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VCP550-DCV > VCP5-DCV VMware Certified Professional > Flashcards

VCP5-DCV VMware Certified Professional Flashcards

Study for VCP-DCV Certification Test.

1
Q

VMware VMware ESXi

A

A virtualization layer run on physical servers that abstracts processor, memory, storage, and resources into multiple virtual machines.

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2
Q

VMware vCenter Server

A

The central point for configuring, provisioning, and managing virtualized IT environments. It provides essential datacenter services such as access control, performance monitoring, and alarm management.

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3
Q

VMware vSphere Client

A

An interface that enables users to connect remotely to vCenter Server or ESXi from any Windows PC.

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4
Q

VMware vSphere Web Client

A

A Web interface that enables users to connect remotely to vCenter Server from a variety of Web browsers and operating systems.

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5
Q

VMware vSphere SDKs

A

Feature that provides standard interfaces for VMware and third-party solutions to access VMware vSphere.

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6
Q

vSphere Virtual Machine File System (VMFS)

A

A high performance cluster file system for ESXi virtual machines.

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7
Q

vSphere Virtual SMP

A

Enables a single virtual machine to use multiple physical processors simultaneously.

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8
Q

vSphere vMotion

A

Enables the migration of powered-on virtual machines from one physical server to another with zero down time, continuous service availability, and complete transaction integrity. Migration with vMotion cannot be used to move virtual machines from one datacenter to another.

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9
Q

vSphere Storage vMotion

A

Enables the migration of virtual machine files from one datastore to another without service interruption. You can place the virtual machine and all its disks in a single location, or select separate locations for the virtual machine configuration file and each virtual disk. The virtual machine remains on the same host during Storage vMotion. Migration with Storage vMotion lets you move the virtual disks or configuration file of a virtual machine to a new datastore while the virtual machine is running. Migration with Storage vMotion enables you to move a virtual machine’s storage without any interruption in the availability of the virtual machine.

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10
Q

vSphere High Availability (HA)

A

A feature that provides high availability for virtual machines. If a server fails, affected virtual machines are restarted on other available servers that have spare capacity.

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11
Q

vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)

A

Allocates and balances computing capacity dynamically across collections of hardware resources for virtual machines. This feature includes distributed power management (DPM) capabilities that enable a datacenter to significantly reduce its power consumption.

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12
Q

vSphere Storage DRS

A

Allocates and balances storage capacity and I/O dynamically across collections of datastores. This feature includes management capabilities that minimize the risk of running out of space and the risk of I/O bottlenecks slowing the performance of virtual machines.

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13
Q

vSphere Fault Tolerance

A

Provides continuous availability by protecting a virtual machine with a copy. When this feature is enabled for a virtual machine, a secondary copy of the original, or primary, virtual machine is created. All actions completed on the primary virtual machine are also applied to the secondary virtual machine. If the primary virtual machine becomes unavailable, the secondary machine becomes immediately active.

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14
Q

vSphere Distributed Switch (VDS)

A

A virtual switch that can span multiple ESXi hosts, enabling significant reduction of on-going network maintenance activities and increasing network capacity. This increased efficiency enables virtual machines to maintain consistent network configuration as they migrate across multiple hosts.

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15
Q

Host Profiles

A

A feature that simplifies host configuration management through user-defined configuration policies. The host profile policies capture the blueprint of a known, validated host configuration and use this configuration to configure networking, storage, security, and other settings across multiple hosts. The host profile policies also monitor compliance to standard host configuration settings across the datacenter. Host profiles reduce the manual steps that are involved in configuring a host and can help maintain consistency and correctness across the datacenter. Host profiles are also a component of vSphere Auto Deploy. The concept of an autodeployed host means that vCenter Server owns the entire host configuration and it is captured within a host profile. Certain policies require user input to provide host-specific values. To support Auto Deploy for host profiles, an answer file is created that contains the definitions for those policies.

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16
Q

Distributed Power Management (DPM)

A

Compares cluster-level and host-level capacity to the demands of virtual machines running in the cluster. If the resource demands of the running virtual machines can be met by a subset of hosts in the cluster, DPM migrates the virtual machines to this subset and powers down the hosts that are not needed. When resource demands increase, DPM powers these hosts back on and migrates the virtual machines to them.

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17
Q

vSphere Standard Switches (VSS)

A

each server has its own virtual switch: VSSs handle network traffic at the host level in a vSphere environment. A VSS can route traffic internally between virtual machines and link to external networks.

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18
Q

Port Group

A

a mechanism for setting policies that govern the network connected to it. You can configure port groups to enforce policies that provide enhanced networking security, network segmentation, better performance, high availability, and traffic management.

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19
Q

VMware vShield

A

is a suite of security virtual appliances that are built to work with vSphere, protecting virtualized datacenters from attacks and misuse.

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20
Q

Application Layer (7)

A

Network process to application

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21
Q

Presentation Layer (6)

A

Data representation, encryption and decryption, convert machine dependent data to machine independent data

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22
Q

Session Layer (5)

A

Interhost communication, managing sessions between applications

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23
Q

Transport Layer (4)

A

Reliable delivery of packets between points on a network.

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24
Q

Network Layer (3)

A

Addressing, routing and delivery of datagrams between points on a network.

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25
Q

Data link Layer (2)

A

A reliable direct point-to-point data connection. (access and error control)

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26
Q

Physical Layer (1)

A

Direct point-to-point data connection. (Electrical)

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27
Q

vShield Zones

A

Provides firewall protection for traffic between virtual machines. For each Zones Firewall rule, you can specify the source IP, destination IP, source port, destination port, and service.

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28
Q

vShield Edge

A

Provides network edge security and gateway services to isolate the virtual machines in a port group, distributed port group, or Cisco Nexus 1000V. vShield Edge connects isolated, stub networks to shared, uplink networks by providing common gateway services such as DHCP, VPN, NAT, and load balancing. Common deployments of vShield Edge include in the DMZ, VPN extranets, and multitenant cloud environments where vShield Edge provides perimeter security for virtual datacenters (VDCs).

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29
Q

vShield App

A

An interior, virtual-NIC-level firewall that allows you to create access control policies regardless of network topology. vShield App monitors all traffic in and out of an ESXi host, including between virtual machines in the same port group. vShield App includes traffic analysis and container- based policy creation.

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30
Q

vShieldEndpoint

A

Delivers an introspection-based anti-virus solution. vShield Endpoint uses the hypervisor to scan guest virtual machines from the outside without an agent. vShield Endpoint avoids resource bottlenecks while optimizing memory use.

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31
Q

Name the types of virtual SCSI controllers

A

BusLogic Parallel, LSI Logic Parallel, LSI Logic SAS, and VMware Paravirtual.

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32
Q

Raw Device mapping (RDM)

A

Provides a mechanism for a virtual machine to have direct access to a LUN on the physical storage subsystem (Fibre Channel or iSCSI only)

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33
Q

vCenter Storage Monitoring Plug-in

A

Allows you to review information on storage usage and to visually map relationships between all storage entities available in vCenter Server. (installed as base)

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34
Q

vCenter Hardware Status Plug-in

A

Uses CIM monitoring to display the hardware status of hosts that vCenter Server manages. (installed as base)

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35
Q

vCenter Service Status Plug-in

A

Displays the status of vCenter services. (installed as base)

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36
Q

vSphere Update Manager (VUM)

A

Enables administrators to apply updates and patches across ESXi hosts and all managed virtual machines. Administrators can create user-defined security baselines that represent a set of security standards. Security administrators can compare hosts and virtual machines against these baselines to identify and remediate systems that are not in compliance.

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37
Q

vShield Zones

A

An application-aware firewall built for vCenter Server integration. vShield Zones inspects client-server communications and communications between virtual machines to provide detailed traffic analytics and application-aware firewall partitioning. vShield Zones is a critical security component for protecting virtualized datacenters from network-based attacks and misuse.

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38
Q

vCenter Orchestrator

A

A workflow engine that enables you to create and run automated workflows in your vSphere environment. vCenter Orchestrator coordinates workflow tasks across multiple VMware products and third-party management and administration solutions through its open plug-in architecture. vCenter Orchestrator provides a library of workflows that are extensible. You can use any operation available in the vCenter Server API to customize vCenter Orchestrator workflows.

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39
Q

Data Recovery

A

A disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides complete data protection for virtual machines. Data Recovery is fully integrated with vCenter Server to enable centralized and efficient management of backup jobs and includes data deduplication to minimize disk usage.

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40
Q

vSphere PowerCLI

A

A command-line scripting tool built on Windows PowerShell that provides cmdlets for managing and automating vSphere. vSphere PowerCLI provides C# and PowerShell interfaces to VMware vSphere APIs. It includes a number of cmdlets that you can use to perform administration tasks on VMware vSphere components. Microsoft PowerShell uses the .NET object model and provides administrators with management and automation capabilities.

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41
Q

vSphere SDK for Perl

A

A client-side Perl framework that provides an interface to the vSphere API. Administrators and developers who are familiar with Perl can use the vSphere SDK for Perl to automate administrative, provisioning, and monitoring tasks in the vSphere environment. The vSphere SDK for Perl includes utility applications.

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42
Q

vSphere CLI (vCLI)

A

You can use the vSphere CLI command set to run common administration commands against VMware ESXi systems from any machine with network access to those systems. You can run most vSphere CLI commands against a vCenter Server system and target any ESXi system that the vCenter Server system manages. Most administrators run scripts to perform the same task repeatedly or to perform a task on multiple hosts. vSphere CLI commands run on top of the vSphere SDK for Perl. vSphere CLI is supported on Linux and Windows platforms.

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43
Q

vSphere SDK for .NET

A

A client-side framework from VMware that simplifies the programming effort associated with the vSphere API and server-side object model. It is a part of VMware vSphere PowerCLI, which provides C# and PowerShell interfaces to vSphere APIs. Using vSphere SDK for .NET you can create, customize, or manage vSphere inventory objects using vSphere APIs calls.

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44
Q

vSphere Web Services SDK

A

Includes all the components necessary to work with the VMware vSphere API, including WSDL files, sample code, and libraries. The vSphere Web Services SDK facilitates development of client applications that target the VMware vSphere API. With the vSphere Web Services SDK, developers can create client applications to manage, monitor, and maintain VMware vSphere components, as deployed on ESXi and VMware vCenter Server systems.

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45
Q

Which log files does ESXi have?

A
  • hostd.log
  • vmkernel.log
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46
Q

What should you do if an ESX host with the default configuration never syncronizes it’s time when using a windows domain server as the NTP source?

A

Enable the NTP Client on the windows server.

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47
Q

Which vSphere client is required to perform tasks in 5.5?

A

Both the vSphere Client and the vSphere Web Client are required.

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48
Q

What is the ESXi footprint?

A

144MB

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49
Q

How much disk space is required to install ESXi?

A

5.2GB HD = 1.2GB Boot Disk + 4GB Scratch Disk

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50
Q

True or False? ESXi can run on 32-bit HW.

A

False ESXi includes a 64-bit Vmkernel

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51
Q

DCUI

A

ESXi Direct Control User Interface

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52
Q

What is the default admin account on ESXi?

A

root

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53
Q

True or False? ESXi Lockdown mode can only be configured after connection to a vCenter server is made.

A

TRUE

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54
Q

What NTP versions are supported by ESX 5?

A

NTP versions 3 and 4

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55
Q

Virtual Machine configuration file

A

.vmx

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56
Q

Virtual Machine disk file

A

.vmdk and <vm>-flat.vmdk</vm>

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57
Q

Virtual Machine BIOS settings

A

.nvram

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58
Q

Virtual Machine log file

A

.log

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59
Q

Virtual Machine SWAP file

A

.vswp

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60
Q

Virtual Machine snapshot description file

A

.vmsd

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61
Q

Virtual Machince template configuration file

A

.vmtx

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62
Q

True or False? You must use the vSphere Web Client to configure Hardware Version 10 in vSphere 5.5

A

TRUE

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63
Q

Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed

A

Space required for the virtual disk is allocated during creation. Data remaining on the physical device is not erased during creation, but is zeroed out on demand at a later time on first write from the virtual machine. This is the default disk type.

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64
Q

Thick Provision Eager Zeroed

A

Space required for the virtual disk is allocated during creation. Data remaining on the physical device is zeroed out when the disk is created. If you select this check box, this virtual machine can take advantage of VMware vSphere® Fault Tolerance.

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65
Q

Thin Provision

A

A thin-provisioned disk uses only as much datastore space as the disk initially needs. If the thin disk needs more space later, it can expand to the maximum capacity allocated to it.

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66
Q

Optional Disk Mode - Independent Persistent

A

Won’t be included in a snapshot, data persists through reboot

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67
Q

Optional Disk Mode - Independent Non-Persistent

A

Won’t be included in a snapshot, data does not persist through reboot

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68
Q

VSGA

A

Virtual Shared Graphics Adapter

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69
Q

What are the components installed with SSO 5.5?

