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ARRT: VI Prep > Vascular Intervention > Flashcards

Vascular Intervention Flashcards

1
Q

The tibial pulse is felt where?

Just posterior to the lateral malleolus

At the top of the foot

Behind the knee

Just posterior to the medial malleolus

A

Just posterior to the MEDIAL malleolus

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2
Q

What is used to enlarge an entry site and provide smoother, safer access for multiple exchanges and difficult catheter manipulations?

Glide wires

Sheaths

Dilators

Peel aways

A

Sheaths

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3
Q

Who or what allows a last image to be displayed after the exposure has stopped?

Digital fluoroscopy

The interventional radiologist

Use of rapid filming

The selected film medium

A

Digital fluoroscopy

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4
Q

What process allows the VI suite personnel to recall a stored image and manipulate it?

DICOM process

PACS process

Post procedural subtraction

Temporal subtraction

A

Post procedural subtraction

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5
Q

In an older VI suite that uses CRT monitors, what are the two available scan modes?

1) progressive
2) repeating
3) interlaced
4) dynamic

1, 2

1, 4

2, 3

1, 3

A

1) Progressive
3) Interlaced

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6
Q

What process converts the video image from the TV chain into a digital format?

ADC

VDC

VDP

TVD

A

ADC

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7
Q

True or false…

DSA takes the image received by the intensifier in analog format, converts it to digital information, then is processed by the computer for storage and display.

A

True

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8
Q

DSA uses _____ to average together several frames to reduce electronic and quantum noise.

Temporal subtraction

A high contrast medium

Television/digital image chain

Frame integration

A

Frame integration

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9
Q

True or false…

DSA allows window and level adjustments to manipulate pre-procedural images.

A

False. You can only manipulate POST-procedural images.

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10
Q

DSA signal to noise (SNR) should be:

30-60 frames per second

1024 x 768

1000:1

640 x 480

A

1000:1

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11
Q

What feature uses a pre-contrast mark and a contrast filled image to produce a subtracted image?

Image reversal

Temporal subtraction

Temporal filtering

Post procedural subtraction

A

Temporal subtraction

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12
Q

What process adds a small amount of the mask back into the subtracted image but not enough to affect the image?

Land marking

Edge enhancement

Image re-masking

Window adjustment

A

Land marking

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13
Q

Images to be archived and stored may be sent to:

1) Digital disks 2) recorders 3) PACS 4) printed to hard copy media

1, 2

1, 2, 3

2, 4

All of the above

A

All of the above

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14
Q

Of the 3 most common injection formats, which is the one used mainly in the US?

1) fixed flow rate injector 2) air compression injector 3) pressure dependent injector

1

2

3

None of the above

A

3) pressure dependent injector

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15
Q

True or false….

The primary function of the pressure injector safety is to prevent damage to the injector and the selected catheter.

A

False. The pressure injector safety feature is to prevent damage to the injector, the selected catheter, AND THE PATIENT’S SAFETY AS WELL.

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16
Q

What forms of patient identification must be made and verified before any procedure is performed on a patient?

1) MRN 2) DOB 3) name 4) written doctors orders that match request

1, 2

1, 3

1, 2, 3

All of the above

A

All of the above

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17
Q

True or false…

Educating the patient about their proposed procedure will have little or no effect on the outcome of the exam.

A

False. Educating the patient pre-procedure makes the patient MORE COMPLIANT AND COMFORTABLE WITH WHAT THEY MAY EXPECT.

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18
Q

It is the job of the _____ to check that all emergency equipment is present and functioning in their procedure room.

Engineer

Nurse

Radiologist

VI radiographer

A

VI radiographer

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19
Q

True or false…

When a patient is to be sedated for a procedure, the nurse along with monitoring the patient, can and should act as a circulator as well.

A

False. The nurse’s SOLE DUTY when a patient is sedated is to monitor the payment only, and nothing else.

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20
Q

What forms of patient identification must be made and verified before any procedure is performed on a patient?

{MRN, DOB, name, and written doctor’s order correlates with request}

MRN and DOB

MRN and name

MRN, DOB, and name

All of the above

A

All of the above

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21
Q

What form of consent is essential prior to performing any exam or procedure on a patient?

oral

written

blanket

informed

A

informed

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22
Q

True or false…

An H&P must be available and include all the body systems listed prior to performing any invasive procedure.

A

True

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23
Q

Normal values for BUN and creatinine would fall in which range, respectively?

13, 0.8

13, 2.6

26, 0.8

26, 2.6

A

13, 0.8

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24
Q

A patient’s drug absorption rate may be affected by?

1) age 2) food in the stomach 3) body weight

1, 2

2, 3

1, 3

All of the above

A

All of the above

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25
Q

Your patient’s discomfort during the injection of contrast media is mostly contributed to the contrasts?

Toxicity

Osmolality

Viscosity

Volume

A

Osmolality

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26
Q

Severe allergic reaction to a contrast agent may result in shock, which is characterized by?

1) rapid breathing 2) high pulse rate 3) possible loss of consciousness

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

All of the above

A

2) high pulse rate 3) possible loss of consciousness

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27
Q

A patient’s vasovagal reaction is characterized by?

1) sweating 2) increased blood pressure 3) nausea

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

All of the above

A

1) sweating 3) nausea

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28
Q

To enhance demonstration of the portal venous system, which of the following drugs may be injected prior to angiography?

Pitressin

Epinephrine

Tolazoline

Heparin

A

Tolazoline

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29
Q

Which of the following types of emboli would specifically be associated with trauma in a long bone?

