VET404 Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Grey matter

A

Aggregations of neuronal cell bodies that either belong to the CNS (referred to either nuclei or cortices) or the PNS (referred to as ganglia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

White matter

A

Myelinated axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ganglion vs. Nucleus

A

A ganglion is an aggregation of neuronal cell bodies outside of the brain or the spinal cord i.e. outside of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ganglion

A

An aggregation of neuronal cell bodies outside of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basic schematic of sensory perception and the reflex/response it would elicit

A

Sensory information passes through a ganglion before reaching the CNS. After reaching the CNS, the information is directed to one of two locations - the cerebral cortex for response/reaction generation and the spinal cord for a reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neuron

A

The basic neural cell that aids in the transmission of information via chemical signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bipolar Neuron

A

A neuron with 2 processes that arise from opposite poles of the cell body - one being the axon, and the other being the dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pseudo-unipolar Neuron

A

A neuron with one long axis that stretches into the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Multipolar Neuron

A

The most common cell form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interneurons

A

Interneurons connect neurons to other neurons within the brain and spinal cord, while maintaining the same direction of chemical synapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Synaptic Convergence

A

When many presynaptic neurons all synapse onto the same postsynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Synaptic Divergence

A

When a single presynaptic neuron synapses onto several postsynaptic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nucleus

A

A collection of cell bodies within the CNS, typically organized around a shared function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The 3 types of cerebral white matter

A

Association fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Association fibers

A

These fibers connect short areas between gyri ipsilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Projection fibers

A

These fibers project to/from the thalamus and cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Commissural fibers

A

These fibers cross from one side of the cerebrum to the other, also known as decussation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Cerebrum

A

Includes the cerebral hemispheres + the basal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The 5 Parts of the Brainstem

A

Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Midbrain, Pons, and Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is Voluntary Movement accomplished?

A

Initiated by the cerebrum and executed by the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Basal Nuclei

A

Involved in the “programming of movements”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dysfunction of the Basal Nuclei

A

Common manifestations:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clinical example of basal nuclei dysfunction

A

Yellow starthistle poisoning in horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The Cerebellum

A

Coordinates all subsystems involved in movement and posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clinical signs of cerebellar disease

A

Will not cause paresis and paralysis (Why?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clinical example of cerebellar disease

A

Panleukopenia virus in kittens disrupts cerebellum development, leading to hypermetria, incoordination, head tremors, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The normal functions of the Cerebrum

A

The seat of consciousness –> personality, memory, cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lobes of the Cerebrum

A

The Frontal Lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dysfunction of the Cerebrum

A

Disturbances in consciousness –> hyperreactive or obtunded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Olfactory Nerve (CN I) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Afferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Olfactory Nerve (CN I) - Function

A

Allows for the sensation of smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Olfactory Nerve (CN I) - Dysfunction

A

Something that disrupts the nasal cavity, like a nasal adenocarcinoma, will impair the ability to smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Optic Nerve (CN II) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Afferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Optic Nerve (CN II) - Function

A

Conveys visual information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Efferent with motor and parasympathetic components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Occulomotor Nerve (CN III) - Function

A

Innervates the dorsal, ventral, medial rectus muscles, the ventral oblique muscle, and the levator palpebrae muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Function of the dorsal, medial, ventral, and lateral rectus muscles

A

They move the globe up, in, down, and out respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Function of the dorsal and ventral oblique muscles

A

They rotate the globe clockwise and counterclockwise respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Function of the levator palpebrae muscle

A

It raises the eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oculomotor Nerve (CN III) - Dysfunction

A

When the efferent component of CN III fails, the eye will rotate down and out (strabismus) - the medial rectus muscle no longer works and the lateral rectus muscle dominates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Trochlear Nerve (CN IV) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Efferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Trochlear Nerve (CN IV) - Function

A

Innervates the contralateral dorsal oblique muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Trochlear Nerve (CN IV) - Dysfunction

A

Manifests as eyes with dorsal aspects that have rotated laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Mixed - sensory and efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) - Names of the branches

A

Ophthalmic branch - passes through the orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) - Ophthalmic Branch Function

A

Afferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) - Maxillary Branch Function

A

Afferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) - Mandibular branch

A

Afferent and efferent functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) - Dysfunction

A

Since CN V’s ophthalmic branch innervates the cornea, dysfunction results in corneal inflammation or ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Abducens Nerve (CN VI) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Efferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Abducens Nerve (CN VI) - Function

A

Innervates the lateral rectus and retractor bulbi muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Abducens Nerve (CN VI) - Dysfunction

