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vet prep Flashcards

1
Q

most equine uroliths are composed of what substance

A

calcium carbonate

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2
Q

mean circulating life span of a cat RBC

A

68days

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3
Q

mean circulating life span of a dog RBC

A

110days

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4
Q

most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs

A

immune mediated adenitis

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5
Q

how many chambers in a snake heart

A

3 chambers

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6
Q

zoonotic fungal pathogen in pigeon feces

A

cryptococcus

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7
Q

normally found in the guttural pouch of a healthy horse

A

Streptococcus equi ssp. zooepidemicus

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8
Q

4 components of teratology of fallot

A
  1. overriding aorta
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  3. pulmonic stenosis
  4. ventricular septal defect

leads to hypoxemia causing polycythemia

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9
Q

treatment of choice for Erysipelas in chickens

A

rapid acting pens

intramuscular sodium penicillin

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10
Q

You are examining a turkey flock that has been experiencing significant losses recently. Birds have been dying suddenly after exhibiting ataxia and weakness. Necropsy reveals diffuse darkening of the skin and enlarged and friable livers and spleens in affected animals. You perform an impression smear of the spleen and identify Gram-positive, slender, pleomorphic rods.

A

erysipelas

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11
Q

what species does T verrucosum cause ringworm in

A

cattle

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12
Q

what species does M. naanum cause ringworm in

A

pigs and llamas

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13
Q

what drug can cause esophageal stricture if it remains in the esophagus for too long

A

doxycycline

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14
Q

what does castration prevent the risk of in dogs in regards to the prostate

A

Castration reduces the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostatitis.

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15
Q

How many injections and at what spacing is PGF2-alpha given to synchronize a dairy cow?

A

2 injections 11-14 days apart

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16
Q

neonatal rabbits need to nurse how often

A

1-2 times a day

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17
Q

pigs have prolonged estrus cycles, some gilts seem to be in heat all the time… what is cause

A

high estrogen … check mycotoxins in feed could be zearalone

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18
Q

2 most common uroliths in a horse

A

Calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate

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19
Q

what disease??

An adult chicken in a small, back-yard flock has lost weight and is thin and sluggish. The chicken is euthanized and on necropsy, you find multiple solid-to-soft crumbly, gray nodules that range in size from less than 1 millimeter to several centimeters in size deeply embedded and throughout several organs and tissues including the liver, spleen, and intestines.

A

avian tuberculosis – acid fast staining bact

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20
Q

how long is the interestrus period in cats

A

1-3 weeks

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21
Q

most common histopathologic finding in

Acute serum hepatitis in horses, also known as Theiler’s Disease

A

Severe widespread hepatic necrosis

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22
Q

which parrots are sexually dimorphic

A

Eclectus parrot

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23
Q

how many blood groups do cattle have

A

11

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24
Q

fescue toxicosis in a pregnant mare

A

decreased milk prodction

prolonged gestation

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25
Q

ratio of ECF to ICF

A

1:2

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26
Q

most common intestinal neoplasia in a horse

A

lymphosarcoma

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27
Q

A 5-year old cat presents to you with an acute presentation of marked upper respiratory signs as well as ulcerative and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs. Which of the following viruses can cause this type of syndrome in cats

A

calicivirus

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28
Q

etiology of calf diptheria

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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29
Q

What hemagglutinin types of avian influenza virus are reportable to state and federal authorities, as well as to the World Health Organization, and can result in international importation bans on poultry products

A

H5

H7

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30
Q

most effective ABx for potomac horse fever

A

tetracycline – its a neorickettsial dz

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31
Q

where is aqueous production in the feline eye

A

ciliary body

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32
Q

when do cows ovulate

A

24-30 hours after the onset of estrus

estrus is usually 8-18hours long

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33
Q

at what point is a cows placenta considered retained

A

12hours

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34
Q

Your client’s turkey developed nasal and ocular discharge, weight loss, inappetence, and then died. You performed a necropsy and found pneumonia, multifocal necrosis in the liver and spleen, and severe pericarditis. Histopathologic findings included many basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions found in the affected organs. What is the most likely cause of death?