Fat

Air/gas

Pulmonary

Tumor

A

Fat

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30
Q

What possible results may lidocaine mixed with contrast media exhibit?

1) may make the exam less painful
2) make decreased irritability and prevent PVCs
3) is permissible for arterial examination of upper extremities

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

All of the above

A

1) may make the exam less painful
2) make decreased irritability and prevent PVCs

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31
Q

The dorsal pedal pulses somewhere?

At the dorsum of the foot

Just posterior to the medial malleolus

At the top of the foot around the 1st and 2nd metatarsals

At the anterior portion of the below

A

At the top of the foot around the 1st and 2nd metatarsals

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32
Q

_____ is the degree of stickiness or thickness of the contrast agent.

Toxicity

Osmolality

Viscosity

Volume

A

Viscosity

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33
Q

The ability of a contrast to be solvent with blood to thwart embolization is?

Toxicity

Osmolality

Viscosity

Miscibility

A

Miscibility

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34
Q

Vascular stenting is used in conjunction with angioplasty to?

Hold down the intimal flaps

Prevent restenosis

Hold the vessel open

At as a sheath

A

Hold down intimal flaps

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35
Q

True or false…

Angioplasty is always performed prior to stenting to expand the vessel.

A

False. PTA is almost always done POST stent placement, but optional pre stent placement.

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36
Q

True or false…

Caval filters may only be placed in the IVC.

A

False. Caval filters are placed in both the inferior and superior vena cava. When there is a clot present either in both iliac arteries or extending up to the renal veins, the filter is usually placed via a jugular approach in a supra renal location so as not to include the renal veins.

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37
Q

The most common problem associated with catheterization is?

Anaphylactic reaction to the contrast media

Nephrotoxicity

Cholesterol embolization

Bleeding at the puncture site

A

Bleeding at the puncture site

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38
Q

When the catheter is being threaded over the guide wire, it is the radiographer’s responsibility to?

1) Keep the wire held taught (clotheslining)
2) Keep enough slack to be able to advance the wire, if needed
3) Be sure the end of the guide wire remains within the sterile field

1, 2

1, 3

1, 2, 3

2, 3

A

1, 2, 3

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39
Q

Using a catheter with only a single end hole and no side holes may result in?

1) A stronger stream of contrast
2) Less catheter recoil
3) Transient narrowing of the vessel just beyond the catheter tip

1, 2

1, 2, 3

2, 3

1, 3

A

1) A stronger stream of contrast
3) Transient narrowing of the vessel just beyond the catheter tip

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40
Q

Which of the following blood pressure measurements would contraindicate angiography?

90/60

110/80

120/90

150/100

A

150/100

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41
Q

Which of the following may be used to relax the walls of arteries during angiography?

Benadryl

Nitroglycerin

Demerol

Pitressin

A

Nitroglycerin

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42
Q

Because contrast media is _____. The BUN and creatinine should be within normal range before exam is begun.

Viscous

Nephrotoxic

Electrolytic

Dynamic

A

Nephrotoxic

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43
Q

Patients who present with a decreased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit level may be diagnosed with?

Anemia

Leukemia

Erythema

Erythemia

A

Anemia

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44
Q

Dilation of an artery is termed?

Clot

Thrombus

Aneurysm

Embolus

A

Aneurysm

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45
Q

A potentially life-threatening condition where blood fills the intima of an artery is?

Coarctation of the artery

Dissection of the artery

Saccular aneurysm of the artery

Fusiform aneurysm of the artery

A

Dissection of the artery

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46
Q

Which of the following medications could be used to optimize visualization during a splenic arteriogram?

Vasopressin

Pituitrin

Dopamine

Priscoline

A

Priscoline

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47
Q

Which of the following medications would be used to reverse an overdose of morphine or sublimaze?

Nifedipine

Narcan

Pitressin

Priscoline

A

Narcan

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48
Q

Normal oral temperature is?

35°C

36°C

37°C

38°C

A

37°C

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49
Q

Which of the following are symptoms of a diabetic patient who is taken insulin but has not eaten?

1) Clammy, cool skin
2) Nervousness and irritability
3) Fruity smelling breath

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1) Clammy, cool skin
2) Nervousness and irritability

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50
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the cation portion of the contrast medium molecule is true?

1) it is the positive portion
2) it provides to the solubility
3) Provides the radiopaque portion

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1) it is the positive portion
2) it provides to the solubility

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51
Q

The antecubital vein is often _____.

1) Easily found
2) The access site used for short term IV solutions
3) The access site for contrast media injections

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1) Easily found
3) The access site for contrast media injections

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52
Q

True or false…

Fentanyl (sublimaze) is weaker than morphine and longer acting.

A

False. Fentanyl (sublimaze) is 100 times STRONGER than morphine and SHORTER acting.

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53
Q

Demerol (meperidine) is used in the angiography suite usually to help with shaking that can be caused when given what medication?

Activase

TPA

Priscoline

Urikinase

A

Urikinase

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54
Q

Amiodarone and other similar types of medications that control premature atrial or ventricular contractions, supraventricular tachycardia, atrial flutter or fibrillation are what class of medication?

Antiarrhythmics

Analgesics

Anti-emetic

Emergency medications

A

Antiarrhythmics

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55
Q

What class of drugs does aspirin, Pletal, Plavix, and ReoPro fall under?

Anxiolytics

Anti-emetic

Anticoagulants

Antiplatelets

A

Antiplatelets

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56
Q

Of the following medications, which one offers a relaxing and amnesia effect on the patient?