A
  • VMware Certificate Services
  • VMware Directory Services
  • VMware Identity Management Services
  • VMware KDC Services
  • VMware Secure Token Services
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70
Q

What are the different products/components with which SSO 5.5 is supported?

A
  • VMware vCenter Server
  • VMware vCenter Inventory Services
  • VMware vSphere Data Protection
  • VMware vCenter Orchestrator
  • VMware vSphere Web Client
  • VMware Log Browser
  • VMware vShield Manager
  • Partially - VMware vCloud Director is partially integrated with SSO.
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71
Q

What are the different types of Identity Sources that can be created with SSO 5.5?

A
  • Active Directory (Integrated Windows Authentication)
  • Active Directory as an LDAP server
  • OpenLDAP
  • Local OS
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72
Q

How many SSO server can exist behind a load balancer?

A

With the use of a load balancer, there can be a maximum of 5 SSO server.

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73
Q

Licensing - vSphere Standard

A
  • 8-way vCPU entitlement
  • vMotion
  • Storage vMotion
  • High Availability
  • Data Protection
  • Fault Tolerance
  • vShield Endpoint
  • vSphere Replication
  • Hot Add
  • Thin provisioning
  • Update Manager
  • Storage APIs for data protection
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74
Q

Licensing - vSphere Enterprise

A
  • Reliable Memory
  • Big Data Extensions
  • Virtual Serial Port Concentrator
  • Distributed Resources Scheduler (DRS)
  • Distributed Power Management (DPM)
  • Storage APIs for Array Integration
  • Storage APIs for Multipathing
  • vShield zones
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75
Q

Licensing - vSphere Enterprise Plus

A
  • 64-way vCPU entitlement
  • App HA
  • Storage DRS
  • Profile-Driven Storage
  • Storage I/O Control
  • Network I/O Control
  • Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) Support Flash Read Cache
  • Distributed Switch
  • Host Profiles
  • Auto Deploy
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76
Q

License entitlement

A

The number of physical processors for which each license is required.

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77
Q

vCPU entitlement

A

The number of virtual CPUs that can be allocated to each VM using virtual symmetric multiprocessing (SMP).

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78
Q

SUSE Linux Enterprise Server for VMware

A

Qualified purchases of VMware vSphere entitle free use of Enterprise Linux as a guest OS.

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79
Q

Thin provisioning

A

A dynamic storage system that reduces storage needs and expands to meet the demand of the VM with no performance degradation.

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80
Q

Update Manager

A

An optional server application and database utility, which is controlled by a plug-in and reduces the time spent on patching and upgrading host and VMs.

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81
Q

Data Protection

A

An agentless disk-based backup system that provides deduplication at the destination and is designed for small- to medium-size organizations.

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82
Q

High availability

A

Provides for the automatic restart of VMs if they are on a host that fails; minimizes server downtime.

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83
Q

vMotion

A

Allows the migration of a VM from one physical host to another without disrupting the user. This eliminates the need to have server downtime due to planned hardware downtime.

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84
Q

Storage APIs for data protection

A

Allows for scalable backup without disrupting the users by leveraging supported third-party backup software.

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85
Q

Virtual serial port concentrator

A

Redirects serial ports of VMs so that management traffic is only on the management network, providing a more secure way to manage VMs remotely.

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86
Q

Hot add

A

Allows the addition of CPUs and memory when needed without disruption or downtime.

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87
Q

vShield zones

A

Allows the configuration and maintenance of multiple security zones within software among shared hosts.

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88
Q

Fault tolerance

A

Provides continuous availability for VMs with zero data loss in the event of server failures.

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89
Q

Storage APIs for array integration and multipathing

A

Improves performance and scalability by leveraging efficient array-based operations.

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90
Q

Storage vMotion

A

Avoids application downtime for planned storage maintenance by allowing the migration of the VM files across storage arrays while the VMs are running.

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91
Q

DRS and DPM

A

Automatically balances VM loads across hosts, optimizing efficiency and power management.

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92
Q

Storage I/O control

A

Continuously monitors I/O load of storage volumes and dynamically allocates available I/O resources based on administrator settings for specific business needs.

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93
Q

Network I/O control

A

Prioritizes network access by continuously monitoring I/O load over the network and dynamically allocating available I/O resources to administrator specified flows to support business needs.

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94
Q

Distributed switch

A

Centralizes provisioning, administration, and monitoring of your virtual network using cluster-level aggregation of resources.

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95
Q

Host profiles

A

Simplifies host deployment and compliance using baselines to automate the configuration of multiple hosts.

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96
Q

Auto Deploy

A

Allows for deployment of multiple vSphere hosts in minutes by streaming the installation directly into RAM.

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97
Q

Storage DRS

A

Provides for more effective balancing of VMs using automated load balancing across datastores in datastore clusters.

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98
Q

Profile-driven storage

A

Allows for the prioritization of storage options and reduces the steps in the selection of VM storage and ensures that VMs are placed on the right type of storage for each VM.

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99
Q

Flash Read Cache

A

A high performance read cache layer that dramatically lowers application latency.

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100
Q

App HA

A

A virtual appliance introduced with vSphere 5.5 that works with vSphere HA to provide for The restart of an application service if it detects a failure The restart and the reset of a VM if the application fails to start.

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101
Q

vCenter Server Essentials Packaging

A

Integrated management for vSphere Essentials Kits

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102
Q

vCenter Server Foundation Packaging

A

Centralized management for up to three vSphere hosts

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103
Q

vCenter Server Standard Packaging

A

Highly scalable management with rapid provisioning, monitoring, orchestration and control of all virtual machines in a vSphere environment

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104
Q

Management service

A

Acts as universal hub for provisioning, monitoring and configuring virtualized environments

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105
Q

Database server

A

Stores persistent configuration data and performance information

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106
Q

Inventory service

A

Allows administrators to search the entire object inventory of multiple vCenter Servers from one place

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107
Q

vSphere Clients

A

Provides administrators with a feature-rich console for accessing one or more VMware vCenter Servers simultaneously

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108
Q

vCenter APIs and .NET Extension

A

Allows integration between vCenter Server and other tools, with support for customized plug-ins to the vSphere Client

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109
Q

vCenter Single Sign-On

A

Simplifies administration by allowing users to log-in once and then access all instances or layers of vCenter without the need for further authentication

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110
Q

vCenter™ Orchestrator™

A

Streamlines and automates key IT processes

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111
Q

vCenter Server Linked Mode

A

Enables a common inventory view across multiple instances of vCenter Server

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112
Q

All vCenter Server Packaging

A
  • Management service
  • Database server
  • Inventory service
  • vSphere Clients
  • vCenter APIs and .NET Extension
  • vCenter Single Sign-On
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113
Q

vCenter Server Standard

A
  • vCenter™ Orchestrator™
  • vCenter Server Linked Mode
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114
Q

SSO Requirements

A
  • vCenter server
  • Inventory server
  • Processor: Intel or AMD x64 with two or more logical cores and 2 GHz or faster speed for vCenter and Inventory server
  • Memory: 3 GB RAM minimum for vCenter and Inventory server Storage: 2 GB disk storage for vCenter and at least 60 GB for Inventory server Network: 1 Gbps minimum network interface cards
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115
Q

vCenter Appliance

A

A prepackaged 64-bit application on SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 11including a PostGresSQL database

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116
Q

vCenter Appliance Maximums

A
  • 100 ESXi hosts
  • 3000 VMs
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117
Q

vCenter Authentication Types

A
  • local computer
  • AD
  • NIS
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118
Q

vCenter Appliance not supported

A
  • vCenter Linked Mode
  • SQL Server
  • IPv6
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119
Q

vCenter Server Requirements

A
  • Number of CPUs: 2
  • Processor: 2.0 GHz or higher Intel or AMD processor
  • Memory: 4 GB minimum (More depending on location of SSO and Inventory Server.)
  • Disk Storage: 4 GB minimum (More depending on location of SSO and Inventory Server.)
  • Operating System: 64-bit
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120
Q

VMware VCMSDS

A

Provides vCenter Server Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) directory services.

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121
Q

Auto Deploy rules engine

A

Tells the Auto Deploy server which images and which profiles to serve to which hosts. You use Auto Deploy PowerCLI to define the rules that the engine uses.

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122
Q

Auto Deploy Image profiles

A

VMware Infrastructure Bundles (VIBs) made by VMware and its partners. They enable you to define standard and custom installation of ESXi hosts. They are generally stored in public software depots.

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123
Q

Auto Deploy Host profiles

A

Templates that further define the ESXi host’s configuration, such as network and storage settings. They can be created from one host and used by many hosts.

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124
Q

Auto Deploy Answer files

A

These files store information that the user provides during the boot process. Only one answer file exists for each host.

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125
Q

ESXi Minimums

A
  • Processor: 64-bit CPU. Most AMD Opteron and Intel Xeon processors are supported.
  • Memory: 2 GB minimum (4 GB for ESXi 5.5)
  • One or more Ethernet controllers: Both 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps are supported. For best performance, use separate controllers for the management network and the VM networks.
  • Disk storage: A SCSI adapter, Fibre Channel adapter, converged network adapter, iSCSI adapter, or internal RAID controller.
  • Disk: A SCSI disk, Fibre Channel LUN, iSCSI disk, or RAID LUN with unpartitioned space: SATA, SCSI, SAS.
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126
Q

Roles in vCenter

A
  • System
  • Sample
  • Custom
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127
Q

vCenter System Roles

A
  • No Access
  • Read Only
  • Administrator
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128
Q

vCenter Sample Roles

A
  • Virtual machine power user
  • Virtual machine user
  • Resource pool administrator
  • VMware consolidated backup user
  • Datastore consumer
  • Network consumer
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129
Q

Permissions Rule

A

permission that is applied directly to an object or user supersedes a permission that has been inherited

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130
Q

Security Policies for Switches and Port Groups

A
  • Promiscuous Mode
  • MAC Address Changes
  • Forged Transmits
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131
Q

Promiscuous Mode

A

receive all traffic to an application on the VM (for IDS or similar) Default=reject

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132
Q

MAC Address Changes

A

check source and destination, Default Reject

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133
Q

Forged Transmits

A

compare MACs to assigned, Default Reject

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134
Q

Which of following features are supported on Enterprise Plus but not on Enterprise? (Choose two.) a. vMotion

b. Storage DRS
c. Distributed switch
d. SSO

A

b. Storage DRS
c. Distributed switch

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135
Q

Which of the following are not advantages of using the vCenter appliance?(Choose two.)

a. Simplified deployment
b. Support for IPv6
c. Lower TCO
d. Linked Mode

A

b. Support for IPv6
d. Linked Mode

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136
Q

Which of the following are not recommended media to use when installing ESXi interactively? (Choose two.)

a. CD/DVD
b. USB
c. Network share
d. Floppy disk

A

c. Network share
d. Floppy disk

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137
Q

Which of the following stores and provides images and host profiles to ESXi host during Auto Deploy?

a. Auto Deploy Rules Engine
b. Auto Deploy Server
c. Image Builder
d. Answer File

A

b. Auto Deploy Server

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138
Q

How much memory is required as a bare minimum for an ESXi 5.5 host?

a. 2 GB
b. 3 GB
c. 4 GB
d. 6 GB

A

c. 4 GB

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139
Q

How many CPU cores minimum are required for an ESXi 5.5 host?

a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 8

A

a. 2

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140
Q

Which of the following is not a system role in vCenter 5.5?

a. No Access
b. Read Only
c. Read
d. Administrator

A

c. Read

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141
Q

Which of the following is not a network security policy in vCenter 5.5?

a. Promiscuous Mode
b. MAC address changes
c. Forged transmits
d. IP address changes

A

d. IP address changes

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142
Q

VMware vSphere by itself is an example of what type of cloud?

a. Public
b. Private
c. Hybrid
d. VMware vSphere is not a cloud.

A

b. Private

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143
Q

Which of the following best describes the four main resources used by computers in the vSphere architecture?

a. CPU, vRAM, RAM, disk
b. CPU, RAM, disk, network
c. CPU, shares, network, RAM
d. Network, bandwidth, storage, CPU

A

b. CPU, RAM, disk, network

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144
Q

Which of the following features are supported with Enterprise Plus but not with Enterprise? (Choose two.)

a. Storage I/O control
b. Distributed switch
c. SSO
d. Hot add

A

a. Storage I/O control
b. Distributed switch

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145
Q

Which of the following is not a basic requirement for CPU for vCenter Server 5.5?

a. 64-bit
b. Two CPUs or dual-core
c. 2.0 GHz higher
d. Hyperthreading enabled

A

d. Hyperthreading enabled

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146
Q

Which of the following is not one of the minimum requirements for the installation of an ESXi 5.5 host?

a. 64-bit CPU
b. 8 GB RAM
c. SSO
d. Unpartitioned space

A

b. 8 GB RAM

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147
Q

Which of the following is the correct order to upgrade your vSphere installation?

a. VUM, vCenter, hosts, VMs
b. vCenter, hosts, VMs, VUM
c. VUM, hosts, VMs, vCenter
d. vCenter, VUM, Hosts, VMs

A

d. vCenter, VUM, Hosts, VMs

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148
Q

Which of the following is not a system role in vCenter?

a. No access
b. Virtual machine user
c. Administrator
d. Read only

A

b. Virtual machine user

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149
Q

Which of the following is not a sample role in vCenter?

a. Virtual machine power user
b. Administrator
c. Virtual machine user
d. Datastore consumer

A

a. Virtual machine power user
b. Administrator

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150
Q

Which of following are true about vCenter permissions? (Choose two.)

a. Permissions that are applied to a user take precedence over those applied to a group in which the user is a member.
b. Permissions that are applied to a group take precedence over those that are applied to a user.
c. Permissions that are applied to multiple groups result in only the least privilege for the user.
d. Permissions that are applied to multiple groups result in the user receiving the union of the privileges.

