VCAA approved definitions, processes & functions Flashcards

1
Q

Gene regulation:

A

Either of:
• genes are only activated/transcribed when required
• required genes are expressed, which can save energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Condensation reactions

A

 Mention name of the reaction
 Water is an output
 Energy/ATP is an input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

• Active site:

A

a particular position/specific site on an enzyme which attaches to a specific substrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary structure of protein

A

sequence of amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

secondary structure

A

the coiled or pleated structure within the chain (including α-helices and β-pleated sheets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tertiary structure

A

the overall 3D structure composed of secondary structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Quaternary structure

A

two or more polypeptide chains joined together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathogen

A

causative agent of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

• Autoimmune disease

A

a disease in which the body identifies some self cells as non-self and attacks them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stratigraphy

A

where layers of sediment build up over time, and the oldest fossils are found in the lowest stratum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Active immunity

A

when a person produces their own antibodies and memory cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gene pool

A

the complete set of alleles present in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Genetic drift

A

the change in allele frequency in a population due to chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bottleneck effect

A

a severe reduction in genetic diversity due to a catastrophe that may change allele frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Selection pressure

A

a factor in an organism’s environment that removes the unsuited individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Selective breeding vs random mating

A

In selective breeding humans choose organisms with a desirable trait and breed them.

In random mating each organism has an equal chance of mating with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Extinction

A

when no members of a particular species exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Convergent evolution

A

when two species, which do not share a recent common ancestor, independently develop similar features due to similar selection pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gene therapy

A

aims to insert a normal, functioning allele into the cell (through a virus or liposome vector)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hybridisation

A

the joining of complementary DNA from different sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tRNA function

A

carrying specific amino acids to a ribosome & complementary anticodon to codon in mRNA strand being translated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mRNA function

A

to carry information from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rRNA function

A

structural component of the ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RNA polymerase function

A

involved in transcription; copies DNA template and by joining nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nucleus function in translation

A

contains the code for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

• mitochondria function in translation

A

provides energy required for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ribosome function in translation

A

site of protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mRNA function in translation

A

carries code for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Function of memory B cells

A

rapidly produce antibodies during future infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Exons function

A

are joined to form mRNA and are translated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Introns

A

sections of pre-mRNA removed when splicing occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Redundancy

A

: one amino acid is coded for by more than one triplet/codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Transformation:

A

the process in which a bacterial cell takes up a plasmid and expresses the genes of the plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cloning:

A

making genetically identical copies of organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Probe:

A

a single-stranded segment of DNA which is radioactively labelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Function of phagocytes

A
  • recognise, engulf and destroy foreign material such as pathogens • engulf antibody-antigen complex
  • display the antigens of ingested pathogens to trigger an immune response. Any one of the above responses was acceptable.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Function of complement proteins

A
  • attach to invading micro-organisms
  • make it easier for phagocytes to ingest
  • lyse plasma membranes of pathogens, not cell walls
  • promote inflammation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Function of antibodies

A

bind to specific pathogens/antigens and cause agglutination so macrophages can then engulf and destroy them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Interferon functions

A

interferons are produced by viral infected cells and warn nearby cells and make them more resistant to infection by stimulating production of antiviral proteins

39
Q

Plasma cell function

A

to produce specific antibodies

40
Q

Allopatric speciation steps

A
  • Two populations are divided by geographic barrier with no gene flow/migration between them
  • Each group experiences different selection pressures and different mutations accumulate, which allow differences in allele frequencies to develop
  • Over time, the populations, if reintroduced, would be unable to produce viable fertile offspring together
41
Q

Speciation steps

A
  • Within an original species, genetic differences accumulate
  • Through natural selection individuals with suitable characteristics survive and reproduce
  • Due to a survival advantage, this group develop and over time evolve into a new species
42
Q