Valium

Ativan

Versed

Narcan

A

Versed

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57
Q

To reverse overmedication of Versed, Valium, or Ativan, which is the proper counter agent?

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

Narcan (naloxone)

Atropine sulfate

Epinephrine

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon)

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58
Q

True or false…

Epinephrine should not be given to relieve bronchospasm, laryngospasm, or anaphylaxis. The correct drug in this situation should be Benadryl.

A

False. Epinephrine SHOULD BE given to relieve bronchospasm, laryngospasm, or anaphylaxis. Benadryl is an antihistamine and is given for allergic reactions.

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59
Q

To open a clotted vessel, catheter, or other device which has been clotted for a relatively short duration, thrombolytic drugs may be given. Which of the following is not an example of a thrombolytic drug?

Urikinase

Glassorvase

Streptokinase

Tenecteplase

A

Glassorvase

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60
Q

Glucagon is an effective relaxant of smooth muscle structures, and is used primarily in which procedure?

Nephrostomy tube placement

Chest tube placement

Percutaneous gastrostomy tube placement

Biliary tube placement

A

Percutaneous gastrostomy tube placement

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61
Q

True or false…

The injection of medications falls under the scope of the radiologist, radiographer, and the nurse.

A

False. Injection of medications falls into the scope of the radiologist, and the nurse. Radiographers’ scope of medication administration include contrast media ONLY.

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62
Q

The angular portion of the needle tip is the?

Bevel

Cannula

Gauge

Hub

A

Bevel

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63
Q

During an interventional procedure your patient begins to show symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, agitation, disorientation, and cyanosis. What did the patient possibly acquire?

Anaphylaxis

Cardiac arrhythmias

Hemothorax

Air embolism

A

Air embolism

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64
Q

_____ is a serious allergic reaction, whose signs and symptoms may be urticaria, faintness or consciousness, swelling, asthmatic symptoms, death. You should administer _____ via IV is soon as possible.

Air embolism, epinephrine

Anaphylaxis, adrenaline

Tachycardia, Demerol

Anaphylaxis, epinephrine

A

Anaphylaxis, adrenaline

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65
Q

Vasovagal response is characterized by what symptoms?

1) Fainting or black out
2) warm and sweaty
3) nausea and pale skin coloration

1, 2

2, 3

1, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2, 3

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66
Q

The method by which needle entry is made into an artery is known as the _____ technique.

Feldbaum

Seldinger

Dilinger

Single wall needle

A

Seldinger

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67
Q

Which of the following are criteria for performing a vascular interventional bedside procedure?

Body habitus exceeds the state guidelines for your interventional labs equipment

Peripheral access for emergency medication included ministration is poor or nonexistent, and the patient’s condition is not conducive to transport to the original lab

Chest tube insertion or emergency bedside dialysis is needed on an emergency basis

All of the above

A

All of the above

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68
Q

True or false…

Informed consent and pre-procedure labs within normal limits are not required for interventional procedures.

A

False.

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69
Q

The left and right hepatic duct join to become the?

Common bile duct

Hepatic artery

Common hepatic duct

Portal duct

A

Common hepatic duct

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70
Q

Which of the following does the celiac artery not supply?

stomach

intestines

liver

spleen and pancreas

A

Intestines

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71
Q

_____ is a term describing a group of symptoms (pain, vomiting, cramping after eating, diarrhea, weight loss) caused by chronic poor blood flow.

Intestinal angina

Bowel obstruction

PMS

Colitis

A

Intestinal angina

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72
Q

What supplies blood to the small intestines, cecum, ascending aorta, hepatic flexure, and the right half of the transverse colon?

SAM

SMA

GDA

IMA

A

SMA

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73
Q

What supplies blood to the left half of the transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, and rectosigmoid area?

HGA

SMA

IDA

IMA

A

IMA

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74
Q

The _____ is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein.

Hepatic vein

Inferior mesenteric vein

Portal vein

Diaphragmatic vein

A

Portal vein

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75
Q

True or false…

The splenic artery branches from the right side of the celiac access and supplies the spleen and pancreas.

A

False. The splenic artery branches from the LEFT side of the celiac access and supplies the spleen and pancreas.

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76
Q

The walls of arteries have three layers, which of the following are listed in the correct order from outside to the inside layers:

Adventitia, intima, media

Adventitia, media, intima

Intima, media, adventitia

Media, intima, adventitia

A

Adventitia, media, intima

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77
Q

Both the contrast filled vessel and item being introduced into the vessel are displayed together when _____ is utilized.

Roadmapping

Pixel shifting

Land marking

Mask image utilization

A

Roadmapping

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78
Q

True or false…

The aortic arch is best visualized with a 45° right anterior oblique (RAO) position.

A

False. The aortic arch is best for last with a 45° LEFT anterior oblique LAO position.

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79
Q

Various methods of revascularization are available. Which method is the most frequently used?

Laser

Atherectomy

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

Stenting

A

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

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80
Q

PTA can be applied to almost any vessel, but is most commonly performed on all the following arteries except?