A

a. Permissions that are applied to a user take precedence over those applied to a group in which the user is a member.
d. Permissions that are applied to multiple groups result in the user receiving the union of the privileges.

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151
Q

Which of the following tools enable you to manage a host that is in Lockdown Mode? (Choose two.)

a. DCUI
b. PowerCLI
c. vMA
d. vCenter

A

a. DCUI
d. vCenter

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152
Q

Which of the following is a network security policy that is set by default to Reject?

a. Forged Transmits
b. Promiscuous Mode
c. MAC Address Changes
d. NIC Teaming

A

b. Promiscuous Mode

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153
Q

Which type of cloud offers the most control of resources and the prioritization of those resources?

a. Public
b. Private
c. Hybrid
d. No cloud offers control of resources.

A

b. Private

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154
Q

5 main types of VMkernel services that require the use of a VMkernel port

A
  • IP storage
  • vMotion Management
  • Fault-tolerant logging
  • VSAN
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155
Q

Vmkernal service - IP storage

A

iSCSI or networked-attached storage (NAS).

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156
Q

Vmkernal service - vMotion

A

A VMkernel port is required and a separate network is highly recommended.

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157
Q

Vmkernal service - Management

A

Because ESXi does not have a service console or service console ports, management is performed through a specially configured VMkernel port.

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158
Q

Vmkernal service - Fault-tolerant logging

A

A feature in vSphere that allows a high degree of hardware fault tolerance for the VMs involved, but also requires a separate and distinct VMkernel port.

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159
Q

Vmkernal service - VSAN

A

Virtual storage-area network (VSAN) is a new type of storage that is available only on vSphere 5.5. It leverages the capacity of the local drives to create a flexible storage area.

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160
Q

Inbound traffic shaping

A

A port group setting that can throttle the aggregate bandwidth inbound to the switch. This might be useful for a port group containing VMs that are being used as web servers.

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161
Q

VM network port block

A

Specific ports can be configured as “blocked” for a specified VM’s use. This might be helpful for troubleshooting or for advanced configurations.

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162
Q

Private VLANs

A

This is a vSphere implementation of a VLAN standard that is available on the latest physical switches. With regard to vSphere, private virtual local-area networks (PVLANs) can be created in the vSphere that are used only in the vSphere and not on your external network. In essence, a PVLAN is a VLAN within a VLAN. In addition, the PVLANs in your vSphere can be kept from seeing each other. The section “Configuring vSS and vDS Policies” covers PVLANs in greater depth.

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163
Q

Load-based teaming

A

You can configure network load balancing in a much more intelligent fashion than with vSSs, by enabling the system to recognize the current load on each link before making frame forwarding decisions. This could be useful if the loads that are on each link vary considerably over time.

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164
Q

Datacenter-level management

A

A vDS is managed from the vCenter as a single switch from the control plane, even though many hosts are connected to each other at the I/O plane. This provides a centralized control mechanism and guarantees consistency of configuration.

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165
Q

Network vMotion

A

Because a port group that is on a vDS is actually connected to multiple hosts, a VM can migrate from one host to another without changing ports. The positive effect of this is that the attributes assigned to the port group (such as security, traffic shaping, and NIC teaming) will migrate as well.

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166
Q

vSphere switch APIs

A

Third-party switches have been and are being created that can be installed in the control plane. On switches such as the Cisco Nexus 1000v, the true essence of the switch is installed into the vCenter as a virtual appliance (VA).

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167
Q

Per-port policy settings

A

Most of the configuration on a vDS is at the port group level, but it can be overridden at the individual port level. This allows you tremendous flexibility with regard to port settings such as security, traffic shaping, and so on.

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168
Q

Port state monitoring

A

Each port on vDS can be managed and monitored independently of all other ports. This means that you can quickly identify an issue that relates to a specific port.

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169
Q

Link Layer Discovery Protocol

A

Similar to Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) enables vDSs to discover other devices, such as switches and routers, that are directly connected to them. The advantage of LLDP is that it is an open protocol that is not proprietary to Cisco.

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170
Q

User-defined network I/O control

A

You can set up a quality of service (QoS) (of a sort), but instead of defining traffic paths by protocols, you can define the traffic paths by types of VMware traffic. In earlier versions of vDSs, you could define traffic as vMotion, Management, and others, but now you can define your own categories. This adds to flexibility in network control and design.

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171
Q

NetFlow

A

You can use the standard for traffic monitoring, NetFlow, to monitor, analyze, and log traffic flows in your vSphere. This enables you to easily monitor virtual network flows with the same tools that you use to monitor traffic flows in the physical network. Your vDS can forward NetFlow information to a monitoring machine in your external network.

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172
Q

Port mirroring

A

Most commonly used with intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and intrusion prevention systems (IPSs), port mirroring provides for a copy of a packet to be sent to a monitoring station so that traffic flows can be monitored without the IPS/IDS skewing the data. Port mirroring is new to vSphere 5.x vDSs.

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173
Q

Backup, Restore, Import, Export Configuration

A

You can back up a configuration of a vDS so that it can easily be restored later or even exported from one vDS and imported onto another one. This saves time and increases network flexibility.

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174
Q

LACP

A

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) allows for the combining of multiple physical links into one logical link for the purposes of fault tolerance and load balancing.

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175
Q

VM port group

A

used to connect VMs to virtual switches on a single host. Allows you to get more than one function out of each switch establishing different polices, such as security, traffic shaping, and NIC teaming

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176
Q

vDS

A

Like a vSS but can be connected to more than one host (up to 1000) at the same time

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177
Q

vSphere Standard Switch (vSS) Capabilities

A
  • Layer 2 switch
  • VLAN segmentation
  • 802.1Q tagging
  • NIC teaming
  • Outbound traffic shaping
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178
Q

vSphere Distributed Switch (vDS) Capabilities

A
  • Inbound traffic shaping
  • VM network port block
  • Private VLANs
  • Load-based teaming
  • Datacenter-level management
  • Network vMotion
  • vSphere switch APIs
  • Per-port policy settings
  • Port state monitoring
  • Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
  • User-defined network I/O control
  • NetFlow Port mirroring
  • Backup, Restore, Export, Import Configuration
  • LACP
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179
Q

dvUplink groups

A

connect vDS to the hidden switches that are contained in your hosts and then from there to the physical world.

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180
Q

Which of the following are not true about port groups on a vSS? (Choose two.)

a. You can add a new VMkernel port to an existing switch.
b. You can add a new VM port to an existing switch.
c. You can have only one port group on each switch.
d. You always need to assign a vmnic to a port group.

A

c. You can have only one port group on each switch.
d. You always need to assign a vmnic to a port group.

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181
Q

Which of the following is not a common use or configuration of a VMkernel port?

a. IP storage
b. Storage vMotion
c. vMotion
d. Management

A

b. Storage vMotion

182
Q

Which of the following is true about switch and port group policies on a vSS?

a. Switch settings override port group settings.
b. You cannot configure port group settings different from switch settings.
c. There are no switch settings on a vSS.
d. Port group settings override switch settings for the VMs on the port group.

A

d. Port group settings override switch settings for the VMs on the port group.

183
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to a single vSphere 5.5 vDS?

a. 32
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 100

A

c. 1000

184
Q

Which of the following is the minimum license requirement to create a vDS?

a. Enterprise Plus
b. Enterprise
c. Advanced
d. Essentials

A

a. Enterprise Plus

185
Q

Which view should you be in to add a host to an existing vDS?

a. Hosts and Clusters
b. Networking
c. vSphere
d. VMs and Templates

A

b. Networking

186
Q

Which of the following is not a common policy for vSS switch and port groups?

a. Traffic shaping
b. Teaming and Failover
c. Permissions
d. Security

A

c. Permissions

187
Q

Which of the following is true about vDS policies?

a. Policies set at the port group level override those at the port level.
b. Policies cannot be set at the port level.
c. Policies are always set at the port level.
d. Policies set at the port level override policies set at the port group level.

A

d. Policies set at the port level override policies set at the port group level.

188
Q

Which of the following is not a load-balancing option in vSphere?

a. Route based on the originating virtual port ID
b. Beacon probing
c. Route based on source MAC hash
d. Route based on IP hash

A

b. Beacon probing

189
Q

What is the maximum number of LAGs that you can have on a single vSphere 5.5 vDS?

a. 24
b. 64
c. 32
d. 1

A

b. 64

190
Q

Which of the following is not a valid use for a VMkernel port?

a. IP storage
b. vMotion
c. FT logging
d. Service console port

A

d. Service console port

191
Q

Which of the following are types of connections on a vSS on an ESXi 5.5 host? (Choose two.)

a. Service console
b. VM port groups
c. Host bus adapter
d. VMkernel ports

A

b. VM port groups
d. VMkernel ports

192
Q

If you configure policies on a specific port group that conflict with polices on the switch, which of the following will result?

a. The port group policies on the switch always override those on a port group.
b. The port group policies override the switch policies for the VMs on that port group.
c. The port group policies override those on the switch and will be applied to all VMs on all port groups.
d. A configuration error will be indicated.

A

b. The port group policies override the switch policies for the VMs on that port group.

193
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts that you can connect to a vSphere 5.5 vDS?

a. 500
b. 10
c. 1,000
d. 32

A

c. 1,000

194
Q

Which of the following is the correct traffic shaping metric for average bandwidth, peak bandwidth, and burst size, respectively?

a. Kbps, Kbps, KB
b. KB, KB, KB
c. Kbps, Kbps, Kbps
d. KB, KB, Kbps

A

a. Kbps, Kbps, KB

195
Q

What should you change to enable TSO on a VMkernel interface on ESXi 5.x?

a. You must place a check mark in the correct configuration parameter.
b. TSO is enabled by default on all VMkernel interfaces on ESXi 5.x.
c. You need more than one vmnic assigned to the port.
d. You must enable the interface for IP storage as well.

A

b. TSO is enabled by default on all VMkernel interfaces on ESXi 5.x.

196
Q

Which of the following is a capability of a vDS but not of a vSS?

a. Outbound traffic shaping
b. Network vMotion
c. VLAN segmentation
d. NIC teaming

A

b. Network vMotion

197
Q

If you have a vDS network policy configured for a port group and a conflicting network policy configured for a specific port within the port group, which of the following will result?

a. The port group policy overrides the specific port policy.
b. A configuration error will be indicated.
c. The specific port setting overrides the port group setting for the VM on that port.
d. The specific port setting is applied to all VMs connected to the port group.

A

c. The specific port setting overrides the port group setting for the VM on that port.

198
Q

Which of the following load balancing policies requires 802.3ad or Ether- Channel on the switch?

a. Route based on IP hash
b. Route based on MAC hash
c. Route based on originating virtual port ID
d. Use explicit failover order

A

a. Route based on IP hash

199
Q

To what should you configure the MTU setting on a vSS or vDS to allow for jumbo frames?

a. 1500
b. 15000
c. 150
d. 9000

A

d. 9000

200
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the configuration of a VMkernel port?

a. IP address
b. Subnet mask
c. Default gateway
d. MAC address

A

d. MAC address

201
Q

Which two types of ports can you create on a vSphere 5.x vSS? (Choose two.)

a. Service console
b. VM port group
c. Host bus adapter
d. VMkernel port

A

b. VM port group
d. VMkernel port

202
Q

What is the maximum number of LAGs that you can have on a single vSphere 5.5 vDS?

a. 1
b. 64
c. 32
d. 10

A

b. 64

203
Q

Which of the following is required for VM port group configuration?

a. IP address
b. MAC address
c. Label
d. Uplink

A

c. Label

204
Q

Which of the following tools allows you to migrate multiple VMs from a vSS onto a vDS?

a. vMotion
b. The Migrate Virtual Machine Wizard
c. Storage vMotion
d. DRS

A

b. The Migrate Virtual Machine Wizard

205
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three main policies on a vSS?

a. Security
b. IP storage
c. Traffic shaping
d. Teaming and Failover

A

b. IP storage

206
Q

Which of the following best describes NIC teaming?

a. NIC teaming is using more than one vmnic on a VM.
b. NIC teaming is using more than one vNIC on a VM.
c. NIC teaming is using more than one vmnic on a switch or port group.
d. NIC teaming is connecting more than one virtual switch to the same vmnic.

