effectiveness of disease control measures?
Factors include disease prevalence, intervention impact, economic implications, social impact, and the rate of disease spread.
: Why is communication vital in disease control and epidemiology?
Communication ensures effective coordination among stakeholders, facilitates timely responses, and helps in disseminating crucial information during disease outbreaks.
: What are the primary study designs used in epidemiology?
Epidemiological study designs include observational studies (cohort, case-control) and experimental studies (clinical trials, field trials).
Which statistical measures are crucial in epidemiology for quantifying the relationships between exposures and diseases?
Measures such as risk ratios, odds ratios, and attributable risk help quantify disease frequency, association, and impact in epidemiology.
What is the emphasis of the “One Health” approach in veterinary epidemiology?
The “One Health” approach recognizes the interconnection between human, animal, and environmental health, highlighting the impact of diseases across these domains.
How have technological advancements influenced epidemiological research?
technological advancements like Geographic Information Systems (GIS), molecular epidemiology techniques (DNA fingerprinting, sequencing), and modeling methods have enhanced disease surveillance and outbreak investigations.
What role do Geographic Information Systems (GIS) play in epidemiology?
GIS facilitates the visualization and analysis of spatial data, aiding in mapping disease distributions and identifying patterns of disease spread within populations.
How has molecular epidemiology, such as DNA fingerprinting, contributed to epidemiological studies?
Molecular epidemiology techniques allow for the identification of genetic variations within pathogens, aiding in tracking disease transmission routes and understanding disease dynamics.
What is the significance of modeling methods in epidemiology?
Modeling methods help simulate disease transmission dynamics, predict disease outbreaks, and assess the potential impact of interventions, aiding in decision-making for disease control strategies.
ABP
Animal by product
Define APB
The entire body, part of an animal or a product of animal origin that are not intended for human consumption
How are APBs categorised?
ABPs are categorized into Category 1 (for disposal only), Category 2 (unfit for human or animal consumption), and Category 3 (not for human consumption).
What are the options for processing, use and disposal of APBs?
Options include incineration, pressure sterilization, landfill, fuel combustion, fertilizer use, and use in pet food plants, among others.
What is specified risk material?
SRM refers to parts of animals that pose a risk of infectivity if the animal was infected with a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) disease.
What are some examples of SRM in cattle?
SRM in cattle includes tonsils, the last 4 meters of the small intestine, caecum, mesentery, skull (excluding mandible), spinal cord, and specific parts of the vertebral column.
Why is the removal of SRM essential?
SRM must be removed from both the human and animal food chains and destroyed to prevent potential health risks associated with TSE diseases.
How is Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) monitored in cattle?
BSE monitoring in cattle involves testing cattle for human consumption, fallen stock, emergency slaughter animals, and those found sick during ante mortem inspection.
What legislation lays down rules regarding ABPs and derived products?
Regulation (EC) 1069/2009 lays down health rules regarding animal by-products and derived products not intended for human consumption.
What is the role of the Official Veterinarian (OV) concerning ABPs?
The OV supervises ABP handling, enforces compliance with regulations, and communicates findings related to ABP handling.
Name some animal by-products (ABPs) produced by the meat sector.
ABPs include various parts of slaughtered animals, such as blood, hides, feathers, heads, feet, and intestines.
What percentage of a chicken comprises animal by-products (ABPs)?
68%
Explain the difference between Animal By-Products (ABPs) and Edible Co-products.
Edible Co-products are intended for human consumption before further processing, such as fats, stomachs, bladders, intestines, and gelatine.
What regulations govern the handling and disposal of animal by-products?
The handling and disposal of ABPs are regulated by various legislations, including Regulation (EC) 1069/2009, (EC) 142/2011, and several others.
What are the different categories of ABPs, and what do they signify?
Category 1: For disposal only (highest risk, includes SRM). Category 2: Unfit for human or animal consumption. Category 3: Not for human consumption.
Provide examples of Category 2 ABPs.
Examples include sludge from wastewater, residues of veterinary drugs, material not compliant with EU veterinary requirements, among other
How are Category 3 ABPs defined?
Category 3 ABPs are fit but not intended for human consumption, including parts like poultry heads, feathers, pig bristles, hides, horns, and certain blood components.
: What are the disposal routes for Category 1 ABPs?
Category 1 ABPs are disposed of through approved incinerators, pressure sterilization, landfill, and other methods like burial at authorized landfills for international waste.
Explain the different methods of processing for Category 2 and Category 3 ABPs.
Category 2 and 3 ABPs undergo various methods like pressure sterilization, heating at specific temperatures for designated periods, and mixing with formic acid.
What exemptions exist regarding the use of certain ABPs?