A

Dysfunction results in medial strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Facial Nerve (CN VII) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Mixed with afferent, efferent, and parasympathetic components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Facial Nerve (CN VII) - Function

A

As a minor function, provides taste from the rostral 2/3 of the tongue and the palates and sensation from a small part of the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Facial Nerve (CN VII) - Dysfunction

A

A deficit manifests as facial asymmetry or facial droopiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Vestibuocochlear Nerve (CN VIII) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Afferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII) - Function

A

The cochlear component is involved with hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Mixed with afferent, efferent and parasympathetic functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX) - Function

A

The afferent component receives input from the upper pharynx and caudal 1/3 of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Vagus Nerve (CN X) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Mixed, with afferent, efferent, and parasympathetic components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Vagus Nerve (CN X) - Function

A

The afferent component carries sensory information from the pharynx, the back of the ear, the external meatus, and some taste from the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Accessory Nerve (CN XI) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Efferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Accessory Nerve (CN XI) - Function

A

Carries motor function to the muscles of the larynx, esophagus, and muscles of the neck region e.g. the trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII) - Afferent, Efferent, or Mixed?

A

Efferent only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII) - Function

A

Innervates the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII) - Dysfunction

A

A deficit results in paralysis/paresis or atrophy of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

General schematic of a basic reflex arc

A

A sensory afferent synapses onto a lower efferent neuron to elicit a muscular response. A reflex is regulated by the spinal cord and requires no higher-up processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Upper Motor Neuron

A

UMN start in the cerebrum or brainstem and synapse onto lower motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Lower Motor Neurons

A

LMN start in the spinal cord and synapse onto muscles or glands in the periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Upper Motor Neuron Dysfunction

A

Increased segmental/limb reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Lower Motor Neuron Dysfunction

A

Decreased segmental reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Where is the Cervical Segment along the spinal cord?

A

C1-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where are the nerves that contribute to the brachial plexus and innervate the thoracic limb along the spinal cord?

A

C6-T2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where is the Thoracolumbar Segment along the spinal cord?

A

T3-L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where are nerves that contribute to the lumbosacral plexus and innervate the pelvic limb along the spinal cord?

A

L4-S3/caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

If there was a lesion in the region of C1-5, what type of neurological deficiencies do we expect in the thoracic and pelvic limbs?

A

UMN deficiencies in both thoracic and pelvic limbs (increased segmental reflexes; increased muscle tone; disuse atrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

If there was a lesion in the region of C6-T2/cervical intumescence, what type of neurological deficiencies do we expect in the thoracic and pelvic limbs?

A

LMN deficiencies in the thoracic limb (decreased segmental reflexes; decreased muscle tone; denervation atrophy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

If there was a lesion in the region of T3-L3, what type of neurological deficiencies do we expect in the thoracic and pelvic limbs?

A

The thoracic limbs should be normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

If there was a lesion in the region of L4-S3, what type of neurological deficiencies do we expect in the thoracic and pelvic limbs?

A

The thoracic limbs should be normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The first step of a neurological exam is a visual appraisal. What do you look at?

A

Mentation & Gait/Posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Patient Mentation

A

How the patient interacts with their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Patient Posture

A

The positioning of the patient’s head, limb, and body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Patient Gait

A

The quality and quantity of movement

84
Q

Opisthotonos

A

Abnormal posture where the head and neck are hyper-extended with extensor rigidity in the thoracic limbs

85
Q

Decereberate Posture

A

without cerebrum

86
Q

Decerebellate Posture

A

without cerebellum

87
Q

Schiff-Sherrington Posture

A

Opisthonos is observed, with the lesion is localized to T3-L5

88
Q

Evaluation of CN: CN I

A

Not done often because a complete lack of smell would be required to fail this test

89
Q

Evaluation of CN: Menace

A

Is a response - patient has to observe and recognize the menace gesture before blinking

90
Q

Evalution of CN: Visual Tracking

A

Is a response - patient has to recognize a falling object and follow it with their head/eyes

91
Q

Evaluation of CN: Pupillary Light Reflex

A

Is a reflex - a light is shown in one eye and both of the patient’s pupils should contract

92
Q

Evaluation of CN: Corneal Reflex

A

Is a reflex - directly stimulating the patient’s cornea should make them blink and/or retract their globe

93
Q

Evaluation of CN: Palpebral Reflex

A

Is a reflex - stimulating the lateral and medial canthi of the eye should make the patient blink

94
Q

Evaluation of CN: Physiologic Nystagmus

A

Is a reflex - when moving the patient’s head in all directions, their eyes should rotate too