A

c. NIC teaming is using more than one vmnic on a switch or port group.

207
Q

Which of the following load balancing policies is the default for a vSphere vSS?

a. Route based on originating virtual port ID
b. Route based on MAC hash
c. Route based on IP Hash
d. Use explicit failover order

A

a. Route based on originating virtual port ID

208
Q

What is the maximum number of vmnics that can be added to a single LAG on a vSphere 5.5 vDS?

a. 64
b. 1
c. 10
d. 24

A

d. 24

209
Q

dvUplink groups

A

connect vDS to the hidden switches that are contained in your hosts and then from there to the physical world.

210
Q

vSSs policy levels

A

Switch or PortGroup levels, port group level policies override switch level

211
Q

Types of vSS policies

A
  • Security
  • Traffic shaping
  • NIC teaming
212
Q

vDS PortGroup level policies

A
  • Security
  • Traffic Shaping
  • VLAN Teaming and Failover
  • Resource Allocation Monitoring
  • Miscellaneous (port blocking)
  • Advanced (override settings)
213
Q

PortGroup Load balancing options

A
  • Route based on the originating virtual port ID
  • Route based on source MAC hash
  • Route based on IP hash
  • Use explicit failover order
214
Q

Route based on the originating virtual port ID

A

The physical NIC is determined by the ID of the virtual port to which the VM is connected. This option has the lowest overhead and is the default option for vSSs and port groups on vSSs.

215
Q

Route based on source MAC hash

A

All of VM’s outbound traffic is mapped to a specific physical NIC that is based on the MAC address associated with the VM’s virtual network interface card (vNIC). This method has relatively low overhead and is compatible with all switches—even those that do not support the 802.3ad protocol.

216
Q

Route based on IP hash

A

The physical NIC for each outbound packet is chosen based on a hash of the source and destination addresses contained in the packet. This method has the disadvantage of using more CPU resources; however, it can provide better distribution of traffic across the physical NICs. This method also requires the 802.3ad link aggregation support or EtherChannel on the switch.

217
Q

Use explicit failover order

A

The switch will always choose from its list of active adapters the highest order uplink that is not currently in use.

218
Q

Network Failover Detection Options

A
  • Link Status Only
  • Beacon Probing
219
Q

Link Status Only

A

Relies solely on the link status that the network adapter provides. This option detects cable pulls and physical switch failures, but it does not detect configuration errors. This method has no overhead and is the default.

220
Q

Beacon Probing

A

Listens for link status but also sends out beacon packets from each physical NIC that it expects to be received on the other physical NIC. In this way, physical issues can be detected as well as configuration errors, such as improper settings on Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) or VLANs. Also, you should not use Beacon Probing with IP-hash load balancing because the way the beacon traffic is handled does not work well with this option and can cause a “network flapping” error.

221
Q

Notify Switches

A

switch is notified whenever a VM’s traffic will be routed over a different physical NIC because of a failover event

222
Q

Failback

A

failed adapter that has recovered will be returned to Active status immediately after its recovery

223
Q

types of private VLANs

A
  • Promiscuous
  • Isolated
  • Community
224
Q

Promiscuous

A

This is named (numbered) by the primary VLAN that you chose from your physical network. It is the remaining piece that is not separated from the primary VLAN. VMs on this VLAN are reachable and can be reached by any VM in the same primary VLAN.

225
Q

Isolated

A

This is a private VLAN used to create a separate network for one VM in your virtual network that is not used at all in the physical world. It can communicate with promiscuous VLANs.

226
Q

Community

A

This is a private VLAN used to create a separate network to be shared by more than one VM. VMs on community VLANs can communicate only to other VMs on the same community or to VMs on a promiscuous VLAN.

227
Q

Traffic Shaping Policies for vSphere Standard Switches - Outbound Only

A
  • Average Bandwidth
  • Peak Bandwidth
  • Burst Size
228
Q

Average Bandwidth

A

Establishes the number of kilobits per second to allow across a port, averaged over time.

229
Q

Peak Bandwidth

A

The maximum aggregate traffic measured in kilobits per second that will be allowed for a port group or switch.

230
Q

Burst Size

A

The maximum number of bytes to be allowed in a burst. A burst is defined as exceeding the average bandwidth.

231
Q

TCP Segmentation Offload (TSO)

A

enhances the networking performance of VMs by allowing the TCP stack to emit very large frames (up to 64 KB) even though the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of the interface is much smaller.

232
Q

TSO Guest OS support

A
  • Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition with Service Pack 2 (32 bit and 64 bit)
  • Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4 (64 bit)
  • Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 (32 bit and 64 bit)
  • SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10 (32 bit and 64 bit)
233
Q

Which of following is not a type of storage access?

a. Fibre Channel
b. Network-attached storage
c. VMFS
d. Fibre Channel over Ethernet

A

c. VMFS

234
Q

In the runtime name of VMFS datastore vmhba1:0:2:4, to which storage processor is the datastore connected?

a. 1
b. 4
c. 0
d. 2

A

d. 2

235
Q

Which of the following can prevent a host from seeing LUNs that are on a storage processor to which it is connected?

a. Zoning
b. Shares
c. Permissions
d. Masking

A

d. Masking

236
Q

What type of iSCSI initiator can allow a host to boot from a SAN LUN with no additional software?

a. Software
b. Dependent Hardware
c. Independent Hardware
d. All iSCSI initiators can allow a host to boot from a SAN LUN.

A

c. Independent Hardware

237
Q

What is the maximum number of extents that can be added to a VMFS datastore that already has one extent?

a. 32
b. 100
c. 31
d. 15

A

c. 31

238
Q

What is the maximum size LUN that can be on a VMFS-5 datastore?

a. 64 TB
b. 72 GB
c. 32 TB
d. 500 GB

A

a. 64 TB

239
Q

Which of the following are not types of datastores? (Choose two.)

a. VMFS
b. Fibre Channel
c. NFS
d. iSCSI

A

b. Fibre Channel d. iSCSI

240
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of VMFS-5?

a. Support for greater than 2 TB storage devices for each extent
b. Standard 1 MB block size with support for 62 TB virtual disks
c. Support for greater than 2 TB disk size for RDMs
d. Fully backward compatible to ESX/ESXi 4.x hosts

A

d. Fully backward compatible to ESX/ESXi 4.x hosts

241
Q

Which of the following is the result of unmounting an NFS datastore?

a. All data on the NFS server’s share is deleted.
b. All the metadata on the NFS server’s share is deleted.
c. The datastore is not deleted from the host, and the data remains on the NFS server.
d. The datastore is unmounted from the host, but the data remains on the NFS server.

A

d. The datastore is unmounted from the host, but the data remains on the NFS server.

242
Q

Which of the following is the largest extent that you can have in a VMFS-5 datastore?

a. 2 TB minus 512 KB
b. 4 TB
c. 64 TB
d. 256 GB

A

c. 64 TB

243
Q

Which storage adapter type is similar to a mapped drive?

a. SAN
b. Fibre Channel
c. FCoE
d. NAS

A

d. NAS

244
Q

Which two types of iSCSI initiator provide for TOE without the use of the VMkernel? (Choose two.)

a. Software
b. Independent hardware
c. Thin provisioned
d. Dependent hardware

A

b. Independent hardware
d. Dependent hardware

245
Q

Which type of Fibre Channel network segmentation method controls whether one WWN can see another WWN?

a. LUN masking
b. Zoning
c. VLAN
d. VPN

A

b. Zoning

246
Q

Which permissions should be set on an NAS datastore that will be used to store VM files?

a. Read
b. Root
c. Read-Write
d. Full Access

A

c. Read-Write

247
Q

What is the minimum number of hosts that can be in a vSAN?

a. 3
b. 2
c. 8
d. 4

A

a. 3

248
Q

How many hosts can be included in a vSAN cluster?

a. As many as needed
b. 8
c. 32
d. 256

A

c. 32

249
Q

How is vSAN enabled for a cluster?

a. A virtual appliance is created to support it.
b. It is enabled through the cluster settings on vSphere.
c. It is attached to an NAS export.
d. A pointer file is used in a VMFS.

A

b. It is enabled through the cluster settings on vSphere.

250
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VMFS-5 but not of VMFS-3?

a. Can store VMs, ISOs, and VM templates
b. Can have up to 32 extents in a datastore
c. Can support 2 TB+ files with a 1 MB block size
d. Can be expanded online

A

c. Can support 2 TB+ files with a 1 MB block size

251
Q

When you unmount a VMFS datastore, which of the following happens to the data and metadata on its LUNs?

a. The data and metadata are retained, but the datastore is inactive and unavailable.
b. The metadata is deleted, but the data could be recovered in a clean room.
c. The data and metadata are both immediately deleted.
d. The data and metadata are still available for use.

A

a. The data and metadata are retained, but the datastore is inactive and unavailable.

252
Q

What is the maximum number of times that you can expand a single extent on a VMFS-5 datastore?

a. 32
b. You cannot expand a single extent on a VMFS-5 datastore.
c. You can expand the extent an unlimited number of times, but only to a maximum size of 2 TB.
d. You can expand the extent an unlimited number of times, but only to a maximum size of 64 TB.

A

d. You can expand the extent an unlimited number of times, but only to a maximum size of 64 TB.

253
Q

Which of following is not considered an advantage of Fibre Channel SAN storage?

a. Flexible management
b. Lower overhead
c. Takes load off Ethernet network
d. Low cost

A

d. Low cost

254
Q

Which of the following is the only protocol supported for NAS on vSphere 5.0?

a. CIFS
b. NFS v3 over UDP
c. NFS v4
d. NFS v3 over TCP

A

d. NFS v3 over TCP

255
Q

How many VMkernel ports are required at a minimum to support software initiated iSCSI storage on vSphere 5.x?

a. 2
b. 1
c. 0
d. 3

A

b. 1

256
Q

Which additional setting should be configured on an NAS datastore that will be used to store ISOs that you want to protect?

a. Read
b. Root
c. Read-Only
d. Full Access

A

c. Read-Only

257
Q

Which storage filter excludes from consideration LUNs that are ineligible for use because of host or storage type incompatibility?

a. Same Host and Transport
b. RDM
c. VMFS
d. Host Rescan

A

a. Same Host and Transport

258
Q

Which of the following is the default port used by iSCSI for dynamic discovery?

a. 80
b. 3260
c. 20224
d. 902

A

b. 3260

259
Q

How many VMkernel ports are required at minimum to support a three-host vSAN cluster?

a. 3
b. 2
c. 6
d. 1

A

a. 3

260
Q

Which of the following is a feature of VMFS-5 but not of VMFS-3?

a. Can store VMs, ISOs, and VM templates
b. Can have up to 32 extents in a datastore
c. Can support extents up to 64 TB in size
d. Can be expanded online

A

c. Can support extents up to 64 TB in size

261
Q

When you delete an NFS datastore, which of the following happens to the data and metadata?

a. The data and metadata are retained, but the datastore is unavailable to the host from which the datastore was deleted.
b. The metadata is deleted, but the data could be recovered in a clean room.
c. The data and metadata are both immediately deleted.
d. The data and metadata are still available for use.

A

a. The data and metadata are retained, but the datastore is unavailable to the host from which the datastore was deleted.

262
Q

Which of the following is a best practice when configuring extent size on a VMFS datastore?

a. Customize each extent for your datastore.
b. You cannot configure extent size when creating a LUN.
c. Always set the extent size to 50% of the available space.
d. Select Maximum Available Space .

A

d. Select Maximum Available Space .

263
Q

What is the maximum amount of memory that can be assigned to a Version 10 virtual machine?

a. 2 TB
b. 256 GB
c. 1 TB
d. 64 GB

A

c. 1 TB

264
Q

Which of the following are not supported on a Version 10 virtual machine? (Choose two.)

a. 12 vnics
b. 5 serial ports
c. USB
d. Hot add memory

A

a. 12 vnics
b. 5 serial ports

265
Q

Which of the following is a virtual machine feature that comes only with VMware Tools?

a. Hot add hard disk
b. Connections to virtual switch
c. More than one datastore
d. SVGA+ display

A

d. SVGA+ display

266
Q

Which type of disk provisioning is slowest to create but required for some high-performance applications and databases?

a. Thin
b. Thin eager zeroed
c. Thick eager zeroed
d. Thick lazy zeroed

A

c. Thick eager zeroed

267
Q

Which of the following cannot be added to a vApp?

a. Host
b. VM
c. Resource Pool
d. vService

A

a. Host

268
Q

When you power off a vApp, which of the following happens?

a. The vApp powers off but VMs remain powered on.
b. The VMs in the vApp gracefully shut down based on their shutdown order.
c. The VMs in the vApp are all powered off immediately

A

b. The VMs in the vApp gracefully shut down based on their shutdown order.