A

chlamydia psittaci

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35
Q

ferret is intermittently dragging pelvic limbs

A

insulinoma

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36
Q

treatment of choice for chronic canine KCS

A

Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid

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37
Q

in what species do glucocorticoids cause an increase in serum ALP

A

dogs

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38
Q

which test has the highest negative predictive value for FIP diagnosis

A

rivaltas test

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39
Q

what antibiotic should you not give guinea pigs

A

streptomycin

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40
Q

What organ is most affected by pyrrolizidine alkaloids in the horse

A

liver

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41
Q

differentials for a ping on the left side of a cow

A

Ruminal tympany and left displaced abomasum

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42
Q

what organization regulates salmon

A

FDA

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43
Q

what are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome

A

proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia, and ascites or edema

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44
Q

what virus causes infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

A

bovine herpesvirus 1

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45
Q

what is the risk of giving MLV for IBR

A

abortions at 5-6months gestation

never give to neonatal calves - leads to generalized infection

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46
Q

how many forms of disease exist for IBR

A

6 forms

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47
Q

the latent infection of bovine herpesvirus 1 if maintained where

A

ganglia

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48
Q

this disease is also known as red nose

A

IBR / BHV1

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49
Q

what is the causative agent for infectious pustular vulvovaginitis

A

bovine herpesvirus 1

infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

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50
Q

dairy cow with vulvar discharge, decreased milk production, excessive tail twitching and frequent urination

A

infectious pustular vulvovaginitis – BHV1

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51
Q

acute bovine diarrhea is most common in what age range

A

6months - 24 months

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52
Q

T/F

abortion can occur at any stage with BVD

A

true

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53
Q

congenital defects from BVD infection occur between what days of gestation

A

100-150 days

includes hydrocephalus , cerebellar hypoplasia

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54
Q

persistently infected from BVD infection occur between what days of gestation

A

40-125 days - exposed to NCP biotype

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55
Q

how to diagnose BVD

A

antigen detection - detect and eliminate carriers

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56
Q

what is aminocaproic acid

A

anti-fibrinolytic medication listed that may promote hemostasis

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57
Q

What is the underlying cause of postparturient hemoglobinuria?

A

hypophosphatemia

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58
Q

closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve

A

VII - facial nerve

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59
Q

opening of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve

A

III - oculomotor nerve

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60
Q

most common viral cause of equine abortion

A

EHV1

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61
Q

vaccination protocol for EHV1

A

5, 7, 9 months of pregnancy

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62
Q

what is cranial nerve 1

A

olfactory nerve - sense of smell

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63
Q

what is cranial nerve II

A

optic - visual from retina to occipital lobe of the brain

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64
Q

what is cranial nerve III

A

oculomotor

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65
Q

CN IV

A

trochlear

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66
Q

CN V

A

trigeminal

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67
Q

CNVI

A

Abducens - lateral rectus and retractor bulbi

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68
Q

sensation of taste to rostral tongue

A

facial nerve

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69
Q

VII CN

A

facial nerve

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70
Q

cranial nerve that provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and some salivary glands

A

the facial nerve – test with schirmer tear test

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71
Q

CN VIII

A

vestibulochochlear

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72
Q

Cn IX

A

glossopharyngeal - motor for swallowing and caudal tongue taste

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73
Q

motor to the tongue

A

CN XII hypoglossal

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74
Q

treatment for EIPH

A

lasix – furosemide before racing (4 hours prior)