Iliac

Femoral

Cerebral

Renal

A

Cerebral

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81
Q

Anterior cerebral artery

A

2

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82
Q

Internal carotid artery

A

1

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83
Q

Middle cerebral artery

A

3

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84
Q

Pericallosal artery

A

4

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85
Q

Anterior parietal artery

A

5

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86
Q

Posterior parietal artery

A

6

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87
Q

Ophthalmic artery

A

7

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88
Q

Anterior internal frontal artery

A

8

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89
Q

Middle internal frontal artery

A

9

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90
Q

Vertebral artery

A

1

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91
Q

Basilar artery

A

2

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92
Q

Posterior cerebral artery

A

3

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93
Q

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

4

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94
Q

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

5

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95
Q

Superior cerebellar artery

A

6

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96
Q

Parieto-occipital artery

A

7

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97
Q

Calcarine artery

A

8

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98
Q

Celiac trunk

A

1

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99
Q

Common hepatic artery

A

3

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100
Q

Left gastric artery

A

2

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101
Q

Right gastric artery

A

5

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102
Q

Gastroduodenal artery

A

4

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103
Q

Cystic artery

A

9

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104
Q

Right hepatic artery

A

8

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105
Q

Left hepatic artery

A

7

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106
Q

Middle hepatic artery

A

10

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107
Q

Portal vein

A

1

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108
Q

Cystic duct

A

7

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109
Q

Common bile duct

A

2

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110
Q

Abdominal aorta

A

1

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111
Q

Internal iliac artery

A

2

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112
Q

Common iliac artery

A

3

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113
Q

External iliac artery

A

4

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114
Q

Common femoral artery

A

5

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115
Q

Profunda femoris artery

A

6

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116
Q

Superficial femoral artery

A

7

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117
Q

Popliteal artery

A

8

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118
Q

Anterior tibial artery

A

9

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119
Q

Posterior tibial artery

A

10

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120
Q

Dorsalis pedis

A

11

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121
Q

Plantar arch

A

12

122
Q

Abdominal aorta

A

1

123
Q

Celiac trunk

A

2

124
Q

Splenic artery

A

3

125
Q

Common hepatic artery

A

4

126
Q

Proper hepatic artery

A

5

127
Q

Left hepatic artery

A

6

128
Q

Right hepatic artery

A

7

129
Q

Cystic artery

A

8

130
Q

Gastroduodenal artery

A

9

131
Q

Transverse pancreatic artery

A

10

132
Q

Superior mesenteric artery

A

11

133
Q

Left renal artery

A

12

134
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery

A

13

135
Q

Ascending aorta

A

1

136
Q

Subclavian artery

A

2

137
Q

Axillary artery

A

3

138
Q

Brachial artery

A

4

139
Q

Radial artery

A

5

140
Q

Abdominal aorta

A

6

141
Q

Common iliac artery

A

7

142
Q

Femoral artery

A

8

143
Q

Popliteal artery

A

9

144
Q

Brachiocephalic artery

A

1

145
Q

Right subclavian artery

A

2

146
Q

Axillary artery

A

3

147
Q

Brachial artery

A

4

148
Q

Radial artery

A

5

149
Q

Ulnar artery

A

6

150
Q

Celiac trunk

A

7

151
Q

Right renal artery

A

8

152
Q

Superior mesenteric artery

A

9

153
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery

A

10

154
Q

Abdominal aorta

A

11

155
Q

Splenic artery

A

12

156
Q

Descending thoracic aorta

A

13

157
Q

Left subclavian artery

A

14

158
Q

External carotid artery

A

1

159
Q

Facial artery

A

2

160
Q

Occipital artery

A

3

161
Q

Middle meningeal artery

A

4

162
Q

Superficial temporal artery

A

5

163
Q

Maxillary artery

A

6

164
Q

Posterior auricular artery

A

7

165
Q

Aortic arch

A

1

166
Q

Brachiocephalic artery

A

2

167
Q

Left common carotid artery

A

3

168
Q

Left subclavian artery

A

4

169
Q

Right subclavian artery

A

5

170
Q

Internal thoracic artery

A

6

171
Q

Right common carotid artery

A

7

172
Q

Right vertebral artery

A

8

173
Q

Right internal carotid artery

A

9

174
Q

Inferior vena cava

A

J

175
Q

Iliac vein

A

D

176
Q

Deep femoral vein

A

B

177
Q

Femoral vein

A

F

178
Q

Great saphenous vein

A

H

179
Q

Popliteal vein

A

C

180
Q

Great saphenous artery

A

E

181
Q

Anterior tibial vein

A

A

182
Q

Posterior tibial vein

A

G

183
Q

Peroneal vein

A

I

184
Q

Abdominal aorta

A

J

185
Q

Common iliac artery

A

D

186
Q

Internal iliac artery

A

B

187
Q

Common femoral artery

A

F

188
Q

Deep femoral artery

A

H

189
Q

Superficial femoral artery

A

C

190
Q

Popliteal artery

A

E

191
Q

Posterior tibial artery

A

A

192
Q

Anterior tibial artery

A

G

193
Q

Peroneal artery

A

I

194
Q

Dorsalis pedis artery

A

K

195
Q

Direct puncture of the _____ artery should only be considered when a patient has no femoral, dorsalis pedis, or posterior tibial pulses, cannot lie flat or has other symptoms precluding femoral punctures.

Brachial

Cerebral

Axillary

Carotid

A

Carotid

196
Q

True or false…

Catheterization is less dangerous than direct punctures.

A

True.

197
Q

Direct stick of the carotid artery because a resulting pressure on the carotid sinus. This may result in all of the following except?

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Hypotension

SA node effect

A

Tachycardia

198
Q

When planning to perform any invasive procedure on a patient, labs obtained should include which of the following?

1) PT INR
2) CBC
3) platelets

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

All of the above

A

All of the above

199
Q

When performing a bedside or any invasive procedure, you must verify all of the following?

1) Signed consent
2) Appropriate lab results
3) Written doctors order

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

All of the above

A

All of the above

200
Q

Routine angiographic examination of the cerebral arteries is known as _____ vessel cerebral angiography.

