Van amstel final

Question 1

You are presented with an 8 month old boer goat selected for breeding showing the following signs: intermittent straining, vocalization and dribbling urine for at least the past 2 days. The goat had been fed 4 pounds of sweet feed/day. The owner wants to keep the goat for breeding purposes. Which of the following actions is most critical?

a. Ultrasound the kidneys
b. Look for pitting edema in perineal area
c. Cut urethral process
d. Do retrograde catheterization
e. Do blood potassium

Answer 1

b. Look for pitting edema in perineal area

need to r/o bladder rupture

Question 2

Which one of the following should you do first to expedite a diagnosis and prognosis for a 12-month-old blocked goat, which lives on pasture/browse showing some abdominal distention? No palpable perineal swelling.

a. Do ventral abdominal stab and drain fluid
b. Check blood BUN & Creat
c. Do centesis and measure BUN in fluid
d. Do emergency laparotomy
e. Take a x-ray to check for calcium stones in urethra

Answer 2

e.Take a x-ray to check for calcium stones in urethra

Since on pasture worried about calcium carbonate (phosphate). Want to know how many stones are present so can decide further treatment. If pearl string of stones need to do more severe treatments.

Question 3

Which procedures listed below are the best to evaluate/treat a goat that is obstructed with struvite for 8 days?

a. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy
b. Cut urethral process, do normograde urethral flushing, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy
c. Palpate perineum, do cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy
d. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, do blood potassium, do retrograde catheterization, do tube cystotomy
e. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, do blood potassium, marsupialization

Answer 3

c. Palpate perineum, do cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, do blood potassium, do tube cystotomy

Cutting the urethral process is not performed for struvite stones. Perineum should always be palpated to r/o rupture, pH should be above 4.5 to lavage stones, hyperK, hypoNa, deH20 and azotemia are all clinical signs seen w/ uroliths. Tube cystotomy is the treatment of choice for struvites.

Question 4

Which one of the following is the best treatment for urolithiasis caused by struvite obstruction?

a. Retrograde flushing of the urethra using Walpoles solution
b. Cutting the urethral process followed by oral ammonium chloride
c. Marsupialize the bladder
d. Do a vesico-preputial anastomosis
e. Do tube cystotomy

Answer 4

e. Do tube cystotomy

Cutting the urethral process is more commonly used with calcium stones. Best practice for stuvites is tube cystotomy with normograde flush (acidic walpoles or rinc) to unblock.

Question 5

Which of the following is the best treatment for multiple calcium stone obstruction?

a. Do urine diversion surgery
b. Do a tube cystotomy
c. Flush the bladder repeatedly with Walpoles solution
d. Do lithotripsy
e. Do urethral process amputation

Answer 5

a. Do urine diversion surgery

For multiple stones diversion is needed. Vesico-preputial anastomosis, perineal urethrostomy and bladder marsupialization are among the choices.

Tube cysto and walpoles are both tx for struvites.
Lithripsy is done for single stone and amputation is rarely done alone.

Question 6

Which of the following is not a complication of chronic urethral obstruction?

a. Bladder atony
b. Bladder rupture
c. Hydronephrosis
d. Urethral rupture
e. Hypernatremia

Answer 6

e. Hypernatremia

HypoNa and HyperK is a comp.

Question 7

Which of the following is a viable option for a goat with struvite obstruction and a tube cystotomy that did not become unblocked after 3 weeks of care?

a. Do marsupialization
b. Do low perineal urethrostomy
c. Do a second tube cystotomy
d. Do long-term tube cystotomy
e. Do contrast urethrogram to check for stricture

Answer 7

d. Do long-term tube cystotomy

Question 8

Which of the following statements is false?

a. The gastrocnemius muscle extends the hock and flex the stifle
b. Overextension of the hock may indicate peroneus tertius rupture
c. Stall rest is a viable treatment for gastrocnemius rupture in goats
d. Boer goats are more susceptible to urethral stone formation than Anglo Nubian goats
e. Ammonium chloride may cause a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

Answer 8

e. Ammonium chloride may cause a hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

Causes hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

Question 9

Which of the following is false?

a. Delaying castration will prevent urolithiasis
b. Marsupialization can cause severe urine scald
c. Ammonium chloride will reduce urine pH after a lag phase of several days
d. Anabolic steroids predispose to stone formation
e. Hyperkalemia cause dropped P waves and tented T waves on ECG

Answer 9

a. Delaying castration will prevent urolithiasis

Does not prevent the formation of calcium crystals.