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75
Q

what nerves run near the guttural pouch

A

sympathetic trunk

CN VII, IX, X, XII

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76
Q

what vessels run near the guttural pouch

A

internal and external carotids

maxillary arteries

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77
Q

soft, nonpainful swelling of the throat latch in young foals

A

guttural pouch tympany - surgically correct

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78
Q

accumulation of exudate in the guttural pouch

A

GP empyema

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79
Q

what is the most common bacteria leading to guttural pouch empyema

A

strep zoo

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80
Q

how to treat guttural pouch empyema

A

aggressive lavage

systemic and local antimicrobials

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81
Q

fungal plaques in the guttural pouch

A

GP mycosis – aspergillosis – leads to erosion

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82
Q

TX GP mycosis

A

surgically occlude vessel

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83
Q

most common cause of cutaneous ulcerative granulomas in the horse

A

habronemiasis (NEMATODE) – summer sores

can TX with ivermectin

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84
Q

intermediate host of habronema

A

stomoxy calciltrans
musca domesticas

lay L3 of the nematode in moist areas like lips, eyes, wounds

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85
Q

what is the normal activating clotting time

A

60-90 seconds

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86
Q

hemophilia A

A

x linked factor deficiency – VIII deficient

ACT and PTT with be elevated

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87
Q

Hemophilia B

A

factor IX deficiency

PTT and ACT will be elevated

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88
Q

what factors are involved in the common pathway

A

2, 5, 1, 10

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89
Q

what factors are in the intrinsic pathway

A

12, 11, 9, 8

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90
Q

most common cause of acute hepatitis and hepatic failure in horses

A

acute serum hepatitis – associated with the admin of tetanus antitoxin

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91
Q

horse with liver fibrosis, megalocytosis, and bile duct proliferation

A

pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicosis

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92
Q

what is the cause of theilers disease in horses

A

this is also acute serum hepatitis

from administration of the tetanus antitoxin in adult horses

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93
Q

clinical signs of theilers disease

A 
depression
anorexia 
icterus 
photosensitization 
hepatoencepthalopathy
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94
Q

most common isolate cultures in neonatal sepsis

A

e coli

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95
Q

causative agent of EPM

A

sarcocystis neurona - DH opossum

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96
Q

horse with asymmetric ataxia and muscle atrophy

A

EPM

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97
Q

treatment for EPM

A

TMS
ponazuril
nitazoxinade
some horses improve but will never go back to normal

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98
Q

bronchoconstriction and accumulation of mucus with neutrophils in a horse

A

recurrent airway obstruction – heaves

also called heaves - increased expiratory effort

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99
Q

diagnosing heaves

A

curshmanns spirals on cytology
BAL fluid has neutrophils
horse >7 in stall – allergens cause

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100
Q

in a healthy horse BAL fluid should consist mostly of

A

macrophages

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101
Q

rhodococcus equi typically affects what age range

A

foals between 1-6 months old

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102
Q

drugs of choice for treating R.equi

A

macrolides – erythromycin

Rifampin

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103
Q

pathogenesis of R.equi

A

aerosolized in dry and dusty env.
inhaled by foal
invades alveolar MACROPHAGES
produces pyogranulomatous pneumonia and oulmonary abcessation

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104
Q

complications of R.equi

A
  1. internal abcessation
  2. septic arthritis
  3. osteomyelitis
  4. non septic joint effusion
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105
Q

typical age range that gets equine strangles

A

<2-5 years old

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106
Q

drug of choice to treat equine strangles

A

penicillin + isolation and disinfection protocols

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107
Q

what is the causative agent of equine strangles

A

gram POSITIVE

streptococcus equi – this is not a normal inhabitant of the equine respiratory tract