2

3

4

6

A

4

201
Q

My normal routing of arterial blood in the brain has blocked, what structure maintains blood flow to the affected area?

Semi-circle branches

Circle of Gillis

Subclavian steal

Circle of Willis

A

Circle of Willis

202
Q

The right and left vertebral arteries merge at the posterior base of the brain to form?

Posterior cerebral artery

Superior cerebellar artery

Basilar artery

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

Basilar artery

203
Q

True or false…

The common carotid arteries bifurcate into the internal and external vertebrals.

A

False. Common carotid arteries bifurcate into the internal and external CAROTIDS.

204
Q

The four portions of the internal carotid artery are?

Cervical, facial, cavernous, and cerebral

Cervical, petrous, cavernous, and cerebral

Cervical, maxillary, cavernous, and cerebral

Cervical, superficial temporal, cavernous, and cerebral

A

Cervical, petrous, cavernous, and cerebral

205
Q

Angiography of the intracranial and extracranial circulation includes examination and understanding of the arteries of the _____, neck, and vertebral vessels.

Brachiocephalic

Vertebral

Aortic arch

Innominate

A

Aortic arch

206
Q

True or false…

The most common anatomical variant in the aortic arch is called the “bovine arch“. It is where the left common carotid artery shares its origin of the innominate artery.

A

True

207
Q

Epistaxis embolization is performed to alleviate hemorrhaging from the?

Ear

Mouth

Nose

Orbital area

A

Nose

208
Q

An AVM is a web of dilated blood vessels that disrupt normal blood flow in the brain by pulling blood within its dense center or _____.

Fundus

Abnormus

Niculus

Nidus

A

Nidus

209
Q

FMD (fibromuscular dysplasia) a disease (found most commonly in Caucasian females) commonly results in stenosis or occlusion of one or both renal arteries, resulting in renovascular hypertension. Which area I can use disorder also occur?

1) Internal carotid artery unilaterally
2) Internal carotid arteries bilaterally
3) Vertebral artery unilaterally
4) Vertebral arteries bilaterally

1, 3

2, 4

2

4

A

2, 4

210
Q

FMD has a _____ appearance angiographically. Lesions caused by fibromuscular dysplasia usually respond well to angioplasty.

String sign

String of beads

Constricted

Serpentine

A

String of beads

211
Q

_____ is a giant-cell necrotizing arteritis that principally affects the aorta and it’s major branches. It often affects the pulmonary arteries, and the proximal portion of the brachiocephalic vessels. Cerebral vessels rarely are affected.

Harimoto’s arteritis

Benewa’s arteritis

Takayasu’s arteritis

Nelson’s arteritis

A

Takayasu’s arteritis

212
Q

Symptoms of carotid dissection may appear as all of the following except?

1) Unilateral headache, neck pain
2) Loss of superficial temporal artery poles with common carotid artery involvement
3) Hearing and vision loss
4) Aphasia, with unilateral facial weakness

1

2

3

4

A

3) Hearing and vision loss

213
Q

True or false…

Subclavian steal syndrome is caused by a blockage of the subclavian artery, near the carotid artery resulting in backflow of blood. This is compensated for via the Circle of Willis.

A

False. Subclavian steel syndrome is caused by blockage of the subclavian artery, near the VERTEBRAL artery resulting in backflow of blood. This is compensated for via the circle of Willis.

214
Q

True or false…

In the presence of subclavian steal syndrome, blood is shunted past the brain through the Circle of Willis to the vertebral and subclavian arteries to supply the active muscles in the upper limb involved. Flow is actually reversed in the vertebral artery. There will usually be no differences in blood pressure readings in the left and right upper limbs.

A

False. There will usually be MARKED DIFFERENCES in blood pressure readings in the left and right upper limbs.

215
Q

True or false…

Amaurosis fugax is an occurrence of transient binocular blindness caused by temporary ischemia.

A

True

216
Q

True or false…

Vasopressin (Pitressin) is an anti-diuretic hormone that causes constrIction of the arteries and is used to control visceral bleeding.

A

True

217
Q

Patient receiving vasopressin should be ECG monitored because it can cause _____.

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Myocardial infarcts

Cardiac ischemia

A

Myocardial infarcts

218
Q

Vasopressin is used mostly in G.I. bleeding cases of the?

1) SMA bleeding
2) IMA bleeding
3) Celiac bleeding

1

2

1, 2

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2, 3

219
Q

Permanent embolic agents may include all of the following except?

Detachable balloons

Polymers and coils

Ethanol or absolute alcohol

Gelfoam

A

Gelfoam

220
Q

Which of the following does the celiac artery not supply?

1) Stomach
2) Intestines
3) Liver
4) Spleen and pancreas

1

2

3

4

A

2) Intestines

221
Q

What supplies blood to the left half of the transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, and rectosigmoid area?

HGA

SMA

IDA

IMA

A

IMA

222
Q

Embolization in the lower gastrointestinal tract carries a _____ risk of bowel ischemia.

Low

High

A

High

223
Q

True or false…

The choice of embolic agent depends on the size of the patient, the desired outcome (hemostasis or infarction, temporary or permanent), and ease of catheter placement.

A

False. The choice of embolic agent was depends on the size of the TRAGEDY VESSEL, the desired outcome (hemostasis or infarction, temporary or permanent), and ease of catheter placement.

224
Q

Upper gastrointestinal bleeding will usually be managed with Pitressin or Gelfoam for _____ term management, or the use of coils for _____ term management.

Short, long

Long, short

A

Short, long

225
Q

DSA roadmapping is _____ useful when working with embolic materials.

