vet prep Flashcards
most equine uroliths are composed of what substance
calcium carbonate
mean circulating life span of a cat RBC
68days
mean circulating life span of a dog RBC
110days
most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs
immune mediated adenitis
how many chambers in a snake heart
3 chambers
zoonotic fungal pathogen in pigeon feces
cryptococcus
normally found in the guttural pouch of a healthy horse
Streptococcus equi ssp. zooepidemicus
4 components of teratology of fallot
- overriding aorta
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- pulmonic stenosis
- ventricular septal defect
leads to hypoxemia causing polycythemia
treatment of choice for Erysipelas in chickens
rapid acting pens
intramuscular sodium penicillin
You are examining a turkey flock that has been experiencing significant losses recently. Birds have been dying suddenly after exhibiting ataxia and weakness. Necropsy reveals diffuse darkening of the skin and enlarged and friable livers and spleens in affected animals. You perform an impression smear of the spleen and identify Gram-positive, slender, pleomorphic rods.
erysipelas
what species does T verrucosum cause ringworm in
cattle
what species does M. naanum cause ringworm in
pigs and llamas
what drug can cause esophageal stricture if it remains in the esophagus for too long
doxycycline
what does castration prevent the risk of in dogs in regards to the prostate
Castration reduces the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostatitis.
How many injections and at what spacing is PGF2-alpha given to synchronize a dairy cow?
2 injections 11-14 days apart
neonatal rabbits need to nurse how often
1-2 times a day
pigs have prolonged estrus cycles, some gilts seem to be in heat all the time… what is cause
high estrogen … check mycotoxins in feed could be zearalone
2 most common uroliths in a horse
Calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate
what disease??
An adult chicken in a small, back-yard flock has lost weight and is thin and sluggish. The chicken is euthanized and on necropsy, you find multiple solid-to-soft crumbly, gray nodules that range in size from less than 1 millimeter to several centimeters in size deeply embedded and throughout several organs and tissues including the liver, spleen, and intestines.
avian tuberculosis – acid fast staining bact
how long is the interestrus period in cats
1-3 weeks
most common histopathologic finding in
Acute serum hepatitis in horses, also known as Theiler’s Disease
Severe widespread hepatic necrosis
which parrots are sexually dimorphic
Eclectus parrot
how many blood groups do cattle have
11
fescue toxicosis in a pregnant mare
decreased milk prodction
prolonged gestation
ratio of ECF to ICF
1:2
most common intestinal neoplasia in a horse
lymphosarcoma
A 5-year old cat presents to you with an acute presentation of marked upper respiratory signs as well as ulcerative and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs. Which of the following viruses can cause this type of syndrome in cats
calicivirus
etiology of calf diptheria
Fusobacterium necrophorum
What hemagglutinin types of avian influenza virus are reportable to state and federal authorities, as well as to the World Health Organization, and can result in international importation bans on poultry products
H5
H7
most effective ABx for potomac horse fever
tetracycline – its a neorickettsial dz
where is aqueous production in the feline eye
ciliary body
when do cows ovulate
24-30 hours after the onset of estrus
estrus is usually 8-18hours long
at what point is a cows placenta considered retained
12hours
Your client’s turkey developed nasal and ocular discharge, weight loss, inappetence, and then died. You performed a necropsy and found pneumonia, multifocal necrosis in the liver and spleen, and severe pericarditis. Histopathologic findings included many basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions found in the affected organs. What is the most likely cause of death?
chlamydia psittaci
ferret is intermittently dragging pelvic limbs
insulinoma
treatment of choice for chronic canine KCS
Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid
in what species do glucocorticoids cause an increase in serum ALP
dogs
which test has the highest negative predictive value for FIP diagnosis
rivaltas test
what antibiotic should you not give guinea pigs
streptomycin
What organ is most affected by pyrrolizidine alkaloids in the horse
liver
differentials for a ping on the left side of a cow
Ruminal tympany and left displaced abomasum
what organization regulates salmon
FDA
what are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia, and ascites or edema
what virus causes infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
bovine herpesvirus 1
what is the risk of giving MLV for IBR
abortions at 5-6months gestation
never give to neonatal calves - leads to generalized infection
how many forms of disease exist for IBR
6 forms
the latent infection of bovine herpesvirus 1 if maintained where
ganglia
this disease is also known as red nose
IBR / BHV1
what is the causative agent for infectious pustular vulvovaginitis
bovine herpesvirus 1
infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
dairy cow with vulvar discharge, decreased milk production, excessive tail twitching and frequent urination
infectious pustular vulvovaginitis – BHV1
acute bovine diarrhea is most common in what age range
6months - 24 months
T/F
abortion can occur at any stage with BVD
true
congenital defects from BVD infection occur between what days of gestation
100-150 days
includes hydrocephalus , cerebellar hypoplasia
persistently infected from BVD infection occur between what days of gestation
40-125 days - exposed to NCP biotype
how to diagnose BVD
antigen detection - detect and eliminate carriers
what is aminocaproic acid
anti-fibrinolytic medication listed that may promote hemostasis
What is the underlying cause of postparturient hemoglobinuria?