DNA hybridisation steps

A
  • isolate single DNA strands from lemur species by heating, for example to 94 °C . mix the single stranded DNA from both species together and allow these strands to cool
  • similar strands of DNA with complementary bases from different species reform. This hybrid DNA is reheated and the melting temperature is determined.
  • The more closely related two species are, the higher the melting temperature is.
43
Q

How amino acids in a protein can indicate evolutionary relationships:

A
  • Over a long time, mutations accumulate that may change the sequence of amino acids
  • The more differences in the amino acid sequences the less related the two species are.
44
Q

Fossilisation steps

A
  • Dead organism rapidly covered by sediment
  • Hidden from scavengers, undisturbed, long time, decreased rate of decomposition
  • Over time the sediments form rock
45
Q

Transcription steps

A
  • RNA polymerase copies DNA template strand by joining complementary nucleotides
  • pre-mRNA produced
  • optional, depending on question: undergoes post-transcriptional modifications – introns are removed, a poly-A tail and methyl cap are added to pre-mRNA to form mRNA
46
Q

Translation steps

A
  • mRNA travels to ribosomes
  • tRNA brings a specific amino acid to the ribosome
  • tRNA anticodon joins to complementary mRNA codon
  • an amino acid is added to the polypeptide chain
47
Q

Stages in aerobic respiration

A
  • Glycolysis: glucose is converted to pyruvate, 2 ATP produced
  • Krebs cycle: pyruvate converted to carbon dioxide, 2 ATP produced
  • ETC: hydrogen combines with oxygen to produce water, 32-34 ATP produced
48
Q

Electron transport chain steps

A
  • Occurs in cristae of mitochondria
  • Electrons are passed along a series of electron acceptors (cytochromes)
  • Oxygen captures electrons, which are combined with hydrogen
  • Carrier molecules give up hydrogen as it is passed along
49
Q

What happens in light dependant stage

A
  • Water is split to form oxygen gas
  • Water is split to form H+ and NADPH is formed
  • ATP is formed
50
Q

Steps in PCR

A
  1. Heat DNA to approx. 90 degrees
  2. Cool to anneal primers
  3. Heat to approx. 70 degrees to extend the primer with the tac polymerase.
  4. repeat
51
Q

Immune response after recieving first vaccine steps

A
  • antigens detected by T-helper cells
  • T-helper cells produce cytokines to stimulate B cells
  • B cells differentiate to produce plasma cells, which produce specific antibodies
  • B cells also differentiate into memory cells
52
Q

Allergic reaction steps

A
  • at the first encounter, plasma cells produce IgE antibodies specific to the allergen
  • antibodies bind to mast cells and act as receptors to the allergen
  • when the allergen is again encountered, the mast cells release histamines which cause allergic symptoms such as swelling, itchiness, excessive mucus production and airway constriction
53
Q

What must be done in PCR to separate the strands of DNA

A

Heating:
• to 90°C or greater
• to dissociate the strands
• to break the hydrogen bonds.

54
Q

What are standards and their use?

A

the standard consists of fragments of known length

• they are used to estimate the size of the samples.

55
Q

Why the action of trp as a repressor could be of selective advantage?

A

when tryptophan is available, its presence prevents further tryptophan being produced

• therefore the cell does not waste energy or resources producing tryptophan.

56
Q

How molecular regulation of xyz is regulated within a cell

A

xyz binding to enzyme A acts as an inhibitor

 the shape of the active site is changed

 substrate no longer binds

 as the final product increases, the first step in the pathway decreases, thus regulating the reaction

57
Q

Explain how antibody-antigen complexes provide protection against this pathogen

A

Agglutination of pathogen
allow phagocytes to engulf
immobilises pathogen

58
Q

Passive immunity key steps

A
  • No memory cells produced

- Does not produce own antibodies

59
Q

Effects of bipedalism on hominin behaviour

A
  • Free hands so made tools, carried young
  • reached higher food
  • raised head to look for predators
  • cultural behaviour such as ceremonies
60
Q

Why species X went extinct even though it arose recently, while species Y has been present for even longer time

A
  • Species X had limited genetic variation and due to (some reason) were unable to evolve
  • Species Y lived in an env with more stable selection pressures
61
Q

How would artificial insemination intervene in the evolutionary process?