Never

Always

Sometimes

Questionably

A

Always

226
Q

When there is a _____ pressure in the portal system, blood in the liver may flow backward, causing variceal bleeding in the esophagus and stomach.

Decreased

Increased

A

Increased

227
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome is a compression of the?

1) Brachial plexus
2) Subclavian artery
3) Vein between the clavicle and first rib

1, 2

2, 3

1, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2, 3

228
Q

Arteries are _____ accompanied by vein of the same name.

Sometimes

Never

Always

A

Always

229
Q

True or false…

The celiac artery (also referred to as the celiac axis or trunk) is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta, arising posteriorly at the level of the T12-L1 interspace.

A

False. The celiac artery (also referred to as celiac access or trunk) is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta, arriving ANTERIORLY at the level of the T12-L1 interspace.

230
Q

The SMA arises anteriorly off the aortic wall at _____ and descends to _____.

L2, L5 – S1

T12, L5 – S1

L1, L5 – S1

L2, L4

A

L1, L5 - S1

231
Q

Renal angiography may be performed along with, renal vein _____ sampling which is useful in determining if hypertension has a renovascular origin.

Cortosin

Renin

Biopsy

Amino

A

Renin

232
Q

True or false…

Excess renin production stimulates angiotensin and aldosterone production, which in turn causes sodium and fluid retention, resulting in low blood pressure.

A

False. Excess renin production stimulates angiotensin and aldosterone production, which in turn causes sodium and fluid retention, resulting in HIGH blood pressure.

233
Q

HTN (high blood pressure) may be caused by strictures of one or both of the renal arteries. Sometimes a common occurrence related to _____ which is more prevalent in young white females.

Ostial structure

Atherosclerosis

AVM

FMD (fibromuscular dysplasia)

A

FMD (fibromuscular dysplasia)

234
Q

The left renal vein passes under the origin of the _____ and it is more posterior than the right renal vein, and a slightly longer than the right renal vein, allowing the left kidney to be more frequently chosen for renal organ transplantation.

Superior mesenteric artery

Inferior mesenteric artery

Celiac artery

Left renal artery

A

Superior mesenteric artery

235
Q

True or false…

Wilms’ tumor is a non-malignant tumor of the kidney that occurs in pediatric patients, usually before the age of five.

A

False. Wilms’ tumor is a MALIGNANT tumor of the kidney that occurs in pediatric patients, usually before the age of five.

236
Q

_____ and _____ or vasodilator sometimes use for selective renal and geography.

Nitroglycerin, epinephrine

Lidocaine, nitroglycerin

Procardia (nifedipine), nitroglycerin

Pitressin, TKN

A

Procardia (nifedipine), nitroglycerin

237
Q

TIPS is the abbreviation for?

Transcaval intrahepatic pectosystemic shunt

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shut

Transesophageal intracaval pancrealsystemic shunt

Transjugular intra-abdominal portosystemic shunt

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

238
Q

Anatomical variants in hepatic vein anatomy exist in _____ of the population. The variants add to the challenge of performing a TIPS procedure.

1/3

2/3

1/2

1/4

A

1/3

239
Q

True or false…

The usual path of access for TIPS formation is right IJ to SVC to RA to IVC to right hepatic vein, then through the liver parent, to the portal vein.

A

True

240
Q

True or false…

The TIPS procedure is a method of decompressing hypertension in the portal venous system.

A

False.

241
Q

Indications for uterine artery embolization include which of the following?

1) Menorrhagia with associated anemia
2) Pain
3) Bulk symptoms
4) Infertility

1, 2

1, 2, 3

All of the above

1, 4

A

All of the above

242
Q

Fibroid treatment options include?

1) Hormonal therapy
2) Uterine fibroid embolization
3) Myomectomy
4) Hysterectomy

1, 2

All of the above

1, 2, 3

1, 4

A

All of the above

243
Q

A significant amount of discomfort results from a UAE procedure; patients are usually returned to the room with what?

A mild analgesic

A warm compress

A dose of Tylenol

A morphine pump

A

A morphine pump

244
Q

The purpose of an IVC filter is to trap emboli arising from deep leg veins and prevent travel to the?

1) Pulmonary arteries
2) Heart
3) Brain

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2

All of the above

A

1, 2

245
Q

Indications for IVC filter placement include?

1) As a prophylactic prior to a surgery
2) Patients with a higher risk of clot formation
3) When normal medication therapy for thromboembolism is contra indicated

1, 2

2, 3

1, 3

All of the above

A

All of the above

246
Q

What is pain from the lower limbs with cramps and the calves caused by poor circulation of the blood?

Ischemic leg syndrome

Reynaud’s syndrome

Compartment syndrome

Claudication syndrome

A

Claudication syndrome

247
Q

_____ and _____ involve the lower extremities; it often progresses in severity from claudication to ischemic pain at rest, and finally to tissue necrosis presenting as gangrene.

1) Arteriosclerotic occlusive disease AOD
2) Ischemia
3) Compartment syndrome
4) Peripheral vascular disease PVD

All of the above

1, 2

1, 4

1, 3,

4

A

1, 4

248
Q

True or false…

Indications for peripheral interventions include gangrene, rest pain, nonhealing wound, quality of life limiting claudication, but not surgery.

A

False. Indications for peripheral interventions include gangrene, rest pain, nonhealing wound, quality of life limiting claudication, but not surgery. SURGERY IS A VIABLE MODE OF PERIPHERAL INTERVENTIONS AS WELL.

249
Q

True or false…

Excimer laser recanalization is performed only on short segment total occlusions of the superficial femoral artery.