hypophosphatemia
closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve
VII - facial nerve
opening of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve
III - oculomotor nerve
most common viral cause of equine abortion
EHV1
vaccination protocol for EHV1
5, 7, 9 months of pregnancy
what is cranial nerve 1
olfactory nerve - sense of smell
what is cranial nerve II
optic - visual from retina to occipital lobe of the brain
what is cranial nerve III
oculomotor
CN IV
trochlear
CN V
trigeminal
CNVI
Abducens - lateral rectus and retractor bulbi
sensation of taste to rostral tongue
facial nerve
VII CN
facial nerve
cranial nerve that provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and some salivary glands
the facial nerve – test with schirmer tear test
CN VIII
vestibulochochlear
Cn IX
glossopharyngeal - motor for swallowing and caudal tongue taste
motor to the tongue
CN XII hypoglossal
treatment for EIPH
lasix – furosemide before racing (4 hours prior)
what nerves run near the guttural pouch
sympathetic trunk
CN VII, IX, X, XII
what vessels run near the guttural pouch
internal and external carotids
maxillary arteries
soft, nonpainful swelling of the throat latch in young foals
guttural pouch tympany - surgically correct
accumulation of exudate in the guttural pouch
GP empyema
what is the most common bacteria leading to guttural pouch empyema
strep zoo
how to treat guttural pouch empyema
aggressive lavage
systemic and local antimicrobials
fungal plaques in the guttural pouch
GP mycosis – aspergillosis – leads to erosion
TX GP mycosis
surgically occlude vessel
most common cause of cutaneous ulcerative granulomas in the horse
habronemiasis (NEMATODE) – summer sores
can TX with ivermectin
intermediate host of habronema
stomoxy calciltrans
musca domesticas
lay L3 of the nematode in moist areas like lips, eyes, wounds
what is the normal activating clotting time
60-90 seconds
hemophilia A
x linked factor deficiency – VIII deficient
ACT and PTT with be elevated
Hemophilia B
factor IX deficiency
PTT and ACT will be elevated
what factors are involved in the common pathway
2, 5, 1, 10
what factors are in the intrinsic pathway
12, 11, 9, 8
most common cause of acute hepatitis and hepatic failure in horses
acute serum hepatitis – associated with the admin of tetanus antitoxin
horse with liver fibrosis, megalocytosis, and bile duct proliferation
pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicosis
what is the cause of theilers disease in horses
this is also acute serum hepatitis
from administration of the tetanus antitoxin in adult horses
clinical signs of theilers disease
depression anorexia icterus photosensitization hepatoencepthalopathy
most common isolate cultures in neonatal sepsis
e coli
causative agent of EPM
sarcocystis neurona - DH opossum
horse with asymmetric ataxia and muscle atrophy
EPM
treatment for EPM
TMS
ponazuril
nitazoxinade
some horses improve but will never go back to normal
bronchoconstriction and accumulation of mucus with neutrophils in a horse
recurrent airway obstruction – heaves
also called heaves - increased expiratory effort
diagnosing heaves
curshmanns spirals on cytology
BAL fluid has neutrophils
horse >7 in stall – allergens cause
in a healthy horse BAL fluid should consist mostly of
macrophages
rhodococcus equi typically affects what age range
foals between 1-6 months old
drugs of choice for treating R.equi
macrolides – erythromycin
Rifampin
pathogenesis of R.equi
aerosolized in dry and dusty env.