269
Q

It is not possible to control the power of a vApp. What is the maximum number of registered VMs on vCenter 5.x?

a. 10,000
b. 1,000
c. 15,000
d. 30,000

A

c. 15,000

270
Q

What is the maximum amount of RAM on ESXi5.5?

a. 1 TB
b. 2 TB
c. 512 GB
d. 4 TB

A

d. 4 TB

271
Q

If a VM is created with an available memory of 2GB and no reservation is assigned, how large will its VSWP file be when it is powered on?

a. 0 GB
b. 2 GB
c. There is not enough information to determine.
d. It will not have a .vswp file when it is powered on.

A

b. 2 GB

272
Q

Which of the following files is only a description of the virtual disk on a VM?

a. -flat.vmdk
b. .vmdk
c. .vmx
d. .vmss

A

b. .vmdk

273
Q

What is the maximum number of vCPUs supported by a Version 10 VM?

a. 8
b. 4
c. 64
d. 32

A

c. 64

274
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to Version 10 hardware? (Choose two.)

a. Fully backward compatible to ESX/ESXi 3.5 and 4.x
b. Can support up to 1 TB available memory
c. Can support up to 2 TB available memory
d. Can support hot plug CPU and hot add memory

A

b. Can support up to 1 TB available memory
d. Can support hot plug CPU and hot add memory

275
Q

Which of following is not an enhancement resulting from installation of VMware Tools?

a. SVGA display
b. Ability to hot plug vCPU
c. Balloon driver mechanism for memory control
d. VM Heartbeat

A

b. Ability to hot plug vCPU

276
Q

If disk shares were configured Normal for a VM, how many shares would it have?

a. 100
b. 10
c. 1,000
d. 0

A

c. 1,000

277
Q

What is the maximum number of powered-on VMs on a single unlinked vCenter?

a. 10,000
b. 15,000
c. 20,000
d. 25,000

A

a. 10,000

278
Q

On Version 10 virtual hardware, what is the maximum number of USB devices that can be simultaneously connected to a VM through the vSphere Client?

a. 4
b. 20
c. 32
d. 127

A

b. 20

279
Q

What is the maximum physical RDM size that can be connected to a VM through a VMFS-5 datastore?

a. 2 TB–512 B
b. 64 TB
c. 2 TB
d. 64 GB

A

b. 64 TB

280
Q

When you are exporting a VM or vApp, which type of file format should you use if you are planning on exporting it to a thumb drive and, therefore, you want only one consolidated file?

a. VMDK
b. OVF
c. OVA
d. Snapshot

A

c. OVA

281
Q

Which of following is the extension of a text file that describes a VM that is marked to never be powered on?

a. .vmtx
b. .vmx
c. -flat.vmdk
d. There is no such file.

A

a. .vmtx

282
Q

Which of the following is not a major category of virtual hardware?

a. CPU
b. Memory
c. Disk
d. Guest OS

A

d. Guest OS

283
Q

Which of the following are enhancements to a VM that are provided by the installation of VMware Tools? (Choose two.)

a. The ability to hot add memory
b. Sync driver for quiescing I/O
c. VGA display
d. Improved mouse support

A

b. Sync driver for quiescing I/O
d. Improved mouse support

284
Q

Which of the following is the maximum amount of memory supported by Version 10 VMs?

a. 256 GB
b. 1 TB
c. 64 GB
d. 2 TB

A

b. 1 TB

285
Q

Which type of disk provisioning gives the greatest level of initial performance?

a. Thin
b. Thick Lazy Zeroed
c. Thick Eager Zeroed
d. Initial performance is unaffected by disk provisioning.

A

c. Thick Eager Zeroed

286
Q

What is the maximum number of registered VMs on a single unlinked vCenter?

a. 15,000
b. 10,000
c. 20,000
d. 25,000

A

a. 15,000

287
Q

What is the maximum number of VMs that can be on a single ESXi 5.5 host?

a. 32
b. 512
c. 256
d. 120

A

b. 512

288
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of a template?

a. A template is a list of all the characteristics of a VM.
b. A template is a master copy of a VM that cannot be powered on but that can be used to create VMs that can be powered on.
c. A template is an exact copy of a VM.
d. A template is a file that captures the state of a VM.

A

b. A template is a master copy of a VM that cannot be powered on but that can be used to create VMs that can be powered on.

289
Q

Which of following must you do with regard to a template before you can edit its settings?

a. Power the template off.
b. Power the template on.
c. Convert the template to a VM.
d. Take a snapshot of the template.

A

c. Convert the template to a VM.

290
Q

Which file extension is used on the file that takes the place of BIOS on VM?

a. .nvram
b. .vmx
c. -flat.vmdk
d. There is no such file.

A

a. .nvram

291
Q

After you right-click a VM and select Edit Settings, which tab should you select to add a USB controller and host-based device to the VM?

a. vServices
b. Resources
c. Virtual Hardware
d. Profiles

A

c. Virtual Hardware

292
Q

What does it mean to “graft in” a host’s resource settings when you create a cluster?

a. You are adding a host that is not ESXi 5.5.
b. You are using DRS but not HA.
c. You are maintaining the hierarchy that was set by the host’s Resource Pools.
d. You will add the host only for a temporary project.

A

c. You are maintaining the hierarchy that was set by the host’s Resource Pools.

293
Q

Which of the following is an optional parameter for Storage DRS configuration?

a. Capacity
b. I/O performance
c. CPU
d. Memory

A

b. I/O performance

294
Q

Which of the following is not decided by DRS in Partially Automated mode but is decided by DRS in Fully Automated mode?

a. Initial placement
b. Storage
c. Network fault tolerance
d. Load balancing

A

d. Load balancing

295
Q

What is the maximum number of vCPUs that can be on a fault-tolerant (FT) virtual machine?

a. 32
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2

A

c. 1

296
Q

Which of the following cannot be placed into a Resource Pool? (Choose two.)

a. Cluster
b. VM
c. Resource Pool
d. Host

A

a. Cluster
d. Host

297
Q

Which of the following is true about vMotion?

a. You can vMotion VMs whether they are powered on or off.
b. With Cross-Host vMotion, you can vMotion and Storage vMotion the same VM at the same time.
c. vMotion involves moving a VM’s files to a different datastore.
d. Storage vMotion involves moving the state of VM from one host to another.

A

b. With Cross-Host vMotion, you can vMotion and Storage vMotion the same VM at the same time.

298
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the state of a VM?

a. Settings
b. Disk
c. Power
d. Memory

A

c. Power

299
Q

Which of the following would prevent a VM from using vMotion?

a. An internal switch on its host, to which the VM is not connected
b. CPU affinity not configured
c. A swap file that is local to a host
d. An ISO mounted on the local host, to which the VM is connected

A

d. An ISO mounted on the local host, to which the VM is connected

300
Q

What is the maximum number of VMs that can be included in a single VDP backup job?

a. 10
b. 100
c. 32
d. 1,000

A

b. 100

301
Q

Which of the following types of updates is no longer supported with VUM?

a. Host
b. Guest OS
c. VM hardware
d. Virtual appliance

A

b. Guest OS

302
Q

Which of the following should you use on a cluster to address differences in CPUIDs on the hosts?

a. DRS
b. HA
c. FT
d. EVC

A

d. EVC

303
Q

Which of the following can be used only on a host that is part of a cluster? (Choose two.)

a. vMotion
b. DRS
c. Resource Pools
d. HA

A

b. DRS
d. HA

304
Q

Which Admission Control method would be best for an organization that has many VMs with highly variable reservations?

a. Specify failover hosts
b. Percentage of cluster resources reserved as failover spare capacity
c. Host failures that the cluster tolerates
d. Any of these methods would work fine.

A

b. Percentage of cluster resources reserved as failover spare capacity

305
Q

What is the maximum number of FT VMs on any single host?

a. 32
b. 10
c. 4
d. 256

A

c. 4

306
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit of using Resource Pools?

a. Fault-tolerant design for VMs
b. Isolation of resources between pools
c. Management of multitier services
d. Access control and delegation

A

a. Fault-tolerant design for VMs

307
Q

What is the minimum network bandwidth for vMotion of one VM?

a. 100 Mbps
b. 1 Gbps
c. 10 Gbps
d. There is no minimum.

A

b. 1 Gbps

308
Q

Which of the following is not examined by EVC?

a. Settings in the BIOS that might differ from host to host
b. Connected local CDs and ISOs
c. The ESX/ESXi version running on the host
d. The guest OS of the VM

A

b. Connected local CDs and ISOs

309
Q

If you want to allow for more flexibility in adding hosts to your clusters, you should use an EVC mode that is which of the following?

a. An EVC mode that works with both Intel and AMD hosts
b. An EVC mode that is the highest and best that all of your hosts share
c. An EVC mode that is the lowest common denominator to all the hosts in your cluster
d. A different EVC mode for each host in your cluster

A

c. An EVC mode that is the lowest common denominator to all the hosts in your cluster

310
Q

Which of the following snapshot files will continue to grow and consume the remainder of your disk if you do not delete/consolidate snapshots properly?

a. -delta.vmdk
b. -flat.vmdk
c. .vmx
d. .vmsd

A

a. -delta.vmdk

311
Q

If you delete a snapshot that is before the You Are Here indicator, which of the following is true?

a. The snapshot will be deleted and will not be merged with the current configuration of the VM.
b. The snapshot will not actually be deleted.
c. The You Are Here indicator will be deleted as well.
d. The snapshot will be deleted, but its attributes will be merged with the current configuration of the VM.

A

d. The snapshot will be deleted, but its attributes will be merged with the current configuration of the VM.

312
Q

Which of following tools is provided by VMware as a last resort to troubleshoot issues that cannot be resolved through more normal means?

a. vCLI
b. vSphere Web Client
c. ESXi Shell
d. PowerCLI

A

c. ESXi Shell

313
Q

Which of the following should you select in the DCUI to review the system logs?

a. View Support Information
b. View System Logs
c. Troubleshooting Options
d. System Customization

A

b. View System Logs

314
Q

If you are logged directly on to a host with the vSphere Client, which of the following tabs should you select to monitor the system health status of the host?

a. Health Status
b. Monitor
c. Summary
d. Hardware Status

A

d. Hardware Status

315
Q

Which of the following is true about the speed of a network connection in vSphere?

a. The speed of the connection is configurable on the settings for the vNIC.
b. The speed of the connection is based on the underlying network and is not configurable.
c. The speed of the connection is configurable on the settings for the vmnic.
d. The speed of the network connection must be hard-coded and cannot be autonegotiated.

A

c. The speed of the connection is configurable on the settings for the vmnic.

316
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to vSS switch settings and port group settings?

a. Conflicting port group settings will override switch settings.
b. Conflicting switch settings will override port group settings.
c. Port group and switch settings are different, so there is no possibility of a conflict.
d. If settings conflict, an error will result and the administrator will have to address the issue.

A

a. Conflicting port group settings will override switch settings.

317
Q

Which of the following is not a native VMware path-selection type?

a. Round-Robin
b. Load based
c. Most recently used
d. Fixed

A

b. Load based

318
Q

Which of the following is the maximum number of powered-on VMs per VMFS-5 datastore?

a. 32
b. 10,000
c. 2,048
d. 256

A

c. 2,048

319
Q

Which of the following is true about active-active arrays?

a. Active-active arrays will often cause path thrashing.
b. Active-active arrays should never be used with vSphere.
c. Active-active arrays should always be used with vSphere.
d. Properly configured active-active arrays do not cause path thrashing.

A

d. Properly configured active-active arrays do not cause path thrashing.

320
Q

Which of the following is the minimum network speed required for vMotion?

a. 100 Mbps
b. 1 Gbps
c. 10 Gbps
d. vMotion can work at any speed.

A

b. 1 Gbps

321
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement of HA?

a. Hosts must be in the same cluster.
b. Hosts must share the same CPU vendor and family.
c. Hosts must have shared datastores.
d. Hosts must have access to the same physical networks.

A

b. Hosts must share the same CPU vendor and family.

322
Q

Which of the following is designed by VMware to be used as a last resort?

a. vSphere Client
b. PowerCLI
c. vCLI
d. ESXi Shell

A

d. ESXi Shell

323
Q

In which of the following locations can you enable ESXi Shell? (Choose two.)

a. The Administration tab
b. DCUI
c. The firewall properties of a host
d. Security profile

A

b. DCUI d. Security profile

324
Q

Which of the following logs cannot be retrieved from a DCUI?

a. Syslog
b. vCenter
c. VMkernel
d. Config

A

b. vCenter

325
Q

Which of the following is an absolute network requirement to manage an ESXi host remotely?

a. A VMkernel port configured for vMotion
b. A separate vSS or vDS for Management
c. A VMkernel port configured for Management
d. A VM port group configured for Management

A

c. A VMkernel port configured for Management

326
Q

Which type of vNIC driver is a best practice to use whenever possible?

a. vmxnet3
b. e1000
c. vmxnet1
d. You should never use a vnic driver.