108
Q

4 complications of equine strangles

A
  1. internal abscessation - BASTARD STRANGLES
  2. Purpura hemorrhagica - causes a vasculitis and edema of the limbs
  3. guttural pouch empyema
  4. septicemia and encephalitis
109
Q

etiologic agent of greasy pig disease

A

staph hyicus

gram positive cocci

110
Q

causes discoloration of teeth in young animals

A

tetracyclines

111
Q

can cause cartilage damage in young animals

A

fluoroquinolones

112
Q

most nephrotoxic abx group

A

aminoglycosides

113
Q

what type of HS reaction is atopy, flea allergy dermatitis, and bee stings

A

type 1

114
Q

HSrxn mediated by IgE noted in 15-30min

A

type 1

115
Q

hypersensitivity mediated by IgG and IgM

A

type 2 - cytotoxic

116
Q

examples of type II HS

A

immune mediated hemolytic anemia
neonatal isoerythrolysis
blood transfusion reactions

117
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus HS type

A

3

118
Q

HS type mediated by soluble immune complexes

A

type III

119
Q

immune hypersens rxn that is delayed – example is poison ivy

A

type 4

120
Q

how is catgut suture broken down

A

proteolytic breakdown - very fast - dont use in organs

121
Q

toxic dose of metronidazole

A

> 30 mg/kg/day

122
Q

deficiency in small animals fed overcooked meat diets or all fish diets

A

thiamine deficiency

123
Q

what abx is contraindicated for otitis media and interna

A

aminoglycosides

clohexadine is commonly implicated!!

124
Q

what does the presence of a head tremor indicate

A

cerebellar disease

125
Q

toxic principle in johnson grass - sorghum

A

cyanide - bright red cherry colored blood

126
Q

treatment for cyanide poisoning

A

sodium nitrite

sodium thiosulfate

127
Q

what is the toxic principle of pigweed and nightshades

A

nitrate accumulating plants

128
Q

how is the urine in nitrate poisoning

A

methemoglobinuria - diminished oxygen carrying capacity

129
Q

treatment for nitrate poisoning

A

1% methylene blue - reduces the methemoglobin

130
Q

this plant is a teratogen in cattle but not sheep and causes crooked calf syndrome

A

lupine

131
Q

a plant that contains thiaminase and leads to polioencephalomalacia

A

bracken fern

132
Q

plant that causes sweating and ataxia in horses

A

castor bean

133
Q

plant that affects horses and causes chewing disease also known as nigropallidal encephalomalacia - chewing and dropping food

A

yellow star thistle

134
Q

perilla mint

A

respiratory distress

135
Q

what type of virus causes border disease

A

pestivirus

136
Q

clinical signs in lambs with border disease

A 
undersized at birth 
excessively hairy or pigmented fleece 
muscle tremors 
cerebral cavitations 
demyelination
137
Q

what is the treatment for border disease in sheep

A

no effective treatment

138
Q

signs of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants

A

cortical blindness - absent menace, intact palpebral and plr
head pressing
brain tissue may fluoresce under UV light

139
Q

cause of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants

A

high concentrate/high grain diets

treat with thiamine

140
Q

is scrapie zoonotic

A

there is no evidence

141
Q

what is the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy of sheep

A

scrapie - scratching, rubbing, lip smacking

REPORTABLE

142
Q

what is pizzle rot

A

ulcerative posthitis in ovine

143
Q

etiologic agent of ulcerative posthitis

A

corynebacterium renale / high protein diets

144
Q

where do most uroliths lodge in small ruminants

A

urethral process

145
Q

Chronic bacterial infection forming visceral granulomas (nodules) in a variety of mature/adult birds,
resulting in progressive wasting and death;

A

avian tuberculosis

mycobacterium avium

146
Q

mycobacterium avium is what type of bacteria

A

non-motile, non-spore-forming bacterial rod that stains

acid-fast; AE viruses are enterotropic and are spread in feces.

147
Q

how to prevent avian tuberculosis

A

all in all out system
separate old and young chickens
cull affected birds

148
Q

emaciated bird with breast muscle atrophy and no internal body fat?