Exemptions include the use of ABPs for diagnostic, educational, research purposes, feeding endangered species, zoo animals, reptiles, birds of prey, and in surgical procedures on live farm animals.
How do Food Business Operators (FBOs) play a role in ABP handling?
FBOs are responsible for due diligence in the handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of ABPs according to regulations.
What is the role of the Meat Hygiene Inspector (MHI) concerning ABPs?
MHIs assist in the inspection and handling of ABPs at slaughterhouses, ensuring compliance with hygiene standards and proper identification.
Describe the responsibilities of the Official Veterinarian (OV) in relation to ABPs.
The OV supervises and enforces compliance with ABP regulations, communicates findings, and ensures proper handling and disposal procedures.
How does the Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) relate to ABPs?
HACCP principles are applied in ABP processing facilities to identify and manage potential hazards, ensuring food safety and compliance.
Explain the significance of ante-mortem inspection (AMI) in relation to ABPs
AMI is conducted before slaughter to assess the health status of animals, identifying potential risks that might affect the quality of ABPs.
How does post-mortem inspection (PMI) impact ABP categorization?
PMI helps determine if carcasses and organs are fit for human consumption or are classified as Category 1, 2, or 3 ABPs based on their condition.
Discuss the role of the Food Standards Agency (FSA) in regulating ABPs.
The FSA oversees and enforces regulations regarding ABP handling, ensuring compliance with health and safety standards.
How does ABP handling relate to Notifiable Diseases (NDs)?
ABP handling protocols aim to prevent the spread of NDs by ensuring proper disposal and management of potentially infected animal parts.
Explain the involvement of the Animal and Plant Health Agency (APHA) concerning ABPs.
APHA licenses and audits ABP processing plants, ensuring adherence to regulations and standards set for handling and disposal.
Why is Animal Welfare a consideration in ABP handling?
Proper handling and disposal of ABPs are crucial to maintain animal welfare standards and prevent potential health hazards to both animals and humans.
What are some UK legislations governing the handling of ABPs?
UK legislations include The Animal By-Products (Enforcement) (England) Regulations 2013, The Animal By-Products (Enforcement) (Wales) Regulations 2014, and others to regulate ABP handling
Describe the key provisions of the Animal By-Products (Enforcement) Regulations in England and Wales.
These regulations enforce proper handling, disposal, and transportation of ABPs in England and Wales, ensuring compliance with health and safety standards.
Explain the relevance of Regulation (EC) 1069/2009 in the UK concerning ABPs.
Regulation (EC) 1069/2009 sets health rules for ABPs and derived products not intended for human consumption, influencing UK legislation on ABP handling.
How do the Food Standards Agency (FSA) and the Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs (DEFRA) contribute to ABP regulation?
FSA and DEFRA collaborate to oversee and implement regulations, ensuring proper handling and disposal of ABPs across the UK.
Detail the role of local authorities in the UK concerning the transport of ABPs.
Local authorities oversee the transportation of ABPs, ensuring compliance with regulations and proper labeling during transit.
Discuss the legal obligations of Food Business Operators (FBOs) under UK laws regarding ABPs.
FBOs have legal obligations to handle, store, and dispose of ABPs in accordance with UK legislation, maintaining records and ensuring compliance.
Explain the requirements for ABP identification as per UK laws.
ABPs must be appropriately labeled and identified according to their categories (Category 1, 2, or 3) as mandated by UK laws.
What enforcement measures exist within UK abattoirs to ensure ABP compliance?
Within abattoirs, the FSA, Trading Standards, and APHA enforce compliance through verbal and written notices, ensuring adherence to regulations.
How do UK laws ensure traceability in ABP handling?
UK laws mandate proper documentation and traceability of ABPs, ensuring their origin, handling, and disposal can be traced throughout the process.
Discuss the significance of UK laws in preventing food crime related to ABPs.
UK laws aim to prevent food crime by regulating ABP handling, ensuring the integrity of the food chain and preventing fraudulent activities related to ABPs.
What percentage of a chicken constitutes as an ABP?
Approximately 68% of a chicken is classified as an ABP.
What percentage of a pig constitutes as an ABP?
62%
What percentage of a bovine constitutes as an ABP?
54%
What percentage of a sheep or goat constitutes as an ABP?
52%
How much meat from slaughtered animals is classified as ABP?
Overall, a significant portion of slaughtered animals (chickens, pigs, bovines, sheep/goats) contributes to the ABP category, ranging from 52% to 68% of their total body weight.
What is the potential volume of ABPs produced annually in the UK?
n the UK, millions of tons of ABPs are generated annually due to animal processing across various sectors, posing significant disposal challenges.
What are the economic implications of ABP disposal and handling?
ABP disposal and handling processes incur substantial costs for industries and regulatory bodies due to the volume and specialized treatment required for these materials.