A

a. vmxnet3

327
Q

Which of the following is not a possible view of the Storage Views tab of the Windows-based vSphere Client?

a. Show All Virtual Machines
b. Show All VMkernel Ports
c. Show All Clusters
d. Show All SCSI Adapters

A

b. Show All VMkernel Ports

328
Q

Which of the following path selection policies cannot cause path thrashing?

a. MRU on an active-passive array
b. Fixed on an active-active array
c. All path selection policies can cause path thrashing.
d. Path thrashing in no longer a concern with any path selection policy.

A

b. Fixed on an active-active array

329
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for DRS, but not a requirement for HA?

a. All hosts must have shared datastores.
b. All hosts must be in the same cluster.
c. All hosts must share the same processor vendor and family.
d. All hosts must have access to the same physical networks.

A

c. All hosts must share the same processor vendor and family.

330
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for Storage vMotion?

a. VMs must have compatible CPUs.
b. The host must have access to both the source and destination datastores.
c. A minimum of 1 Gbps link.
d. VMs must be in persistent mode or be RDMs.

A

a. VMs must have compatible CPUs.

331
Q

What vSphere Web Client tool should you use to get detailed information about the CPU and memory in use on your DRS clusters?

a. Admission Control
b. Tasks and Events
c. Resource Distribution Chart
d. DRS Panel on Cluster Resources tab of host

A

d. DRS Panel on Cluster Resources tab of host

332
Q

Which of the following is not viewable on your vSphere Client when you are logged on directly to a host?

a. The Events tab
b. Recent Tasks
c. The Tasks and Events tab
d. The Performance tab

A

c. The Tasks and Events tab

333
Q

Which of the following memory technologies is most closely associated with ballooning technique?

a. TPS
b. vmmemctl
c. Memory compression
d. Swap

A

b. vmmemctl

334
Q

Which of the following memory conservation techniques is used by default, even when memory is not in contention?

a. Ballooning
b. Memory compression
c. Swap file
d. TPS

A

d. TPS

335
Q

Which of following are true about CPU Ready value on VMs? (Choose two.)

a. The lower the CPU Ready value, the better.
b. A CPU Ready value of 5% is considered high.
c. A CPU Ready value of 5% is considered acceptable.
d. The higher the CPU Ready value, the better.

A

a. The lower the CPU Ready value, the better.
c. A CPU Ready value of 5% is considered acceptable.

336
Q

Which of the following would be considered a storage issue that needs to be addressed? (Choose two.)

a. VMkernel command latency of 5 ms
b. VMkernel command latency of 1 ms
c. Physical device command latency of 30 ms
d. Physical device command latency of 10 ms

A

a. VMkernel command latency of 5 ms
c. Physical device command latency of 30 ms

337
Q

Which of the following can your vCenter be configured as in your SNMP network?

a. A Management Information Base (MIB)
b. An agent
c. A trap
d. A community

A

b. An agent

338
Q

Which of the following is not a default utilization alarm in vCenter?

a. Host CPU Usage
b. Cluster Network Usage
c. Virtual Machine CPU Usage
d. Datastore Usage on Disk

A

b. Cluster Network Usage

339
Q

Which of the following is not a possible action for VM alarms without the use of a script?

a. Send a notification email
b. Increase memory of VM
c. Migrate VM
d. Shut down guest on VM

A

b. Increase memory of VM

340
Q

Which of the following is not a major badge of vCenter Operations Manager?

a. Health
b. Security
c. Risk
d. Efficiency

A

b. Security

341
Q

Which of the following is not a minor badge within Health?

a. Workload
b. Anomalies
c. Time Remaining
d. Faults

A

c. Time Remaining

342
Q

Which of the following is not an option to apply filters to the information that you see on the Tasks and Events tabs in the Web Client?

a. Right-click column heading and select output
b. Filter by keyword
c. Filter by attribute
d. Show Object and Parent Object Entries

A

d. Show Object and Parent Object Entries

343
Q

Which of the following are types of memory conservation techniques? (Choose two.)

a. MRU
b. Ballooning
c. Ready value
d. Compression

A

b. Ballooning
d. Compression

344
Q

Which of the following memory techniques runs all the time by default, even when there is no contention for memory?

a. Ballooning
b. Transparent page sharing
c. Compression
d. Swap file

A

b. Transparent page sharing

345
Q

By default, how often does vCenter validate its list of known users against the Active Directory?

a. Every 60 minutes.
b. vCenter does not validate its list of known users against Active Directory.
c. Every 24 hours.
d. Every 7 days.

A

c. Every 24 hours.

346
Q

Which type of vCenter logging gathers the most information?

a. Trivia
b. Information
c. Verbose
d. Error

A

a. Trivia

347
Q

Which of the following cannot be a scheduled task in vCenter?

a. Add a host
b. Add available memory to a VM
c. Change resource settings on a resource pool
d. Clone a VM

A

b. Add available memory to a VM

348
Q

Which of the following cannot be added to a resource map in vCenter?

a. VMs
b. A physical switch
c. Hosts
d. Port groups

A

b. A physical switch

349
Q

Which of the following is not a possible alarm action for a VM alarm?

a. Send a notification email
b. Reset VM
c. Add a vNIC to VM
d. Migrate VM

A

c. Add a vNIC to VM

350
Q

Which of the following are minor vCOPs badges located under the major badge called Efficiency? (Choose two.)

a. Workload
b. Density
c. Stress
d. Reclaimable Waste

A

b. Density
d. Reclaimable Waste

351
Q

Which of the following minor badges are not under the Health badge? (Choose two.)

a. Time Remaining
b. Stress
c. Anomalies
d. Workload

A

a. Time Remaining
b. Stress

352
Q

Four Types of Storage Adapters

A

Fibre Channel Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) iSCSI Network-attached storage (NAS)

353
Q

What is the maximum Fibre Channel connection speed vSphere 5.5 supports

A

16 Gbps

354
Q

How fast must Ethernet connection be to support FCoE

A

10 Gbps or higher speeds.

355
Q

Only NAS supported protocol

A

NFS v3 over TCP

356
Q

Maximum number of hosts for VSAN

A

8

357
Q

Three most common naming conventions for local and SAN

A

Runtime name Canonical name SCSI ID

358
Q

Runtime name mhbaN:C:T:L

A
  • vm stands for VMkernel.
  • hba is host bus adapter.
  • N is a number corresponding to the host bus adapter location
  • C is channel
  • T is target, which is a storage adapter on the SAN or local device.
  • L is logical unit number (LUN)
359
Q

What are the discovery and TCP Offload options in the VMkernel?

A
  • Independent hardware iSCSI initiator
  • Dependent hardware iSCSI initiator
  • Software iSCSI initiator
360
Q

Hardware (independent hardware) iSCSI initiator

A

removes the responsibility from the VMkernel and from the processors on the host

361
Q

Dependent hardware iSCSI initiator

A

card provides for the TOE, but the VMkernel must first provide the discovery of the LUN.

362
Q

Software iSCSI initiator

A

VMkernel provides for the discovery of the LUNs as well as for the TOE

363
Q

Zoning

A

which WWNs can see which other WWNs and which ports of the switch will be connected to storage processors

364
Q

Masking

A

Controlling what the SPs tell the host with regard to the LUNs that they can provide

365
Q

3 Path Selection Policies for a VMFS Datastore

A
  • Fixed
  • Most Recently Used (MRU)
  • Round Robin
366
Q

Fixed

A

Default Active/Active, the preferred path is used whenever available. If the preferred path should fail, another path is used until the preferred path is restored, at which point the data moves back onto the preferred path

367
Q

Most Recently Used

A

This is the default used with a SAN that is set to Active/Passive. With this policy, a path is chosen and continues to be used so long as it does not fail. If it fails, another path is used, and it continues to be used so long as it does not fail, even if the previous path becomes available again.

368
Q

Round Robin

A

This is the only path selection policy that uses more than one path during a data transfer session. Data is divided into multiple paths, and the paths are alternated to send data. Even though data is sent on only one path at a time, this increases the size of “the pipe” and therefore allows more data transfer in the same period of time.

369
Q

You want to save power during the weekend when workload is low to reduce costs in your data center. Which feature of Distributed Power Management (DPM) will automatically power on the hosts when demand increases?

Wake-on-LAN
Common Information Model (CIM)
Balanced Power plan
High Availability (HA)
A

Wake-on-LAN

370
Q

You suspect that there has been a physical network misconfiguration. What characteristic of ESXi can be used to discover neighboring physical switches and help troubleshoot the possible misconfiguration?
CDP/LLDP
QoS
Port Mirroring
vSphere Configuration Manager

A

CDP/LLDP

Cisco Discovery Protocol

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)

371
Q

Your company has strict change control management in place. Which vSphere feature offers tracking and enforcement of configuration compliance?
Configuration Manager
Operations Manager
Replication
High Availability

A

Configuration Manager

372
Q

You wish to monitor your vSphere environment for issues that could affect performance or capacity in the future. Which product can help with this requirement?
Operations Manager
Configuration Manager
vCloud Director
Site Recovery Manager

A

Operations Manager

373
Q

While updating your disaster recovery plan, you notice that since the last update there are new business-critical virtual machines that need to be operational within an hour in the event of a site disaster. What feature can help meet the requirements of the new machines?
High Availability
Distributed Power Management (DPM)
Replication
Storage I/O Control

A

Replication

374
Q

For security, you need to separate your virtual machine network traffic between the Finance and Engineering sub-networks. Which networking feature can help achieve this?
Port Mirroring
VLAN
Uplink Port
NetFlow

A

VLAN

375
Q

You are planning to add a new datastore to your ESXi host. Which two types of network-attached datastores are supported? (Choose two.)
DAS
NFS
CIFS
iSCSI

A

NFS

iSCSI

376
Q

You are working with a storage administrator who is provisioning network storage for vSphere. Which two types of storage can the administrator utilize for vSphere datastores? (Choose two.)
NFS
iSCSI
CIFS
SATA

A

NFS

iSCSI

377
Q

You need to replace a memory module in one of your ESXi hosts. What feature can move the virtual machines running on that host to another host without interruption?
vMotion
High Availability
Replication
Snapshots

A

vMotion

378
Q

You are presenting a virtualization plan that will use a Type 1 hypervisor. Your CEO wants to know the difference between a Type 1 and a Type 2 hypervisor. What are the characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor?
Type 1 hypervisors run within an operating system.
Type 1 hypervisors are bare-metal installations.
Type 1 hypervisors can only be installed on shared storage.
Type 1 hypervisors draw more overhead than Type 2 hypervisors.

A

Type 1 hypervisors are bare-metal installations.

379
Q

You have been asked by your IT Manager to implement vFlash on your ESXi hosts. Which hard drive type is a minimum requirement?
SATA
IDE
SSD
SAS

A

SSD

380
Q

You must ensure that a Windows NT virtual machine running a business-critical application continues to run in the event of a host failure. Which feature can meet your objective?
High Availability
Storage VMotion
Distributed Power Management (DPM)
Fault Tolerance

A

Fault Tolerance

381
Q

Your boss asks what provides virtual machines with the virtual hardware in an ESXi environment. Which item is central to this provisioning?
vSwitches
Hypervisor
Virtual Connectors
The Operating System

A

Hypervisor

382
Q

Your company has a machine that runs a legacy application on Windows Server 2003 R2 that must be virtualized. Which option will help you meet this requirement?
Use Configuration Manager to migrate the application to a virtual host.
Upgrade the Windows 2003 R2 desktop to Windows 2008 R2 and then convert to a virtual machine.
Perform a Physical to Virtual (P2V) conversion using VMware vCenter Converter.
Re-appraise policy, because you cannot virtualize Windows 2003 R2 machines.

A

Perform a Physical to Virtual (P2V) conversion using VMware vCenter Converter.

383
Q

Your network administrator has noticed that a number of virtual machines are taking up a large amount of network bandwidth. What feature can throttle the bandwidth used by the virtual machines?
VLAN
Traffic Shaping
Port Mirroring
QoS

A

Traffic Shaping

384
Q

Which vSwitch or vSwitch port group policy setting allows a virtual machine to listen to traffic other than that which is specifically destined for the given VM?
Traffic Shaping
Promiscuous Mode
MAC Address Changes
Forged Transmits

A

Promiscuous Mode

385
Q

When defining a NIC team (bond) on a vSphere 5.x Standard Switch, it is possible to designate some of the physical NICs that make up the bond as “standby” NICs.
Which statement most accurately describes the purpose of a standby NIC?
Used to implement traffic shaping for the rest of the team.
Used only in the case of the failure of other NICs in the team.
Not used as part of the team until activated by the administrator.
Used only when network traffic exceeds the capacity of the rest of the team.