inhaled by foal
invades alveolar MACROPHAGES
produces pyogranulomatous pneumonia and oulmonary abcessation
complications of R.equi
- internal abcessation
- septic arthritis
- osteomyelitis
- non septic joint effusion
typical age range that gets equine strangles
<2-5 years old
drug of choice to treat equine strangles
penicillin + isolation and disinfection protocols
what is the causative agent of equine strangles
gram POSITIVE
streptococcus equi – this is not a normal inhabitant of the equine respiratory tract
4 complications of equine strangles
- internal abscessation - BASTARD STRANGLES
- Purpura hemorrhagica - causes a vasculitis and edema of the limbs
- guttural pouch empyema
- septicemia and encephalitis
etiologic agent of greasy pig disease
staph hyicus
gram positive cocci
causes discoloration of teeth in young animals
tetracyclines
can cause cartilage damage in young animals
fluoroquinolones
most nephrotoxic abx group
aminoglycosides
what type of HS reaction is atopy, flea allergy dermatitis, and bee stings
type 1
HSrxn mediated by IgE noted in 15-30min
type 1
hypersensitivity mediated by IgG and IgM
type 2 - cytotoxic
examples of type II HS
immune mediated hemolytic anemia
neonatal isoerythrolysis
blood transfusion reactions
systemic lupus erythematosus HS type
3
HS type mediated by soluble immune complexes
type III
immune hypersens rxn that is delayed – example is poison ivy
type 4
how is catgut suture broken down
proteolytic breakdown - very fast - dont use in organs
toxic dose of metronidazole
> 30 mg/kg/day
deficiency in small animals fed overcooked meat diets or all fish diets
thiamine deficiency
what abx is contraindicated for otitis media and interna
aminoglycosides
clohexadine is commonly implicated!!
what does the presence of a head tremor indicate
cerebellar disease
toxic principle in johnson grass - sorghum
cyanide - bright red cherry colored blood
treatment for cyanide poisoning
sodium nitrite
sodium thiosulfate
what is the toxic principle of pigweed and nightshades
nitrate accumulating plants
how is the urine in nitrate poisoning
methemoglobinuria - diminished oxygen carrying capacity
treatment for nitrate poisoning
1% methylene blue - reduces the methemoglobin
this plant is a teratogen in cattle but not sheep and causes crooked calf syndrome
lupine
a plant that contains thiaminase and leads to polioencephalomalacia
bracken fern
plant that causes sweating and ataxia in horses
castor bean
plant that affects horses and causes chewing disease also known as nigropallidal encephalomalacia - chewing and dropping food
yellow star thistle
perilla mint
respiratory distress
what type of virus causes border disease
pestivirus
clinical signs in lambs with border disease
undersized at birth excessively hairy or pigmented fleece muscle tremors cerebral cavitations demyelination
what is the treatment for border disease in sheep
no effective treatment
signs of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants
cortical blindness - absent menace, intact palpebral and plr
head pressing
brain tissue may fluoresce under UV light
cause of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants
high concentrate/high grain diets
treat with thiamine
is scrapie zoonotic
there is no evidence
what is the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy of sheep
scrapie - scratching, rubbing, lip smacking
REPORTABLE
what is pizzle rot
ulcerative posthitis in ovine
etiologic agent of ulcerative posthitis
corynebacterium renale / high protein diets
where do most uroliths lodge in small ruminants
urethral process
Chronic bacterial infection forming visceral granulomas (nodules) in a variety of mature/adult birds,
resulting in progressive wasting and death;
avian tuberculosis
mycobacterium avium
mycobacterium avium is what type of bacteria
non-motile, non-spore-forming bacterial rod that stains
acid-fast; AE viruses are enterotropic and are spread in feces.
how to prevent avian tuberculosis
all in all out system
separate old and young chickens
cull affected birds
emaciated bird with breast muscle atrophy and no internal body fat?
avian tuberculosis
mycobacterium avian
what age do clinical signs of fowl pox appear
1-2 weeks old
treatment of fowl pox
cull chicks
what genus of virus causes infectious bronchitis virus
coronavirus
acute, contagious viral disease of chickens that primarily causes
respiratory disease. It is characterized by rales, nasal discharge, coughing, and sneezing. In susceptible
laying flocks, there is a drop in egg production and reduced egg shell quality.
infectious bronchitis (IBV)
how is infectious bronchitis spread and what is the incubation period
incubation period is 18-36 hours
spread via inhalation - aerosol / and contaminated equipment
young chicks appear to be depressed and are huddling in a heat source
IBV
what do birds with nephrotropic forms of IBV look like
depressed and dehydrated with ruffled feathers
laying flock is having eggs that appear thin-shelled, wrinkled, and irregularly shaped. these chickens are also sneezing
IBV
what three avian respiratory diseases often look similar in the field
infectious bronchitis,
Newcastle disease and
infectious laryngotracheitis
Rapidly spreading and debilitating upper respiratory infection that occurs primarily in laying
chickens and causes distinctive foul odor with swelling of infraorbital sinuses and edema of the face.