A

Artificial insemination will influence the frequency of alleles in the next generation by one organism contributing more
frequently to the population.

62
Q

Why do scientists believe species X is extinct

A

no organisms have been captured or found alive

there is no specific, named evidence such as recent remains or tracks.

63
Q

NADPH transfers…

A

H+
Electrons
Protons

64
Q

ATP transfers…

65
Q

Describe how an adaptive immune response in initiated during a bacterial infection

A

Antigen-presenting cells display the antigen on their cell surface to helper T lymphocytes/helper Tcells.

66
Q

Is it possible to develop a vaccine against thunderstorm asthma?

A

No
Many allergens contribute to the allergic response to the pollen fragments rather than a single pathogen.

A vaccine would lead to greater production of antibodies, which would in turn increase the response.

67
Q

Factors that effect DNA migration in electrophoresis

A

the size of the molecules, as the larger molecule will move more slowly

• the charge of the molecule, as the negative charge means that DNA moves towards the
positive electrode

  • the length of time the voltage is applied, as there may not be enough time for the DNA to migrate through the gel
  • the concentration of the agarose, as denser agarose results in the molecules moving more slowly
68
Q

Ethical issues relating to DNA profiling results

A

Possible termination decisions of foetus.

• Should a severely affected child who may
suffer be born?

• Should alternative reproductive technologies be accessed?

69
Q

Social issues relating to DNA profiling results

A

Cost to society of alternative reproductive
approaches (e.g. IVF).

• Psychological implications for the parents,
knowing they are carrying the mutation.

• Societal support required: could the
government’s money be better spent
elsewhere?

70
Q

Why making a correct identification of a pathogen is important in the control of the disease

A

Specific pathogens have specific methods of transfer. They may require specific methods of control such as a particular antiviral drug. Incorrect identification can lead to continued infections and spread.

or

Identify pathogen and isolate antigens. This would enable the production of a vaccine or produce a drug with a complementary shape. If the majority of the population was vaccinated or treated with this rational drug, this would greatly reduce the transmission of the disease.

71
Q

Is it possible to state than Denisovans are a separate group from Neanderthals without using DNA analysis

A

It would not be possible to classify the Denisovans as a separate group from Neanderthals as the fossil sample is too small.

As both groups are extinct, one is unable to determine if fertile offspring could be produced.

72
Q

Explain why scientists choose to sequence nuclear DNA over mtDNA

A

Mitochondrial DNA is only inherited from the mother (and would therefore provide very similar DNA samples to other female ancestors); however, nuclear DNA contains the whole genome.

72
Q

Role of polymerase in PCR

A

Extend primers by adding complementary nucleotides

to single stranded DNA after seprating the strand by heating

73
Q

Why do some mutations have no effect on the individual?

A

-occur at non coding regions of DNA
or
-the DNA triplet from the mutation produces the same amino acid redundant)
or
- mutation occurs at a non essential polypeptide

74
Q

Why was the temperature reduced to 55C in PCR and then increased to 72 C?

A

the temperature was lowered to 55 °C so that the DNA primers can attach to the singlestranded DNA molecules

 the temperature was raised to 72 °C as at this temperature the activity of the Taq polymerase enzyme is at its highest or optimum

 complementary nucleotides would bind to the single-stranded DNA.

75
Q

What conclusion can be made if high lvels of antibodies were found and what action would be taken?

A

the individual has the disease

should be isolated from other family members or they should be vaccinated.

76
Q

Name a fibrous protein and it’s function

A

Any one of:
* collagen, to provide strength to skin
* fibrin, required for blood clotting
* myosin, to facilitate muscle contraction.