95
Q

Evaluation of CN: facial symmetry

A

Checking for bilateral muscle symmetry of the face

96
Q

Evaluation of CN: Vibrissae Reflex

A

Is a reflex - stimulating the whiskers should elicit a blink

97
Q

Evaluation of CN: Lip Pinch

A

Is a reflex - pinch the lip and the patient should respond by pulling it back

98
Q

Evaluation of CN: Nasocortical Response

A

Is a response - stimulate the interior of the patient’s nasal cavity and the patient should pull its head away

99
Q

Evaluation of CN: Gag Reflex

A

Is a reflex - stimulate a gag

100
Q

Postural Reaction: Proprioceptive Placing

A

knuckling

101
Q

Postural Reaction: Hopping Reactions

A

Assesses whether the patient is able to perceive their limb position

102
Q

Postural Reaction: Extensor postural thrust

A

By lifting and placing the patient back on the ground on their hind limbs, this test assesses their ability to recognize the ground and place their legs in a weight-bearing position

103
Q

Postural Reaction: Placing Reactions

A

These tests involve moving a patient towards a surface and they should react by reaching out with their front limbs to steady themselves

104
Q

Postural Reaction: Wheelbarrowing

A

Patient’s hind-end is lifted like a wheelbarrow and the patient is walked on their front limbs

105
Q

4 main segmental reflexes of the pelvic limb

A

Patellar Reflex

106
Q

The Patellar Reflex

A

Assesses the femoral nerve

107
Q

The Gastrocnemius Reflex

A

Assesses the sciatic nerve

108
Q

The Flexion/Withdrawal Reflex of the Pelvic Limb

A

Assesses the sciatic nerve

109
Q

The Perineal Reflex

A

Assesses the pudendal nerve

110
Q

3 main segmental reflexes of the thoracic limb

A

Biceps Reflex

111
Q

The Biceps Reflex

A

Assesses the musculocutaneous nerve

112
Q

The Triceps Reflex

A

Assesses the radial nerve

113
Q

The Flexion/Withdrawal Reflex of the Thoracic Limb

A

Assesses the musculocutaneous nerve

114
Q

Cutaneous Trunci Reflex

A

The afferent nerve to the cutaneous trunci muscles are the afferent T3-L3 cutaneous nerves

115
Q

Cutaneous Trunci Reflex Dysfunction

A

An afferent nerve dysfunction would produce no cutaenous trunci reflex

116
Q

Nociception

A

The experience and articulation of pain

117
Q

Why is assessment of nociception important?

A

Physiologically, deep nociception is one of the last neurological functions to be lost (after proprioception, voluntary movement, and superficial nociception) in a paralyzed limb. Thus, lost of deep pain reduces patient prognosis

118
Q

The Three Layers of the Meninges

A

The dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

119
Q

Functions of the Meninges

A

Provides protection from mechanical injury

120
Q

Three layers of the Dura Mater

A

Periosteal dura

121
Q

Two layers of the Arachnoid Mater

A

Arachnoid barrier cells

122
Q

Arachnoid Villi

A

Projections from the arachnoid mater into the sinus system

123
Q

Arachnoid Cisternae

A

Widened portions of the subarachnoid space

124
Q

Dural Reflections

A

The falx cerebrii

125
Q

Types of Hematomas that can occur in the skull

A

Epidural hematoma

126
Q

Epidural Hematoma

A

A hematoma that has formed between the dura mater and the skull without breaking the meninges

127
Q

Subdural Hematoma

A

A hematoma that has formed within the layers of the dura mater

128
Q

Subarachnoid Hematoma

A

A hematoma that has formed in the arachnoid space

129
Q

Intracerebral Hematoma

A

A hematoma that has formed in the parenchyma

130
Q

Meningioma

A

A tumor that arises from the arachnoid mater

131
Q

Meningitis

A

Most commonly a manifestation of secondary infection

132
Q

Meningoencephalitis

A

Meningeal infection secondary to infection of the ears, eyes, or nasal cavity

133
Q

Granulomatous meningoencephalitis

A

A specific form of meningoencephalitis caused by canine distemper virus

134
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A

Fever, neck pain, painful muscle spasms

135
Q

Symptoms of meningoencephalitis

A

Depression, behavioral changes, agitation, blindness, loss of balance and motor control, partial paralysis of the face or limbs, seizures, circling

136
Q

Signs of an abnormal CSF tap

A

low in sugar, high protein, and/or increased cell count

137
Q

Functional differences between Veins and Venous Sinuses

A

Veins can be found inside and out of the brain and are meant to take blood away to systemic circulation