infectious coryza
avibacterium paragallinum
infectious coryza - gram neg rod
T/F
turkeys are the main carrier of infectious coryza
false - turkeys are not affected
chronically sick or subclinical chickens are the main carriers
how is infectious coryza transmitted
bird to bird by contact, oculonasal secretions, aerosolized cough
droplets and contaminated feed or drinking water.
does not last long in the environment
chicken with facial edema, infraorbital sinus is filled with a yellow exudate, and oculonasal discharge is present
infectious coryza
what type of virus is infectious laryngotracheitis
herpesvirus
acute, highly infectious viral disease, characterized by conjunctivitis,
loud gasping, exudate plugging the glottis, and coughing of blood-filled exudate
infectious laryngotracheitis
T/F
because infectious laryngotracheitis spreads slowly, birds can be vaccinated during an outbreak
true
white exudative/fibrinous plugs in a birds trachea
infectious laryngotracheitis
how does mareks virus replicate
3 phases
1- productive - in feather epithelium
2-latent- predominantly in T lymphocytes
3- transmission -only in t lymphocytes virulent
what type of virus is mareks
herpesvirus
how is mareks transmitted
shed in molted feathers/feather dander and inhaled by other birds
treatment for mareks
vaccination for marekts
no treatment
in ovo vax
vaccination for mycoplasma gallisepticum
chickens only - could kill turkeys
how to prevent bordatella avium
never backtrakc from older to younger turkeys
flush water lines between flocks
all in all out
turkey with mucus in sinuses, racoon eye appearance, and tracheal collapse causing a voice change
bordatella avium
what is the typical age range for atopy presenting
1-3 yrs
diagnosis for a wheezing/coughing cat with labored breathing and a bronchial pattern on radiographs
asthma
a rapidly acting bronchodilator for feline asthma
albuterol
horse presenting for discharge around the ear should be assessed for this situation
dentigerous cyst
cricopharyngeal achalasia
pharyngoesophageal sphincter fails to relax
what is the gold standard for diagnosis of mammary gland infection in cows
milk culture
what lobes surround the gall bladder in a dog
quadrate lobe and right medial lobe
gestation period in a cat
63 days
distribution in the lungs of aspiration pneumonia
cranioventral
most common nasal tumor in dogs
adenocarcinoma
treatment of choice for nasal adenocarcinoma
radiation therapy - gives MST of 12 months
peroxicam gives 3 months
most common primary bone tumor
osteosarcoma
common locations of osteosarcoma
remember towards the elbow
away from the knee
at what day are fetus visibile for dog on rads
45 days
what day can you detect dog pregnancy on ultrasound
day 20
penn hip vs ofa
penn hip as early as 16weeks
OFA must be 2
rules for a triple pelvic osteotomy
between 4-12months old
cannot have signs of DJD on rads
most common skin tumor in dogs
mast cell tumor
margins for mast cell
2-3cm and 1facial plane deep PLUS radiation therapy to treat
indolent ulcer tx
grid debride
terramycin
age difference between food allergy and atopy
food allergy <1yr
atopy between 1-3
food allergy will be year round and atopy will be seasonal
competitive inhibitor to the receptor for IL-31 which prevents JAK1 and STAT to be
activated; thereby blocking itch
apoquel
Monoclonal antibody that binds to IL-31 which prevents IL-31 from
binding and activating the JAK/STAT pathway
cytopoint
cats on prednisone
could have gi issues and hepatic conversion so give predniSOLONE instead
arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
familial -- boxers common VPCS syncope dx with holter monitor sotalol
small breed dog, palpation of trachea leads to coughing spasm
collapsing trachea - can DX on endoscopy
where does the cranial cruciate ligament originate
the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle
what are the 3 functions of the crania cruciate ligament
- prevent cranial drawer
- prevent excessive hyperextension
- prevent internal rotation
what clinical sign will you always have after a TPLO
positive cranial drawer
what does the tibial tuberosity advancement eliminate
tibial thrust
key clinical signs of diabetes melitus
pu/pd polyphagia wt loss plantigrade stance in cats cataracts in dogs
what type of diet for a healthy diabetic patient
HIGH FIBER -
high protein,low carb in cats