A

avian tuberculosis

mycobacterium avian

149
Q

what age do clinical signs of fowl pox appear

A

1-2 weeks old

150
Q

treatment of fowl pox

A

cull chicks

151
Q

what genus of virus causes infectious bronchitis virus

A

coronavirus

152
Q

acute, contagious viral disease of chickens that primarily causes
respiratory disease. It is characterized by rales, nasal discharge, coughing, and sneezing. In susceptible
laying flocks, there is a drop in egg production and reduced egg shell quality.

A

infectious bronchitis (IBV)

153
Q

how is infectious bronchitis spread and what is the incubation period

A

incubation period is 18-36 hours

spread via inhalation - aerosol / and contaminated equipment

154
Q

young chicks appear to be depressed and are huddling in a heat source

A

IBV

155
Q

what do birds with nephrotropic forms of IBV look like

A

depressed and dehydrated with ruffled feathers

156
Q

laying flock is having eggs that appear thin-shelled, wrinkled, and irregularly shaped. these chickens are also sneezing

A

IBV

157
Q

what three avian respiratory diseases often look similar in the field

A

infectious bronchitis,
Newcastle disease and
infectious laryngotracheitis

158
Q

Rapidly spreading and debilitating upper respiratory infection that occurs primarily in laying
chickens and causes distinctive foul odor with swelling of infraorbital sinuses and edema of the face.

A

infectious coryza

159
Q

avibacterium paragallinum

A

infectious coryza - gram neg rod

160
Q

T/F

turkeys are the main carrier of infectious coryza

A

false - turkeys are not affected

chronically sick or subclinical chickens are the main carriers

161
Q

how is infectious coryza transmitted

A

bird to bird by contact, oculonasal secretions, aerosolized cough
droplets and contaminated feed or drinking water.
does not last long in the environment

162
Q

chicken with facial edema, infraorbital sinus is filled with a yellow exudate, and oculonasal discharge is present

A

infectious coryza

163
Q

what type of virus is infectious laryngotracheitis

A

herpesvirus

164
Q

acute, highly infectious viral disease, characterized by conjunctivitis,
loud gasping, exudate plugging the glottis, and coughing of blood-filled exudate

A

infectious laryngotracheitis

165
Q

T/F

because infectious laryngotracheitis spreads slowly, birds can be vaccinated during an outbreak

A

true

166
Q

white exudative/fibrinous plugs in a birds trachea

A

infectious laryngotracheitis

167
Q

how does mareks virus replicate

A

3 phases
1- productive - in feather epithelium
2-latent- predominantly in T lymphocytes
3- transmission -only in t lymphocytes virulent

168
Q

what type of virus is mareks

A

herpesvirus

169
Q

how is mareks transmitted

A

shed in molted feathers/feather dander and inhaled by other birds

170
Q

treatment for mareks

vaccination for marekts

A

no treatment

in ovo vax

171
Q

vaccination for mycoplasma gallisepticum

A

chickens only - could kill turkeys

172
Q

how to prevent bordatella avium

A

never backtrakc from older to younger turkeys
flush water lines between flocks
all in all out

173
Q

turkey with mucus in sinuses, racoon eye appearance, and tracheal collapse causing a voice change

A

bordatella avium

174
Q

what is the typical age range for atopy presenting

A

1-3 yrs

175
Q

diagnosis for a wheezing/coughing cat with labored breathing and a bronchial pattern on radiographs

A

asthma

176
Q

a rapidly acting bronchodilator for feline asthma

A

albuterol

177
Q

horse presenting for discharge around the ear should be assessed for this situation