138
Q

Important Sinuses and where do Sinuses drain

A

The superior/dorsal sagittal sinus lies between the two hemispheres and is one of the most prominent sinuses

139
Q

The brain is supplied by which arteries

A

The basilar artery

140
Q

Basilar artery

A

The basilar artery is supplied by the vertebral artery and anterior spinal artery

141
Q

Internal carotid artery

A

The ICA is supplied by the common carotid artery

142
Q

The basilar artery and its association with the spinal cord

A

The BA is a culmination of various arteries that travel up the cervical vertebrae

143
Q

Species variation of the meningeal blood supply - cats and sheep

A

In cats and sheep, the ICA atrophies months after birth, making the Circle of Willis different

144
Q

The Arachnoid Barrier

A

considered on the of the true CNS barriers

145
Q

Ventricles of the brain

A

2 lateral ventricles (one in each hemisphere)

146
Q

Choroid Plexus Development

A

During embryogenesis, capillaries from the embryo surface descend from the meninges into the brain space, creating the choroid plexus. These vessels become torturous and villous, surrounding the roof of every ventricle. Ependymal cells near where the choroid plexuses form differentiate into choroid plexus epithelium cells

147
Q

Choroid Plexus and CSF Production

A

CSF is formed from blood flowing through associated capillaries and diffusing into adjacent choroid plexus epithelium cells

148
Q

Blood-CSF Barrier

A

Considered the second true CNS barrier

149
Q

CSF Absorption

A

Occurs at the arachnoid membrane, more specifically the arachnoid villi

150
Q

CSF Flow

A

CSF flows from the choroid plexus, where it’s produced to the fourth ventricles. Once there, CSF is ejected into the arachnoid space through the lateral apertures of the fourth ventricles. When absorption is required, CSF flows into the venous sinus system, primarily the SSS through the arachnoid villi

151
Q

The driving force behind CSF flow

A

The heart keeps CSF flowing - each time the heart pumps, the increase in pressure it creates by moving blood through the choroid plexus also moves CSF along its path through the brain and the venous sinus system

152
Q

CSF composition

A

Is an ultrafiltrate of blood that is mostly water

153
Q

CSF Functions

A

Physical support

154
Q

Blood-Brain Barrier

A

The BBB tightly regulates the entry of solutes and water into the brain

155
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Buildup of CSF in the head as a direct result of increased CSF volume in one or more of the ventricles

156
Q

Anatomy of the Cerebellum: Lobes

A

Rostral lobe and caudal lobe separated by the primary fissure

157
Q

Anatomy of the Cerebellum: Attachment to the Brainstem

A

The cerebellum is attached to the brainstem via the middle, caudal, and rostral peduncles

158
Q

Anatomy of the Cerebellum: Floculonodular Lobe

A

Is the nodulus plus the floculus

159
Q

Anatomy of the Cerebellum: Cell Layers of the Cerebellum

A

A molecular layer formed by the fibers of Purkinje and granule neruons

160
Q

Anatomy of the Cerebellum: Cerebellar Nuclei

A

The 2 pairs of grey matter nuclei found deep in the cerebellar medulla

161
Q

Germinal cells of the cerebellum: Mantel cells

A

The mantel cells form the Purkinje cells and the deep cerebellar nuclei neurons

162
Q

Germinal cells of the cerebellum: external germinal layer cells

A

The external germinal layer cells form the granule cell layer. They migrate to the surface of the cerebellum, where they proliferate and divide. They then dive back down into the cerebellar cortex to form the granule cell layer.

163
Q

Afferent pathways to the cerebellum

A

There are two major pathways to the cerebellum - from the spinal cord and cranial nerves & from feedback loops in the brain

164
Q

Spinal Cord Afferents to the Cerebellum

A

The 4 major spinocerebellar pathways to the cerebellum provide information about proprioception from the periphery. These pathways are called spinal cerebellar tracts (SCTs). These tracts are somatotopically arranged.

165
Q

Feedback loops to/from the cerebellar cortex

A

These loops can come from the pyramidal or extrapyramidal systems of the cerebrum. Within the extrapyramidal system, the loops are further divided into direct (from the vestibular nuclei) and indirect (from the olivary nucleus).

166
Q

Pyramidal tract

A

A tract from the cerebrum where the axons directly innervate neurons of the CN or spinal cord

167
Q

Extrapyramidal tracts

A

Tracts from the cerebrum to the cerebellum that do not originate in the pyramidal system. These sources may include the pons and the olivary nucleus of the medulla

168
Q

Mossy fibers

A

These fibers synapse onto the granule cells in the cerebellar cortex

169
Q

Climbing fibers

A

These fibers are axons of the olivary nucleus neurons and synapse with Purkinje fibers

170
Q

Efferent Pathways from the Cerebellum

A

Efferent neurons from the cerebellum either go through the Purkinje fibers or through the cerebellar nuclei.