when to give regular insulin
DKA patients
most common breed with ununited anconeal process
german shepherds (usually 4-12months old)
what red view is best for ununited anconeal process
flexed lateral projection
Abnormal endochondral ossification resulting in thickening of the articular cartilage
OCD of humeral condyle
who is permethrin toxic to
cats
who is fipronil toxic to
bunnies
fipronil
fleas
ticks
lice
milbemycin
hookworms
heartworms
whipworms
what radiograph is diagnostic for GDV
right lateral
which way does the stomach normally rotate in GDV
counter-clockwise when looking in dorsal recumbency
most predisposed breed to GDV
great dane
what is the lactate level in a GDV that is a negative prognostic indicator
> 6
test of choice to dx heartworm in dogs
antigen test - detects adult females
** in cats this can indicate exposure but not necessarily infection
cats echocardiogram shows double lined echodensity
HEARTWORM
treatment of choice for a dog with heartworm
melarsomine
2 most common spots of hemangiosarcoma
spleen
right auricle
what is the most common tumor to metastasize to the brain
HSA
commonly affected areas of cutaneous hemangiosarcoma
from chronic sun exposure
ventral abdomen and medial thighs
5 Ps of hyperadrenocorticism
pu pd polyphagia panting pot belly
tx for horse with cushins
peroglide
tx dog with cushings
mitotane
trilostane
Low dose dex supression test
most cushings dogs will have >1.4 at 8 hours
PDT will have <50% baseline at 4 hours
AT will not suppress ever
2 main tests for diagnosing cushings
LDDST
ACTH stim
addisons (hypoadrenocorticism) clinical signs
hyperkalemia hyponatremia USG <1.030 absence of a stress leukogram bradycardia
test of choice for addisons
ACTH stimulation using dexamethasone
<2ug/dl is positive
tx hypothyroid dog
levothyroxine
old labrador with voice change, dyspnea, and inspiratory stridor
LARPAR
-risk of aspiration pneumonia
when a normal patient inhales, how do the aretynoids act
should abduct
can diagnose laryngeal paralysis with this medication under light General anesthesia
doxapram
treatment of choice for lar par
Crycoarytenoid lateralization
“tie back”
T/F
Mast cell tumor grade can be determined by cytology
FALSEEEE
most common malignant oral tumor in a dog
melanoma – especially chows
what fraction of oral metastatic melanomas are amelanotic
1/3
what percent of oral melanomas are metastatic
80%
what tumor size of melanoma is a negative prognostic factor
> 2cm MST 5.5mo
<2cm MST 17mo
treatment for oral melanoma
wide excision and radiation therapy
cisplatin and carboplatin shrink
where does OSA mets to
lungs
elevation of this enzyme means a worse prognosis for osa
alkaline phosphate
poster child for congenital extrahepatic single shunts
yorkies
dramatically elevated post prandial bile acids
SHUNT
what type of crystal would be most common with portosystemic shunts
ammonium biurate
T/F
Portosystemic shunt patients need high protein diets
false
toxic effect of rodenticide
inhibiting vitamin K1 epoxide reductase
depletes factor VII
ethylene glycol crystals
ca oxalate
treatment for ingestion of household cleaners
DO NOT INDUCE EMESIS
give dilute milk
treatment for ethylene glycol
begin before toxic metabolites are generated
fomepizole (4-MP)
what stones do you use an alkalizing diet? acidifying?
alk - cysteine and urate
acid - struvite
what is the cushings response
compensatory increase in mean arterial pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure
treatment of ostertagia
ivermectin
chronic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint
bog spavin
thickening of the plantar tarsal ligament due to strain
curb
osteoarthritis of the hock
bone spavin
tx dipylidium caninum
praziquantel
why should you not use enrofloxacin in growing puppies
cartilage abnormalities
you diagnose isospora suis eggs in a 13 day old piglet what would you use to treat it
ponazuril
this parasite involves migration through the horses lungs and could cause respiratory signs
parascaris equorum
bacterial or white blood cell casts in the urine are highly suggestive of
pyelonephritis
most common site of fracture in rabbits
L7
most common cause of pyo in dogs older than 8
cystic endometrial hyperplasia
what is the effect of pyloric outflow obstruction on chloride and acid-base status
decreased serum chloride
metabolic alkalosis