Question 10

Which of the following is false?

a. Fusobacterium can survive in wet conditions for a prolonged period
b. Dichelobacter can only survive away from the carrier animal for a short period <14 days
c. Dichelobacter can live in infected horn for prolonged periods
d. Dichelobacter is the cause of foot rot in cattle
e. Interdigital dermatitis is a polybacterial condition from which several species of bacteria including spirochetes can be cultured

Answer 10

d. Dichelobacter is the cause of foot rot in cattle

In cattle foot rot is caused by fusobacterium, Dichelobacter causes it in SR

Question 11

Which of the following is false?

a. Differentials for hard bag include mastitis and spontaneous milker
b. CAE is a oncogenic retrovirus
c. CAE can be neutralized by heating milk to 56C for 30 minutes
d. The virus can be spread through injections using the same needle
e. Carpal joints are commonly affected in CAE

Answer 11

b. CAE is a oncogenic retrovirus

Non-oncogenic

Question 12

Which of the following is false?

a. Fusobacterium causes foot rot in cattle by causing an ascending cellulitis in the foot
b. One possible complication of foot rot in cattle is septic arthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint
c. Footrot in sheep results from undermining of the axial wall with a descending infection in the ventral aspects of the foot
d. Fusobacterium also cause foot rot in sheep
e. Following interdigital trauma, Fusobacterium may cause foot abscess “septic DIP joint” in sheep

Answer 12

d. Fusobacterium also cause foot rot in sheep

Foot rot in SR is caused by dichelobacter and it extends down to separate medial and lateral wall

Question 13

Which is the best control method for foot rot in small ruminants?

a. Vaccinate every 3 weeks during spring and summer
b. Cull the chronic sheep
c. Treat all affected sheep with Tulathramycin for 7 days
d. Trim all sheep
e. Footbath all sheep once a week with formaldehyde

Answer 13

b. Cull the chronic sheep

Although control is done by trimming loose horns, foot baths once a week during high risk periods, Ab treatment, and vaccination. Disposal of chronic sheep is the best form of control.

Question 14

Which of the following is false?

a. The success of long term indwelling Foley is largely dependent on owner compliance
b. Overfilled bladder can often be diagnosed on external abdominal palpation
c. Pitting edema is one way to identify water belly
d. A sheep with chronic foot rot should not be trimmed
e. Fusobacterium is a gram negative anaerobe

Answer 14

d. A sheep with chronic foot rot should not be trimmed

This sheep should be trimmed but separate from negative sheep.

Question 15

All of the statements are true except:
A. Open mouth breathing in alpacas represents a severe problem since they are obligate nasal breathers
B. BCS of 3 in a lactating goat is normal
C. IM injections in the back of the leg in goats should not be used as a routine
D. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial
E. Both the infratrochlear and cornual nerves should be blocked for disbudding in goats

Answer 15

D. The correct site for tail amputation in sheep to prevent rectal prolapse is sacro-coccidial

This actually predisposes to rectal prolapse, amputation should be done between C1 and C2

Question 16

All of the statements are true except:

a. Tetanus is a possible complication following open castration
b. Sharp hooks on the maxillary molars should always be floated
c. Overgrowth of incisors in camelids occur because of continual growth of their roots
d. Quidding is usually a sign of dental disease
e. Fluoride deposition in teeth predisposes to excessive wear

Answer 16

b. Sharp hooks on the maxillary molars should always be floated

Since roots of the molars are closed there is no need for floating unless C/S are seen like quidding, foot retention or painful mastication.

Question 17

All of the statements are false except:

a. True floppy kid syndrome is characterized by hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis
b. True floppy kid syndrome is usually associated with prematurity
c. Hypoglycemia in goats occurs when the blood glucose drops to below 120
d. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid syndrome
e. True floppy kid results from lactic acidosis from anerobic metabolism muscle tissue

Answer 17

d. Administration of bicarb intravenously is a correct form of treatment for true floppy kid (administer bicarb to reverse acidosis, given when pH < 7.2)

True floppy kid syndrome is related to overconsumption of milk and infectious agents (clostridium/ E. Coli). Normal BG and systemic metabolic acidosis is seen with this disease

HypoG is associated with premies.