171
Q

Purkinje cell efferent output

A

Purkinje cells are inhibitory and are the primary form of efferent output form the cerebellum

172
Q

Deep cerebellar nuclei efferent output

A

Deep cerebellar nuclei cells are influenced by the inhibitory function of Purkinje fibers

173
Q

Does the cerebellum modulate motor activity on the ipsilateral or contralateral side of the body?

A

The cerebellum modulates the motor activity of the ipsilateral side of the body. Movement is initiated in the contralateral motor cortex of the cerebrum but feedback loops from the CNS decussate to the opposite side of the cerebellum. Thus, the left cerebellum modulates the movement from the left side of the body.

174
Q

Functional Regions of the Cerebellum

A

The vestibular areas - e.g. floculonodular lobe

175
Q

Common Canine Nasal Disorders

A

Nonspecific immune-mediated rhinits

176
Q

Radiographic description of normal nasal turbinates

A

Normally, nasal turbinates are are covered in mucosa – symmetric, fine bony wisps visible, aerated nasal chamber

177
Q

Radiographic description of nonspecific rhinitis

A

Bilateral increased soft tissue muddling of the nasal turbinates

178
Q

Radiographic description of mycotic rhinits

A

One of the key radiographic signs is the destruction of the nasal turbinates, which can be symmetric or asymmetric

179
Q

Radiographic description of nasal neoplasia

A

A carcinoma shows up as increased soft tissue opacity centered around a mass accompanied by turbinate destruction

180
Q

Common Equine Nasal/Paranasal Disorders

A

Sinusitis secondary to dental disease

181
Q

Radiographic description of an ethmoid hematoma in horses

A

Appears as a soft tissue opacity mass

182
Q

Common Disorders of the Canine and Equine Ear

A

Otitis externa

183
Q

Radiographic description of otitis externa

A

On CT, the ear canal may no longer have any air

184
Q

Radiographic description of otitis media

A

The tympanic bulla may be inflammed

185
Q

Temporohyoid Osteroarthropathy

A

Is an idiopathic degenerative disease

186
Q

Trauma’s effect on the nasal cavity

A

Massive skull trauma may fracture the nasal bone, the turbinates, the hard palates, the temporomandibular joints, etc.

187
Q

Olfactory Region of the Cerebrum

A

Contains the olfactory bulbs and the pyriform lobes associated with CN I

188
Q

Frontal Lobe of the Cerebrum

A

Contains primary motor cortices and motor association cortices

189
Q

Parietal Lobe of the Cerebrum

A

Involved with somatosensory

190
Q

Temporal Lobe of the Cerebrum

A

The auditory cortex

191
Q

Occipital Lobe of the Cerebrum

A

The visual cortex

192
Q

Limbic System of the Cerebrum

A

Contains the hippocampus, the amgydala, and the hypothalamus

193
Q

Subdivision of the Cerebral Cortex: Allocortex

A

Considered the oldest part of the brain

194
Q

Subdivision of the Cerebral Cortex: Isocortex

A

Also known as the neocortex and includes the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes

195
Q

Projection areas of the Cerebrum

A

The projection areas of the cerebrum are for vision, audition, primary motor cortices, and somatosensory areas

196
Q

Association Areas

A

Associated with problem solving and creative thinking

197
Q

The thalamus of the Cerebrum

A

All of the senses except smell pass through this structure

198
Q

Peripheral blindness

A

When there is vision loss with the PLRs also absent, this suggests that there is a lesion in the eye itself, in the optic nerve, the chiasm, and/or the optic tract

199
Q

Central blindness caused by cerebral dysfunction

A

Defined as vision loss with the PLRs intact

200
Q

Hemi-inattention caused by cerebellar dysfunction

A

Neglect or decreased awareness of the contralateral environment and/or the body

201
Q

The electroencephalography

A

The EEG records electrical activity of the brain and measures the voltage changes caused by the neurons of the head

202
Q

Narcolepsy and how it affects dogs

A

Dogs with narcolepsy fall into REM sleep suddenly and experience cataplexy after being too excited

203
Q

Cataplexy

A

A sudden and transient episode of muscle tone loss

204
Q

Corticopontocerebellar feedback loop

A

An afferent feedback loop from the cerebrum to the cerebellar cortex. The corticopontocerebellar loop goes from the cerebrum to the pons to the cerebellum via the pyramids

205
Q

Seizures

A

The hallmark of cerebral disease