77
Q

Describe a distinctive property of a fibrous protein and explain how this property is due to the arrangement of it’s polypeptides

A

Property
* strength
* flexibility

Explanation
* due to the arrangement of the polypeptides which enabled them to be stretched and return to the original shape
* parallel arrangement of protein fibres for support

78
Q

Tissue rejection process

A

Both of:

  • in the cell mediated immune response, T-cell mediated rejection response occurs and T-helper cells activate cytotoxic T-cells and/or NK (natural killer) cells
  • cytotoxic chemicals are produced which destroy foreign cells or macrophages engulf and destroy foreign material.
79
Q

Which immune cells are respomnsible for recognising non self cells introduced by transplant

A

Any one of:

  • T-helper cells
  • macrophages/phagocytes
  • antigen presenting cells.
80
Q

Give a type of protein and give an example of a reason why it might change in concentration within a cell

A

Enzyme: If there is a change in substrate concentration, then more or less enzyme may be produced to conserve ATP
OR
Structural protein: repair or synthesis of organelles if organelles are damaged due to increased or decreased temperature
OR
Regulatory/repressor protein: more or less repressor protein is required to inhibit or promote a reaction when there is a change in substrate availability
OR
Transcription factors: more or less is required for transcription if environmental conditions result in increased or decreased need for protein synthesis.

81
Q

Advantage of using mtDNA in molecular clock

A

there are many more copies of mtDNA in each cell
* mtDNA has a predictable rate of mutation
* mtDNA mutations accumulate or are not repaired
* all changes in nucleotides are a result of mutations rather than recombination
* mtDNA inherited from mother only allowing for a more direct line of relationships to be established.

82
Q

Features common to primates that disitnguish them from other mammals

A

prehensile or grasping hands NOT five digits
* opposable thumb(s) or large toe(s)
* forward-facing eyes NOT stereoscopic vision
* relatively large brain volume to body NOT large brain volume
* nails instead of claws.

83
Q

Social implications of GM plants

A

Farmers who grow non-GM canola may sell more canola and the farmer may have an improved quality
of life OR may sell less canola and have a decreased quality of life.

  • Improved nutrition for consumers and therefore less demand on the health system.
  • More people have access to better nutrition as GM canola is cheaper OR more accessible than fish.
  • There could be a decreased consumption of fish, which results in fish farmers making less money and
    having a lower quality of life.
  • Consumers may not want to consume GM food. This could lead to consumers not buying enough GM
    canola and farmers having a lower quality of life.
84
Q

Biological implications of GM food

A

Possible crossbreeding with non-GM canola crops leading to a change in genome of the crops.

  • Potential lack of genetic variation within the GM canola crop. All GM canola plants could then die if there is a change in a selection pressure.
  • Consumers may not want to eat or purchase any GM products as these consumers are concerned it is
    not safe to eat.
  • Less fish consumed reduces overfishing, leading to an increase in the fish population.
  • Improved nutrition for consumers improves health outcomes for consumers.
85
Q

PAM Sequence function

A

the location of the specific section on the target
DNA that holds the DNA onto the CRISPR complex

86
Q

Cleavage point

A

Cas 9 cuts at the cleavage point (just upstream from the
PAM sequence)

87
Q

sgRNA

A

binds to target DNA at a specific location just above
the PAM sequence region

88
Q

Conditions that can be applied to electrophoretic gel to make DNA move

A
  • Add the DNA at the negative end of the gel.
    • Apply a voltage/current across the gel.
    • Place the gel in a buffer solution.
89
Q

Role of T memory cells

A

T memory cells survive for many years and proliferate rapidly into Th and Tc cells when the
body is exposed to a pathogen for the second time, mounting a quicker and stronger response.

90
Q

sterile

A

free of pathogens

91
Q

Describe at a molecular level how antibodies perform their function

A

Shape of binding site is complementary to the antigen. bind to antigen. macrophages / other immune cells can engulf/destroy it.

92
Q

Vector

A

means of transfering foreign gene into a cell/organism