A

Used only in the case of the failure of other NICs in the team.

386
Q

What does a memory reservation define?
the amount of virtual machine memory that can be paged to the VMkernel swapfile
the amount of physical memory that is guaranteed to the VM
the maximum amount of physical memory that will be used by a VM
the amount of host memory reserved for the VMkernel

A

the amount of physical memory that is guaranteed to the VM

387
Q

An administrator would like to set up Host Profiles in a vSphere 5.x architecture. Using the vSphere Client, the administrator connects to vCenter Server and navigates to Management, then begins to build a new Host Profile but is unable to save the profile.
Why is the administrator unable to save the completed profile?
The administrator does not have the proper vSphere edition so this feature is not licensed
The Host Profiles service is stopped and must be restarted to access this option
No ESXi hosts have been added to vCenter Server, and this option will not be available until at least one host is managed
No DRS/HA Cluster has been defined, and Host Profiles must be applied to a cluster.

A

The administrator does not have the proper vSphere edition so this feature is not licensed

388
Q

Which condition produces a warning message but will allow a VMotion migration to proceed?
A virtual machine has an active connection to the ESXi host’s CD-ROM drive
A virtual machine has a CPU affinity set to run on a specific CPU.
A virtual machine is in an MSCS Cluster relationship with another virtual machine
A virtual machine is configured to use an internal virtual switch but is not connected to the switch

A

A virtual machine is configured to use an internal virtual switch but is not connected to the switch

389
Q

On which vSphere component does vMotion need to be enabled?
vCenter Server
Virtual Machine port group
VMkernel port group
vNetwork Standard Switch

A

VMkernel port group

390
Q

VMware vSphere 5.x can be evaluated prior to purchase. What is the maximum number of days the evaluation can be used before a license must be purchased?
30
60
90
120

A

60

391
Q

An administrator finds that an ESXi 5.x host cannot be managed by vCenter Server.
Which three logs can be reviewed using the DCUI? (Choose three.)
The ESXi shell logs
The HA agent logs
The management agent log
The vmkernel log
The VMware ESXi Observation log

A

The management agent log

The vmkernel log

The VMware ESXi Observation log

392
Q

Which two conditions will cause a vMotion validation check to fail? (Choose two.)
An active connection that matches an existing port group label on the target host
Insufficient network bandwidth on the target virtual switch
Different security policies on the target virtual switch
An active connection to an internal virtual switch

A

Different security policies on the target virtual switch
An active connection to an internal virtual switch

Explanation: VMotion requires sufficient network bandwidth to perform migration, but this is not a part of the VMotion validation check.

393
Q

Which feature allows a running virtual machine to be moved from one ESXi 5.x host to another without interruption?
Storage VMotion
HA
Cold Migration
VMotion

A

VMotion

394
Q

Which of the following actions requires a reboot of an ESXi 5.x host?
Changing the number of ports on a virtual switch
Implementing VLANs in a virtual switch
Adding a second VMkernel port to a virtual switch
Configuring a NIC team for a virtual switch

A

Changing the number of ports on a virtual switch

395
Q

Explanation: Most network activities can be performed without the reboot of the ESX Server. The exception is the modification of the number of ports on an existing virtual switch, which does require a reboot.
What are the iSCSI discovery methods that are supported by ESXi 5.x hosts?
Static Targets, Dynamic Targets
Static Discovery, SendTargets
Static Discovery, FindTargets
Dynamic Discovery, FindTargets

A

Static Discovery, SendTargets

Explanation: The iSCSI discovery methods supported by ESX Server are Static Discovery and SendTargets.

396
Q

What would cause the proportional share mechanism to be invoked?
there is resource contention
CPU ready time exceeds a threshold
More than 1 virtual machine is running
the sum of reservations exceeds the physical resources

A

there is resource contention

397
Q

You have a Windows 2003 Server virtual machine (VM) running within a vSphere 5.x environment that is experiencing performance problems.
Task Manager displays the following information:
CPU Usage: 85%
Memory Available: 3 GB
Network Utilization: 25%
vCenter Server displays this additional information:
ESXi host CPU Utilization: 60%
VMkernel Swap Activity: None
Average Network Usage: 900 Mbps

What is the most likely cause for the performance problems?
The VM is CPU constrained.
The ESXi host is CPU constrained.
The ESXi host NIC is being over utilized.
The ESXi host needs more memory installed.

A

The ESXi host NIC is being over utilized.

398
Q

Which VMware solution provides rich, personalized virtual desktops to Thin Clients and repurposed PCs with all the benefits of centralized desktop management?
VMware Workstation
VMware Fusion
Horizon Workspace
Horizon View

A

Horizon View

399
Q

Which vSphere 5.x feature provides for the dynamic allocation of storage capacity for individual virtual machines?
vStorage VMFS Volume Grow
VMware vStorage Thin Provisioning
VMware vStorage APIs
VMware ThinApp

A

VMware vStorage Thin Provisioning

400
Q

Your IP telephony group has asked you to configure your vSphere 5.5 environment to prioritize your company’s latency-sensitive voice and video traffic. Which Quality of Service (QoS) markings are valid configurations within a vSphere 5.5 environment? (Choose two.)
CoS 5
IP Precedence 5
DSCP 48
MAC Address 00:50:56:00:11:22
QoS Group 10

A

CoS 5

DSCP 48

Explanation: QoS priority tags can be assigned to network traffic, such as VoIP and streaming video. You can mark the traffic with a CoS tag in Layer 2 or with a DSCP tag in Layer 3.

401
Q

What is true about transparent memory page sharing?
It will not share more than 65% of a VMs memory.
It must be enabled on each host
It is enabled by default
It cannot be disabled.

A

It is enabled by default

402
Q

What protocol is used by an ESXi 5.x host to communicate with NAS devices?
iSCSI
CIFS
NFS
SMB

A

NFS

403
Q

You have 50 virtual machines (VMs) that have been running within a 5-node ESXi 5.x DRS cluster for a number of weeks. Several VMs running on one of the hosts suddenly show the Blue Screen of Death.
What is the most likely cause of the failure?
A patch recently applied to all virtual machines.
A driver recently applied to all virtual machines.
A VMkernel panic on the ESXi host running the failed virtual machines.
A hardware problem on the ESXi host running the failed virtual machines.

A

A hardware problem on the ESXi host running the failed virtual machines.

Explanation: If a faulty patch was applied to all virtual machines the blue-screen event would not be isolated to a single ESX Server. A hardware failure on an ESX Server could cause this type of event on some or all virtual machines running on the affected server.

404
Q

Your colleague needs to build a very large virtual machine and has asked you what the largest supported VMDK size is within a vSphere 5.5 environment. What will be your response?
2TB
32TB
62TB
64TB

A

62TB

405
Q

Which memory conservation technique allows the secure elimination of redundant copies of memory pages between virtual machines on the ESXi 5.x host?
VMkernel Swap
Memory Balloon Driver
RAM Overcommit
Transparent Page Sharing

A

Transparent Page Sharing

406
Q

What is the connection type of the primary VLAN in a Private VLAN?
Promiscuous
Isolated
Community
Trunked

A

Promiscuous

Explanation: Primary VLANs are Promiscuous, so that ports on a private VLAN can communicate with ports configured as the primary VLAN.

407
Q

A vSphere 5.x implementation contains two ESXi hosts, ESXi01 and ESXi02. A virtual machine, VM21a on ESXi01 is connected to a vSphere Standard Switch (vSS) in a port group called Production. The vSS is connected to an uplink on the 10.1.20.0/24 network. ESXi02 is configured with a vSS connected to an uplink on the 10.1.30.0/24 network. A port group called Engineering exists on this switch.
Which two statements are true about this configuration? (Choose two.)
Broadcasts from the Production port group can be received on the Engineering port group.
Broadcasts from the Production port group can not be received on the Engineering port group.
The virtual machine can be vMotion migrated to the target host.
The virtual machine can not be vMotion migrated to the target host.

A

Broadcasts from the Production port group can not be received on the Engineering port group.

The virtual machine can not be vMotion migrated to the target host.

408
Q

When is a 64-bit Windows Operating System required for the installation of vCenter Server?
When the managed vSphere environment exceeds 200 ESX hosts
When the managed vSphere environment exceeds 1000 virtual machines
When deploying vSphere 4.1 or later

 vCenter Server is not supported on 64-bit Windows operating systems
A

When deploying vSphere 4.1 or later

409
Q

VMware Tools should be installed on which virtual machines?
Linux
All except Linux
Windows
All

A

All

410
Q

An administrator is configuring iSCSI for use with a vSphere 5.x environment.
Which networking feature should be configured on the ESXi host to improve iSCSI performance?
Jumbo Frames
NetQueue
EtherChannel
PortFast

A

Jumbo Frames

411
Q

An administrator must perform maintenance on a fibre channel switch connected to vmhba2 on an ESXi 5.x host. The host has been configured with the Fixed policy, and the preferred path will be impacted by the maintenance event.
Which procedure is the least disruptive option that can be taken to prepare for the maintenance event?
Change the policy on the ESXi host to MRU for the duration of the maintenance event
Use the vSphere Client to disable the path impacted by the maintenance event
Unplug the FC cable from vmhba2 for the duration of the maintenance event
Unplug the FC cable from the Storage Processor port on the FC array for the duration of the maintenance event

A

Use the vSphere Client to disable the path impacted by the maintenance event

412
Q

An administrator manages a mission-critical application server farm and needs to configure the vSphere 5.5 environment to support restarting just the application service in the event that the given application crashes or becomes unresponsive. Which VMware technology provides this capability?
AppHA
Application Monitoring
vApp
Fault Tolerance

A

AppHA

413
Q

Which new capability does vSphere 5.5 add to avoid causing a full synchronization every Recovery Point Objective (RPO) period?
Forces full datastore synchronization instead of VM-level synchronization
Migrates persistent state files during synchronization
Migrates only the changed user data files during synchronization
Automatically increases the RPO period in the event of congestion

A

Migrates persistent state files during synchronization

414
Q

To prevent non-ESXi hosts from seeing VMFS datastores, which would be the most efficent place to configure LUN masking?
on the ESXi host
on the SAN Storage Device
on the non-ESXi hosts
on the Fibre Channel Switch

A

on the SAN Storage Device

Explanation: LUN masking is implemented at the HBA or Storage Processor level.

415
Q

An administrator is configuring a vSphere 5.x Standard Switch for load balancing. The physical network is configured for switch-assisted load balancing using EtherChannel.
Which load-balancing policy must be used to support this configuration?
Route based on source MAC hash
Route based on IP hash
Route based on the originating port ID
Route using Round-Robin

A

Route based on IP hash

Explanation: Three valid NIC teaming policies exist for use with ESX/ESXi. These include Source MAC based, IP based and vSwitch port based. Of the three, IP based is required when using a switch-assisted load balancing configuration such as EtherChannel.

416
Q

Which port is not required by vCenter Server?
80
902
25
443

A

25

Explanation: The ports used with vCenter Server are: 80,443,8080,8443 - Web Services ports 389 - LDAP port for Directory Services 636 - Used with vCenter Linked mode 902,903 - Used for management data and remote console sessions

417
Q

A storage array containing a VMFS datastore must be taken offline for maintenance.
What can be done to avoid virtual machine downtime on VMs running in this datastore?
Clone the virtual machines to a VMFS datastore on a different storage array.
Use Site Recovery Manager to failover the virtual machines on the storage array to the recovery site.
Use vSphere HA to failover the virtual machines to ESX Servers attached to a different storage array.
Use Storage VMotion to migrate the virtual machines to a VMFS datastore on a different storage array.

A

Use Storage VMotion to migrate the virtual machines to a VMFS datastore on a different storage array.

418
Q

What is the maximum number of VMkernel swap files that an ESXi 5.x host can have on a single VMFS volume?
1
VMkernel swap files must be stored locally on the ESXi host
1 per virtual machine
1 per virtual disk

A

1 per virtual machine

419
Q

Which two actions have no effect on the amount of physical memory resources used for virtualization overhead? (Choose two.)
Installing a 64-bit versus 32-bit operating system.
Increasing the amount of RAM in the virtual machine.
Increasing the number of virtual CPUs in the virtual machine.
Increasing the memory shares for the virtual machine.

A

Installing a 64-bit versus 32-bit operating system.

Increasing the memory shares for the virtual machine.

420
Q

You are running into disk contention problems on a VMFS datastore. Which two actions will resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
Adjust disk shares for each ESXi host accessing this datastore.
Adjust disk shares for all virtual machines accessing this datastore from the same ESXi host
Move some of the virtual machines from this VMFS datastore to another datastore on the same LUN.
Move some of the virtual machines from this VMFS datastore to another datastore on a different LUN.

A

Adjust disk shares for all virtual machines accessing this datastore from the same ESXi host

Move some of the virtual machines from this VMFS datastore to another datastore on a different LUN.