A

dentigerous cyst

178
Q

cricopharyngeal achalasia

A

pharyngoesophageal sphincter fails to relax

179
Q

what is the gold standard for diagnosis of mammary gland infection in cows

A

milk culture

180
Q

what lobes surround the gall bladder in a dog

A

quadrate lobe and right medial lobe

181
Q

gestation period in a cat

A

63 days

182
Q

distribution in the lungs of aspiration pneumonia

A

cranioventral

183
Q

most common nasal tumor in dogs

A

adenocarcinoma

184
Q

treatment of choice for nasal adenocarcinoma

A

radiation therapy - gives MST of 12 months

peroxicam gives 3 months

185
Q

most common primary bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

186
Q

common locations of osteosarcoma

A

remember towards the elbow

away from the knee

187
Q

at what day are fetus visibile for dog on rads

A

45 days

188
Q

what day can you detect dog pregnancy on ultrasound

A

day 20

189
Q

penn hip vs ofa

A

penn hip as early as 16weeks

OFA must be 2

190
Q

rules for a triple pelvic osteotomy

A

between 4-12months old

cannot have signs of DJD on rads

191
Q

most common skin tumor in dogs

A

mast cell tumor

192
Q

margins for mast cell

A

2-3cm and 1facial plane deep PLUS radiation therapy to treat

193
Q

indolent ulcer tx

A

grid debride

terramycin

194
Q

age difference between food allergy and atopy

A

food allergy <1yr
atopy between 1-3

food allergy will be year round and atopy will be seasonal

195
Q

competitive inhibitor to the receptor for IL-31 which prevents JAK1 and STAT to be
activated; thereby blocking itch

A

apoquel

196
Q

Monoclonal antibody that binds to IL-31 which prevents IL-31 from
binding and activating the JAK/STAT pathway

A

cytopoint

197
Q

cats on prednisone

A

could have gi issues and hepatic conversion so give predniSOLONE instead

198
Q

arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

A 
familial -- boxers common
VPCS 
syncope 
dx with holter monitor 
sotalol
199
Q

small breed dog, palpation of trachea leads to coughing spasm

A

collapsing trachea - can DX on endoscopy

200
Q

where does the cranial cruciate ligament originate

A

the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle

201
Q

what are the 3 functions of the crania cruciate ligament

A
  1. prevent cranial drawer
  2. prevent excessive hyperextension
  3. prevent internal rotation
202
Q

what clinical sign will you always have after a TPLO

A

positive cranial drawer

203
Q

what does the tibial tuberosity advancement eliminate

A

tibial thrust

204
Q

key clinical signs of diabetes melitus

A 
pu/pd
polyphagia 
wt loss 
plantigrade stance in cats 
cataracts in dogs
205
Q

what type of diet for a healthy diabetic patient

A

HIGH FIBER -

high protein,low carb in cats

206
Q

when to give regular insulin

A

DKA patients

207
Q

most common breed with ununited anconeal process

A

german shepherds (usually 4-12months old)

208
Q

what red view is best for ununited anconeal process

A

flexed lateral projection

209
Q

Abnormal endochondral ossification resulting in thickening of the articular cartilage

A

OCD of humeral condyle

210
Q

who is permethrin toxic to

A

cats

211
Q

who is fipronil toxic to

A

bunnies

212
Q

fipronil

A

fleas
ticks
lice

213
Q

milbemycin

A

hookworms
heartworms
whipworms

214
Q

what radiograph is diagnostic for GDV

A

right lateral

215
Q

which way does the stomach normally rotate in GDV

A

counter-clockwise when looking in dorsal recumbency

216
Q

most predisposed breed to GDV

A

great dane

217
Q

what is the lactate level in a GDV that is a negative prognostic indicator

A

> 6

218
Q

test of choice to dx heartworm in dogs

A

antigen test - detects adult females

** in cats this can indicate exposure but not necessarily infection

219
Q

cats echocardiogram shows double lined echodensity

A

HEARTWORM

220
Q

treatment of choice for a dog with heartworm

A

melarsomine

221
Q

2 most common spots of hemangiosarcoma

A

spleen

right auricle

222
Q

what is the most common tumor to metastasize to the brain

A

HSA

223
Q

commonly affected areas of cutaneous hemangiosarcoma

A

from chronic sun exposure

ventral abdomen and medial thighs

224
Q

5 Ps of hyperadrenocorticism

A 
pu
pd
polyphagia 
panting 
pot belly
225
Q

tx for horse with cushins

A

peroglide

226
Q

tx dog with cushings

A

mitotane

trilostane

227
Q

Low dose dex supression test

A

most cushings dogs will have >1.4 at 8 hours
PDT will have <50% baseline at 4 hours
AT will not suppress ever