A

False. Excimer laser recanalization is performed on short AND LONG segment total occlusion of the superficial femoral artery.

250
Q

True or false…

Excimer laser recanalization is always performed in conjunction with vessel stenting.

A

False… Excimer laser recanalization is performed in conjunction with vessel stenting OR WITHOUT STENTING.

251
Q

True or false…

The cryoplasty procedure was designed to improve the outcome of PTA by combining dilation with simultaneous freezing of the artery.

A

True

252
Q

True or false…

Biopsies and drainages are only performed outside the interventional suite, in CT, or ultrasound departments.

A

False. Biopsies in drainages are performed outside AND INSIDE the interventional suite, in CT, or ultrasound departments.

253
Q

TIP procedure is used to manage patients with severe _____ accompanied by intractable _____ bleeding that may be due to cirrhosis of the liver, hepatitis, or congenital liver conditions.

Hepatic vein hypertension, variceal

Systemic hypertension, rectal

Systemic hypertension, variceal

Portal hypertension, variceal

A

Portal hypertension, variceal

254
Q

The most serious complication associated with TIPS, intraperitoneal hemorrhage requires immediate _____ intervention.

Radiological vascular

Surgical

Thrombolytic

Embolization/coil

A

Surgical

255
Q

True or false…

A fusiform aneurysm denotes bulging of half the circumference of the vessel wall.

A

False. A fusiform aneurysm denotes bulging of the WHOLE circumference of the vessel wall.

256
Q

True or false…

A dissecting aneurysm involves only one side of the wall. A saccular aneurysm is present if there is disruption of the intima (inner layer) where blood enters the wall of the aorta and separates its layers.

A

False. A SACCULAR aneurysm involves only one side of the wall. A DISSECTING aneurysm is present if there is disruption of the intima (inner layer) where blood enters the wall of the aorta and separates it’s layers.

257
Q

True or false…

Marfan’s syndrome is an inherited condition with excess length of the bones, associated with changes in the circulatory system, including abnormal connective tissue and tearing of the aorta (dissection).

A

True

258
Q

True or false…

Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital defect causing stenosis of the thoracic aorta resulting in decreased pressure on the side effected and increased pressure on the opposite side.

A

False. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital defect causing stenosis of the thoracic aorta resulting in INCREASED pressure on the side effected and DECREASED pressure on the opposite side.

259
Q

True or false…

Leriche syndrome is a gradual blockage of the suprarenal abdominal aorta, associated with atherosclerotic disease.

A

False. Leriche syndrome is a gradual blockage of the INFRARENAL abdominal aorta, associated with atherosclerotic disease.

260
Q

Abdominal and aortography is usually perform to evaluate which of the following?

1) Aneurysms
2) Atherosclerotic disease
3) Aortic stenosis
4) Bleeding

1, 2

2, 3

3, 4

All of the above

A

All of the above

261
Q

Complications possible with angiography are?

1) Thrombosis
2) Hemorrhage
3) Embolization
4) Pseudoaneurysm formation

1, 2

2, 3

3, 4

All the above

A

All of the above

262
Q

The subclavian artery’s become _____ arteries as they pass the first rib, and then become the _____ arteries in the upper arm region.

Basilic, ulnar

Axillary, basilic

Axillary, brachial

Axillary, cephalic

A

Axillary, brachial

263
Q

True or false…

The left subclavian artery branches off the brachiocephalic (innominate) artery.

A

False. The left subclavian artery branches off the AORTIC ARCH.

264
Q

True or false…

The right subclavian arises directly from the aortic arch.

A

False. The right subclavian arises from the BRACHIOCEPHALIC (INNOMINATE) ARTERY.

265
Q

The classic signs and symptoms of acute arterial insufficiency can be remembered by the five “_____”s.

M

O

P

R

A

P

266
Q

True or false…

The IVC is the largest vein in the body and carries deoxygenated blood into the right atrium of the heart. It is formed by the coupling of the two common iliac veins.

A

True

267
Q

True or false…

The inferior vena cava parallels the aorta on the left side of the body.

A

False. The inferior vena cava parallels the aorta on the RIGHT side of the body.

268
Q

True or false…

PTA is performed to increase blood flow, with hopes of maintaining long-term vessel patency.

A

True

269
Q

True or false…

Digital subtraction roadmapping or metallic markers on the PTA catheter are used to accurately position a balloon.

A

True

270
Q

True or false…

When performing a PTA cutting balloon procedure, the balloon should be rapidly inflated and deflated.

A

True

271
Q

True or false…

Restenosis is a primary limiting factor of PTA. For this reason, adjunct procedures like lasers, stents, and nonsurgical artherectomy are often used in conjunction with PTA to increase the success rate.

A

True

272
Q

True or false…

Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated only in the presence of brain metastasis.

A

False. Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in the presence of brain metastasis, RECENT BRAIN SURGERY WITHIN 10 DAYS, BLEEDING DIATHESIS AMONG OTHER REASONS.

273
Q

Patients who will receive thrombolytic therapy should go where after the interventional procedure is completed?

Sent home for follow up

To the room with the train to nursing person at her bedside

Intensive care unit

On bed rest in their room

A

Intensive care unit

274
Q

True or false…

The IVC filter is always placed superior to the renal veins to avoid risking renal vein thrombosis.

A

False.

275
Q

True or false…

If the lesion is very long, stents may be placed in succession, but never with an overlap.

A

False

276
Q

True or false…

When placing an intravascular stent, PTA may be performed prior to stent placement and always performed after.