HypoG is <50

The lactic acidosis is actually from bacterial fermentation in the GIT.

Question 18

All statements are true except:

a. Isotonic bicarb is indicated as the fluid of choice in cases where blood pH is less than 7,2
b. Leucopenia/degenerative left shift/ high fibrinogen are often associated with sepsis
c. In case of sepsis neonates are often unable to maintain blood glucose
d. Newborn goat kids usually only have enough brown fat for 5 hours to maintain their blood glucose
e. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (GLU< 50)

Answer 18

e. Subcutaneous dextrose is an acceptable treatment for acute hypoglycemia (GLU< 50)

Dextrose should be administered IV or IP

Question 19

All statements are true except:

a. Lepto, Clostridium, copper cause anemia through intravascular hemolysis
b. A PCV of <12 is one of the indications for a blood transfusion
c. Amprolium may predispose to polioencephalomalacia because it acts a thiamine analog
d. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight
e. Fetal manipulation is not indicated until 30 minutes after onset of labor in goat-

Answer 19

d. A goats blood volume is equal to 12% of its body weight

The BV is actually 7% of BWT

Question 20

Which of the following tests done once a year would give most information regarding parasite resistance against any particular anthelmintic?

a. FAMACHA eye color test
b. Fecal egg count on 1% of the herd
c. Fecal egg count reduction test
d. Consistency of the feces of 10% of the herd
e. Average body condition score of the herd

Answer 20

c. Fecal egg count reduction test

Question 21

Which of the following would be most indicative of intestinal parasitism in a sheep flock?

a. Loss of body condition
b. Bottle jaw as result of decreased vascular oncotic pressure
c. Rumen atony
d. Constipation
e. FAMACHA score 2 in the majority of sheep

Answer 21

a. Loss of body condition

Question 22

Which of the following techniques is the best to catch a llama?

a. Grab it by the halter
b. Drive it into the chute
c. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and grab it by the tail
d. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and circle your arm around its neck

Answer 22

d. Calmly let it walk into a corner of the stall and circle your arm around its neck

Question 23

Which of the following is not an important consideration when doing FAMACHA scores?

a. Time of membrane exposure before recording
b. Ambient temperature
c. Dust
d. Age
e. Fever

Answer 23

b. Ambient temperature

Question 24

Which of the following should be included in spring/summer herd health program?

a. FAMACHA
b. Body condition score
c. Fecal floats on 10% of herd
d. FECRT on those with high egg counts
e. All of the above

Answer 24

e. All of the above

Question 25

You are presented with an 8-month-old Boer goat selected for breeding showing the following signs: intermittent straining, vocalization and dribbling urine for at least past 2 days. The goat had been fed 1-pound of sweet feed/day. The owner wants to keep the goat for breeding purposes. Which of the following diagnostic and treatment protocols should be followed in this case to ensure the best outcome for both the animal and client?

a. Sedate the animal with xylazine, ultrasound the bladder, marsupialize the bladder, tell the owner the goat will be able to breed
b. for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, do cystocentesis and flush the bladder with Walpole solution until urine pH is below 5, tell the owner that the goat will unblock in the next 6-8 hours
c. Ultrasound the bladder and kidneys, since you suspect struvite do a tube cystotomy with normograde flushing
d. Check for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, ultrasound the kidneys, check blood potassium and creatinine, tube cystotomy and normograde flushing
e. Ultrasound the kidneys, check blood potassium and creatinine, tube cystotomy and normograde flushing, continue flushing post op.

Answer 25

b. for urethral rupture by palpating the perineal area for edema, do cystocentesis and flush the bladder with Walpole solution until urine pH is below 5, tell the owner that the goat will unblock in the next 6-8 hours

Grain –> struvite stones which are dissolved in acidic fluids and cystocenetesis.

Question 26

Which of the following should you do to expedite a diagnosis and prognosis for a 12-month-old blocked goat which lives on pasture/browse?

a. Take a xray to check for calcium stones in urethra (pearl string effect)
b. Ultrasound bladder and kidneys
c. Amputate the urethral process
d. Check blood potassium
e. Do retrograde catheterization

Answer 26

a. Take a xray to check for calcium stones in urethra (pearl string effect)

Goats are pasture are predisposed to calcium stones. These stones are more stable so need more invasive surgeries.