228
Q

2 main tests for diagnosing cushings

A

LDDST

ACTH stim

229
Q

addisons (hypoadrenocorticism) clinical signs

A 
hyperkalemia 
hyponatremia 
USG <1.030
absence of a stress leukogram
bradycardia
230
Q

test of choice for addisons

A

ACTH stimulation using dexamethasone

<2ug/dl is positive

231
Q

tx hypothyroid dog

A

levothyroxine

232
Q

old labrador with voice change, dyspnea, and inspiratory stridor

A

LARPAR

-risk of aspiration pneumonia

233
Q

when a normal patient inhales, how do the aretynoids act

A

should abduct

234
Q

can diagnose laryngeal paralysis with this medication under light General anesthesia

A

doxapram

235
Q

treatment of choice for lar par

A

Crycoarytenoid lateralization

“tie back”

236
Q

T/F

Mast cell tumor grade can be determined by cytology

A

FALSEEEE

237
Q

most common malignant oral tumor in a dog

A

melanoma – especially chows

238
Q

what fraction of oral metastatic melanomas are amelanotic

A

1/3

239
Q

what percent of oral melanomas are metastatic

A

80%

240
Q

what tumor size of melanoma is a negative prognostic factor

A

> 2cm MST 5.5mo

<2cm MST 17mo

241
Q

treatment for oral melanoma

A

wide excision and radiation therapy

cisplatin and carboplatin shrink

242
Q

where does OSA mets to

A

lungs

243
Q

elevation of this enzyme means a worse prognosis for osa

A

alkaline phosphate

244
Q

poster child for congenital extrahepatic single shunts

A

yorkies

245
Q

dramatically elevated post prandial bile acids

A

SHUNT

246
Q

what type of crystal would be most common with portosystemic shunts

A

ammonium biurate

247
Q

T/F

Portosystemic shunt patients need high protein diets

A

false

248
Q

toxic effect of rodenticide

A

inhibiting vitamin K1 epoxide reductase

depletes factor VII

249
Q

ethylene glycol crystals

A

ca oxalate

250
Q

treatment for ingestion of household cleaners

A

DO NOT INDUCE EMESIS

give dilute milk

251
Q

treatment for ethylene glycol

A

begin before toxic metabolites are generated

fomepizole (4-MP)

252
Q

what stones do you use an alkalizing diet? acidifying?

A

alk - cysteine and urate

acid - struvite

253
Q

what is the cushings response

A

compensatory increase in mean arterial pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure

254
Q

treatment of ostertagia

A

ivermectin

255
Q

chronic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint

A

bog spavin

256
Q

thickening of the plantar tarsal ligament due to strain

A

curb

257
Q

osteoarthritis of the hock

A

bone spavin

258
Q

tx dipylidium caninum

A

praziquantel

259
Q

why should you not use enrofloxacin in growing puppies

A

cartilage abnormalities

260
Q

you diagnose isospora suis eggs in a 13 day old piglet what would you use to treat it

A

ponazuril

261
Q

this parasite involves migration through the horses lungs and could cause respiratory signs

A

parascaris equorum

262
Q

bacterial or white blood cell casts in the urine are highly suggestive of

A

pyelonephritis

263
Q

most common site of fracture in rabbits

A

L7

264
Q

most common cause of pyo in dogs older than 8

A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia

265
Q

what is the effect of pyloric outflow obstruction on chloride and acid-base status

A

decreased serum chloride

metabolic alkalosis

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