421
Q

Which functionality does vSphere 5.x High Availability provide?
Automatic restart of virtual machines
Automatic balancing of server workloads
High availabilty of ESXi hosts in a cluster
Zero downtime for virtual machines

A

Automatic restart of virtual machines

422
Q

VMware vSphere 5.5 Flash Read Cache pools multiple flash-based devices into a single consumable construct called what?
vSphere Flash Infrastructure
vSphere Storage Stack
vSphere Swap Cache
vSphere Flash Resource

A

vSphere Flash Resource

423
Q

When is the page file for a Windows guest operating system or the swap partition for a Linux guest operating system created?
When the guest operating system is installed on the virtual machine
When a reservation is set for the virtual machine
When the virtual machine is created
When the virtual machine is first powered on

A

When the guest operating system is installed on the virtual machine

424
Q

What method would you use to deploy VMware Data Recovery? (Choose One)
Download the OVF and import it using the vSphere Client
Run the vCenter installer using Custom as the choice for type of installation then follow the prompts to install the tool.
Locate the folder on the vCenter media and install VDR to the vCenter Server
Download the OVF and copy it to a datastore that is visible to the managed hosts. Right-click on the .ovf file and choose Add to Inventory

A

Download the OVF and import it using the vSphere Client

Explanation: VMware Data Recovery aka VDR is an appliance all appliances are in an OVF format that you import…

425
Q

VMware administrator determines that the active memory on an ESXi 5.x host is 20% and the
consumed memory is 90%. How much host memory is available to virtual machines?
80%
10%
70%
20%

A

80%

426
Q

The vSphere administrator needs to check the system health of an ESXi 5.x host using the
vSphere Web Client. Which option in the Monitor tab should the administrator use for the
selected host?
Performance
Hardware Reports
Storage Status
Issue Log

A

Performance

427
Q

A vSphere administrator needs to configure the environment to send a notification to a
monitored email address every time a vSphere alarm is triggered. Which procedure should the
administrator use to accomplish the task?
Use the vSphere web client to configure the vCenter Server SMTP settings. Edit the alarm
action to send a notification email.
Use the vSphere web client to configure the vCenter Server SNMP settings. Edit the alarm
action to send a notification email.
Use the vSphere web client to create a vCenter Server scheduled task that will send a
notification email when an alarm is triggered.
Use the vSphere web client to create a vCenter Orchestrator workflow that will send a
notification email when an alarm is triggered.

A

Use the vSphere web client to configure the vCenter Server SMTP settings. Edit the alarm
action to send a notification email.

428
Q

Which default alarm definition will send a notification trap if the redundant storage path is lost?
Cannot connect to storage
Datastore removed from host
Host storage status
Hardware health changed

A

Cannot connect to storage

429
Q

Time Remaining, Capacity Remaining, and Stress are minor badges of which major badge in
vCenter Operations Manager?
Health
Risk
Efficiency
Workload

A

Risk

430
Q

The vCenter Operations Manager dashboard is showing Health issues associated with the
selected virtual machine. There have been no availability or configuration issues with the virtual
machine, and the workload badge is still green:
How should an administrator resolve this issue?
Select the Anomalies badge to identify the cause of the abnormal behavior, then take
appropriate action.
Select the Stress badge to identify the cause of the increased stress, then take appropriate
action.
Select the Risk badge, identify the host at risk, and migrate the VM to a host with more
resources.
Select the Risk badge to identify how much time is remaining before CPU resources are gone,
then assign more resources.

A

Select the Anomalies badge to identify the cause of the abnormal behavior, then take
appropriate action.

431
Q

Which minor badge items make up the Efficiency badge score for an ESXi host in vCenter
Operations Manager?
Workload, Anomalies, Faults
Workload, Stress, Density
Time Remaining, Capacity Remaining
Reclaimable Waste, Density

A

Reclaimable Waste, Density

432
Q

A SAN administrator recently installed a storage encryption switch on the Fibre Channel Fabric.
Shortly after the deployment, several new VMFS5 datastores recently created were dismounted.
Attempts to manually mount them fail. VMFS5 upgraded datastores are unaffected. All Storage
arrays in use support VASA and VAAI. What is the root cause of this problem?
All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged ATS_Only. The storage encryption switch
blocks the ATS command.
All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged XCOPY_Only. The storage encryption switch
blocks the XCOPY command.
All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged WRITE_SAME_Only. The storage encryption
switch blocks the WRITE_SAME command.
All newly created VMFS5 datastores were formatted with 1MB block size. The storage
encryption switch does not support this block size.

A

All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged ATS_Only. The storage encryption switch
blocks the ATS command.

433
Q

A SAN administrator recently installed a storage encryption switch on the Fibre Channel Fabric.
Shortly after the deployment, several new VMFS5 datastores recently created were dismounted.
Attempts to manually mount them fail. VMFS5 upgraded datastores are unaffected. All Storage
arrays in use support VASA and VAAI. What is the root cause of this problem?
All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged ATS_Only. The storage encryption switch
blocks the ATS command.
All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged XCOPY_Only. The storage encryption switch
blocks the XCOPY command.
All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged WRITE_SAME_Only. The storage encryption
switch blocks the WRITE_SAME command.
All newly created VMFS5 datastores were formatted with 1MB block size. The storage
encryption switch does not support this block size.

A

All newly created VMFS5 datastores are tagged ATS_Only. The storage encryption switch
blocks the ATS command.

434
Q

A vSphere administrator attempts to manually vMotion a virtual machine but receives error
messages related to the Shared Storage datastore shown in the exhibit.
The administrator uses the vSphere Web Client and locates the datastore settings shown:

Which action should the administrator take to resolve these errors?
Reconnect server3 to the vCenter server.
Select server3 and click Mount.
Remove server3 from the cluster then re-add it.
Right-click Not connected and select Connect.

A

Select server3 and click Mount.

435
Q

An administrator is using esxtop to troubleshoot a storage performance issue. Which parameter
should the administrator check to monitor any storage-related vSphere overhead?
DAVG
KAVG
GAVG
CMDS

A

KAVG

436
Q

An error occurs while building a new virtual machine with a thin provisioned virtual disk size of
20GB. The datastore has 35GB of free space. The datastore is overcommitted by 95GB. What is
preventing the virtual machine from being built?
The datastore is built on a thin provisioned LUN that has run out of storage array free space.
The datastore has reached the maximum overcommitment threshold.
The virtual disk used by the virtual machine cannot be thin provisioned on this datastore.
The virtual disk used by the virtual machine requires more free space than is available in the
datastore.

A

The datastore is built on a thin provisioned LUN that has run out of storage array free space.

437
Q

A vSphere administrator enables and configures a Software iSCSI Initiator, and configures an iSCSI
vmkernel portgroup with Port Binding. The SAN administrator creates a few LUNs on an iSCSI
server. However, when the vSphere administrator adds the IP address of the iSCSI server in the Dynamic Discovery list, no iSCSI targets are detected. What condition would result in this
behavior?
The iSCSI vmkernel portgroup and the iSCSI server are on different subnets.
The iSCSI server IP address should be entered in the Static Discovery instead of Dynamic
Discovery list.
The network card bound to the iSCSI portgroup is 1Gbps Ethernet instead of 10Gbps.
A Software iSCSI Initiator cannot use Port Binding in conjunction with Dynamic Discovery.

A

The iSCSI vmkernel portgroup and the iSCSI server are on different subnets.

438
Q

A vSphere administrator configures a preferred heartbeat datastore in an HA/DRS cluster
configuration. The vCenter Server identifies an alternative preferred datastore. Why would
vCenter Server identify an alternative preferred datastore over the administrator’s preference?
The selected datastore contains powered-on virtual machines.
The selected datastore is formatted with a 1 MB block size.
The selected datastore is an NFS datastore.
The selected datastore is not accessible to all of the hosts.

A

The selected datastore is not accessible to all of the hosts.

439
Q

The load is high on a HA/DRS cluster. DPM is enabled. A vSphere administrator determines that
hosts are NOT powering on automatically to support the load. Which configuration would result
in this condition?
VM-to-VM or VM-to-Host DRS rules have been configured that restrict where some VMs can
be moved.
DPM has been set to the most Conservative threshold.
Some of the virtual machines have been removed from HA consideration by the vSphere
administrator.
DRS is set to Manual Automation.

A

DRS is set to Manual Automation.

440
Q

A virtual machine fails to migrate during a Storage DRS event. What could cause this issue?
Storage DRS is enabled for the datastore cluster but disabled for the virtual disks.
Storage DRS is enabled, but vMotion is disabled for the affected virtual machine.
The vMotion network used for Storage DRS is down for a host in the cluster.
Storage DRS is attempting to migrate the virtual machine between VMFS and NFS datastores.

A

Storage DRS is enabled for the datastore cluster but disabled for the virtual disks.

441
Q

The load on a Fully Automated HA/DRS cluster is critically unbalanced. What condition could
cause this issue?
DRS is disabled on one or more virtual machines.
The migration threshold is set to Moderate.
Storage vMotion is not enabled on the cluster.
Storage DRS is disabled on the datastore hosting the cluster’s virtual machines.

A

DRS is disabled on one or more virtual machines.

442
Q

A vSphere administrator determines that more metrics are available for viewing in the realtime
view than are available in the daily view for a virtual machine. What is the reason for this
discrepancy in the number of available metrics?
The daily view does not contain all of the metrics that the realtime view does.
The default vCenter statistics level is being used.
A vCenter statistics level of 4 is being used.
The daily view presents a different selection of metrics by default than presented by the
realtime view.

A

The default vCenter statistics level is being used.

443
Q

Which vSphere feature creates a copy of a virtual machine that can be stored locally within a
cluster or at another site, and provides the ability to rapidly restore a virtual machine within
minutes?
vSphere Data Protection
vSphere Replication
vSphere Snapshots
vSphere Heartbeat

A

vSphere Replication

444
Q

An administrator is attempting to use Update Manager to patch a cluster of ESXi 5.x hosts. The
administrator needs to stage the patches for a scheduled update after hours. When verifying the
hosts after the scheduled upgrade, the administrator determines that one of the hosts was not
remediated and patches are not staged. The host is using PXE as its boot method. What condition
would cause this behavior?
The host was rebooted prior to the scheduled remediation.
Remediating PXE-booted hosts using Update Manager is unsupported.
The user account used does NOT have the Remediate Hosts privilege.
The RAMdisk on the host has insufficient capacity.

A

The host was rebooted prior to the scheduled remediation.

445
Q

The administrator has deployed a third-party virtual appliance in the organization’s vSphere
environment and needs to use Update Manager to maintain the third-party appliance. How
should the administrator accomplish this task with the least administrative effort?
Add a new Download Source to Update Manager to obtain updates from the third party.
Manually download the third-party updates to Update Manager, which will then apply them
to the appliance.
Obtain an update tool from the third party and use it to manage updates to the appliance.
Identify the third-party appliance from the supported list within Update Manager.

A

Add a new Download Source to Update Manager to obtain updates from the third party.

446
Q

For security reasons, SSH and the ESXi Shell have been disabled on a standalone ESXi 5.x host.
A vSphere administrator accesses the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI) to examine log files related to a recent connection issue. Which system log can the administrator access to determine the cause of the issue?
syslog
fdm
messages
vmksummary

A

syslog

447
Q

An administrator needs to export system logs for an ESXi 5.5 host to determine the root cause for a host performance issue. This host supports manifest-driven exports of system logs. Which
manifest is selected by default during the export system log wizard?
Userworld
Hostworld
PerformanceSnapshot
HungVM

A

Userworld

448
Q

An ESXi 5.x host disconnects within 60 seconds after the administrator adds it to the vCenter
Server inventory. The administrator determines that the issue could be related to a networking
problem. Which networking port should the administrator check for connectivity from the host to
vCenter Server?
902
903
443
9443

A

902

449
Q

An administrator adds an ESXi 5.x host to the inventory of a vCenter Server that is configured
with a vSphere Distributed Switch. The vSphere Web Client indicates that the host is not
responding. The administrator determines from the command line that the vpxa agent is stopped. What should the administrator do to resolve this issue without affecting the uptime of the virtual
machines running on the host?
Restart the management agents in the host’s DCUI.
Remove and re-add the host to the vCenter inventory.
Restart the vCenter Server service.
Type /etc/vmware/vpxa start from the ESXi command line.

A

Restart the management agents in the host’s DCUI.

450
Q

An ESXi host’s networking is configured as shown. The virtual machine named Fileserver01 is
unable to ping anything on an external network:
clip_image001
Which condition would explain this behavior?
The vSwitch1 virtual switch does not have an attached vmnic adapter.
The Fileserver01 virtual machine is not running.
vSwitch0 is configured to reject MAC address spoofing.
vmk0 is using a non-routable IP address.

A

The Fileserver01 virtual machine is not running.

VCP550-DCV (2 decks)

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