Question 27

Which procedures listed below are the best to evaluate/treat a goat that is obstructed with struvite for 8 days?

a. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy
b. Cut urethral process, normograde urethral flushing, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy
c. Palpate perineum, cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy
d. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, blood potassium, retrograde catheterization, tube cystotomy
e. Palpate perineum, cut urethral process, blood potassium, marsupialization

Answer 27

c. Palpate perineum, cystocentesis to check urine pH, ultrasound bladder/kidneys, blood potassium, tube cystotomy

Do not cut the urethral process with stuvites only with calcium stones.

Always palp the perineum to r/o rupture. Stop lavage wje pH < 4.5.

Tube cystotomy and normograde flush with acidic solution.

Question 28

Which of the following statements is false?

a. Cleft palate is a heritable trait
b. One of the main causes of FPT is dysgalactia
c. Unerupted incisors is a sign of prematurity
d. Cardiac murmurs are commonly present in newborn crias and is caused by a persistent right aortic arch
e. Meconium retention for the first 24 hours is a common finding

Answer 28

b. One of the main causes of FPT is dysgalactia

FPT is most commonly d/t agalactia/ delayed lactation (esp in 1-2 birth), mis-mothering or mastitis.

Question 29

Which of the following statements is false?
a. FPT is one of the major problems camelid neonates
b. Mixed dyspnea in a premature cria is most likely caused by aspiration of amniotic fluid
c. Floppy ears and a silky coat are signs of dysmaturity
d, Hyperglycemia in a 3 day old cria with neuro signs is often associated with hyperosmolar syndrome
e. Total protein is a unreliable measure of IgG

Answer 29

Not sure if this is correct

b. Mixed dyspnea in a premature cria is most likely caused by aspiration of amniotic fluid

FPT is the biggest compliant 0-14 d. While floppy ears and as silky coat are signs of premies, dysmaturitiy is premie signs w/ normal gestation length. HyperG –> stress response –> hyperosmole. Total serum protein is affected by inflammation and deH2O, SRID is the gold standard test.

Question 30

Which of the following statements is false?

a. Hypopyon is usually associated with sepsis
b. FPT is defined as a IgG level of less than 900
c. Jugular vein catheterization is preferably done on the left side of the neck
d. Blood sodium should be monitored during IV administration of isotonic fluids
e. Crias are born with variable blood IgG levels

Answer 30

c. Jugular vein catheterization is preferably done on the left side of the neck

The jug is hard to find and the esophagus runs on the left, so preferably right side for jug

Question 31

You are presented with a 24-hour-old Cria that is weak and may not have nursed. The Cria feels cold to the touch. According to the owner, it may be premature. Which of the following treatments/procedures should you perform for a successful outcome?

a. Immediately pass a nasogastric tube and give 300ml of warm cow colostrum, give subcutaneous penicillin and amikacin
b. Immediately wrap the cria in a warm blanket, pass a nasogastric tube and give 300ml of warm cow colostrum, take blood to check IgG levels
c. Immediately wrap the cria in a warm blanket, start nasal oxygen, insert a jugular catheter and start on 5% dextrose, take blood to check IgG levels
d. Immediately wrap the cria in a warm blanket, start nasal oxygen, insert a jugular catheter and do a blood glucose; start on 2.5% dextrose, check IgG levels
e. Immediately wrap the cria in a warm blanket, start nasal oxygen, check for cleft palate, murmurs, eyes, joints, insert a jugular catheter and do a blood glucose; check IgG levels; start warming fluid and plasma

Answer 31

d. Immediately wrap the cria in a warm blanket, start nasal oxygen, insert a jugular catheter and do a blood glucose; start on 2.5% dextrose, check IgG levels

Cria needs to be warmed up since normally hypothermic, BG must be performed because they can get severely hyperG from stress or hypoG from FPT or sepsis. Start low on dextrose, if hypoG increase dextrose if hyperG keep at 2.5%. IgG levels should be check to determine if failure of passive transport has occurred (<900)

Question 32

Which of the following statements is false?

a. Fescue may be a cause of agalactia in camelids
b. FPT in a cria older than 18 hours should best be treated with a plasma transfusion
c. Use of colostrum from cows to treat FPT in crias is unreliable
d. The nasogastric tube should be placed securely into the gastric compartment
e. Always check for gastric reflux between feeds

Answer 32

c. Use of colostrum from cows to treat FPT in crias is unreliable

Give colostrum if less than 12-28 hours from sheep, cow or cria.