A

True

277
Q

True or false…

The common bile duct passes along side the pancreatic duct, and opens up into the duodenum.

A

False

278
Q

True or false…

Patients with uncontrolled hypertension, thrombocytopenia, or coagulopathy are good candidates for PBD (percutaneous biliary drainage).

A

False. Patients with uncontrolled hypertension, thrombocytopenia, or coagulopathy our POOR candidates for PBD (percutaneous biliary drainage).

279
Q

Complete internal stenting of the biliary tract is usually indicated for patients with a limited lifespan. This procedure is referred to as?

Plasmapheresis

Nephroprosthesis

Hydroprosthesis

Endoprosthesis

A

Endoprosthesis

280
Q

True or false…

The right kidney is usually higher than the left due to the presence of the liver.

A

False. The right kidney is usually LOWER than the left due to the presence of the liver.

281
Q

True or false…

Hydronephrosis may be caused by large stones (above 3 cm), malignant obstruction, or ureteral obstruction and can only be treated in a retrograde fashion.

A

False. Hydronephrosis may be caused by large stones (above 3 cm), malignant obstruction, or ureteral obstruction and can be treated in a retrograde fashion in the OR or ANTEGRADE IN THE INTERVENTIONAL SUITE.

282
Q

True or false…

Chemoembolization and yttrium 90 (Y-90) embolization (SIR-Spheres, TheraSpheres) are procedures performed to therapeutically treat malignant liver tumors and is only performed under CT.

A

False. Chemoembolization and yttrium 90 (Y-90) embolization (SIR-Spheres, TheraSpheres) are procedures performed to therapeutically treat malignant liver tumors and is only performed IN THE INTERVENTIONAL SUITE.

283
Q

Chemo embolization delivers a mixture of all the following to the target liver tumor except?

1) Embolic particles (i.e. PVA, Gelfoam)
2) Ethiodol
3) Chemotherapeutic medication
4) Coils

1

2

3

4

A

4) Coils

284
Q

Chemoembolization kills liver tumors by which mechanisms?

1) Interruption of blood supply to the tumor cuts the timer source of oxygen and nutrients
2) Delivery of potent chemo directly into the liver allows a higher dose of chemo to be given to the tumor with less systemic side effects
3) Cutting off the blood supply to the tumor is also allows the chemo to dwell in the tumor for longer periods of time because blood flow does not carry it away

1, 2

2, 3

1, 3

All of the above

A

All of the above

285
Q

Cysts visualize during what phase of a renal angiogram?

Arterial

Nephrogram

Venous

None of the above

A

Nephrogram

286
Q

The technique used by a radiologist performing a percutaneous nephrostomy (PCN) in which one needle is left in place to correct the angulation while introducing a second needle is?

Tandem

Sampling

Seldinger

Embolization

A

Tandem

287
Q

Indications for a percutaneous nephrostomy tube placement include?

1) To create an external renal drain in the presence of a renal fistula
2) To create a pathway for direct infusion of litholytic medication
3) To create a tract for decompression of obstructions

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2

288
Q

Which of the following embolization agents can be classified as permanent?

1) Coils
2) Autologous clot
3) Detachable balloons

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 3

289
Q

The main objectives of transcatheter embolization include?

1) Pre-surgical hemostasis
2) Hemostasis of active bleeding sites
3) Hemostasis of disease areas

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2, 3

290
Q

The puncture site for percutaneous nephrostomy should be?

Above the 10th rib

Between the 10th and 11th ribs

Between the 11th and 12th ribs

Below the 12th rib

A

Below the 12th rib

291
Q

The desired results of transcatheter embolization therapy may include hemostasis of?

1) Active bleeding sites
2) Disease or malformed areas
3) A particular area of the body prior to surgery

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2, 3

292
Q

The length of a ureteral stent corresponds with the distance between?

The renal pelvis in the ureter

The renal pelvis and the bladder

The renal pelvis in the urethra

The bladder in the urethra

A

The renal pelvis and the bladder

293
Q

The primary risk in percutaneous nephrostomy is?

Hemorrhage

Sepsis

Ureteral and colonic perforation

Hydrothorax

A

Hemorrhage

294
Q

The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta at the level of?

T11

L1

L3

S1

A

L3

295
Q

In advanced alcoholic cirrhosis, the hepatic angiography may demonstrate?

1) Enlarged, spiral shaped arteries
2) Venous peripheral occlusions
3) Venous branches at acute angles

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 2

296
Q

Of the following conditions, which are best revascularized with percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)?

1) Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)
2) Arterial thromboemboli
3) Takayasu’s arteritis

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 3

297
Q

Which of the following defines a potentially life-threatening condition in which disruption of the intima permits blood to enter the wall of the aorta and separates it’s layers?

Saccular aneurysm

Fusiform aneurysm

Congenital coarctation

Dissection of the aorta

A

Dissection of the aorta

298
Q

If a piece of the catheter fragmented and broke loose into the vascular system, retrieval may be accomplished using a?

1) Snare loop catheter
2) Multiple side whole catheter
3) Helical loop basket

1, 2

1, 3

2, 3

1, 2, 3

A

1, 3

299
Q

Two balloons or “kissing“ balloons would most likely be used in the percutaneous angioplasty treatment of lesions in which area?

Cerebral

Renal

Aortoiliac bifurcation

Extremity

A

Aortoiliac bifurcation

300
Q

The largest vein in the body is formed by the union of the?

Right and left brachiocephalic veins

The right and left spermatic veins

Two common iliac veins

The external iliac veins

A

Two common iliac veins

ARRT: VI Prep (1 decks)

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