Question 33

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Low ionized calcium concentration in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is partly caused by the increased blood pH
b. Hypocalcemia in cows commonly occur during the first 2 weeks post calving
c. Hyperglycemia in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is associated with insulin resistance due to high endogenous steroid release
d. Induction of pregnancy with steroids and prostaglandin is not the best treatment option for a sheep suffering from severe ketoacidosis
e. Pregnancy toxemia in sheep typically occurs in the last 3-4 weeks prior to lambing

Answer 33

a. Low ionized calcium concentration in pregnancy toxemia in sheep is partly caused by the increased blood pH

Pregnancy toxemia causes ketoacidosis (pH decreased). Acid pH causes an increase of iCa. However with pregnancy toxemia you see hypoCa… Don’t ask me why.

Question 34

Which of the following cannot be used as a precursor of glucose in ruminants?

a. Amino acids
b. Non-esterified fatty acids
c. Glycerol
d. Propionic acid
e. Propylene glycol

Answer 34

b. Non-esterified fatty acids

Needs to go through acetyl CoA

Question 35

Which of the following does not cause lipolysis through activation of hormone sensitive lipase?

a. Insulin
b. Growth hormone
c. Endogenous glucocorticoids
d. Glucagon
e. Injectable semisynthetic steroids

Answer 35

a. Insulin

Protective cause it causes lipogenesis and sends it back to TG

Question 36

A low “physiologic” level of ketone bodies is always present in the bloodstream of a cow. These ketone bodies are mainly derived from which of the following:

a. Propionic acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Acetic & buteric acid
d. Betahydroxybuterate & acetone
e. Non-esterified fatty acids

Answer 36

c. Acetic & buteric acid
e. Non-esterified fatty acids
d. Betahydroxybuterate & acetone

Propionic acid, lactic acid are glucose precursors

acetatic acid, butyratic acid, BHB, acetone, and NEFA are all ketone precursors.

Most correct probably acetic and buteric acid

Question 37

What is the main beneficial effect of steroids as part of the treatment of ketosis in cattle?

a. It stimulates food intake
b. It induces gluconeogenesis
c. It reduces milk production
d. It stimulates NEFA production
e. It activates hormone sensitive lipase

Answer 37

c. It reduces milk production

Glucocorticoids enhance gluconeogenesis and reduce milk production. Above is the main effect.

Question 38

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The dietary cation/anion difference of dairy cows on primarily forage during the dry period will increase the incidence of milk fever
b. Addition of anions to the diet will increase the absorption of calcium from both the gut and bone
c. Ionized calcium levels will decrease in the face of a metabolic alkalosis
d. PTH does not play a role in the conservation of magnesium
e. Subclinical hypocalcemia may play a significant role in the pathogenesis of abomasal displacement

Answer 38

d. PTH does not play a role in the conservation of magnesium

PTH resorbs Mg in the kidney

Question 39

From the following, select why cows are more prone to the development of fatty liver? The liver has:

a. Not enough oxaloacetate
b. Too much Acetyl-coenzyme A
c. Low ketone production capacity
d. Insufficient apo-lipoprotein production capacity
e. Relatively small size

Answer 39

d. Insufficient apo-lipoprotein production capacity

Question 40

Ketosis is often a secondary problem associated with subacute rumen acidosis. Signs include decrease in both milk production and milk fat. From the following select the reason for the decreased milk fat.

a. There is a progressive decrease in acetate production in the rumen
b. Ketone bodies blocks the role of butyric acid in lactogenesis
c. There is a linear relationship between milk production and the amount of butter fat in the milk
d. It is a protective mechanism to prevent the cow from losing too much weight
e. Dietary fat content in the ration is too low

Answer 40

a. There is a progressive decrease in acetate production in the rumen

Question 41

Regarding the treatment of pregnancy toxemia, which of the following combinations would be best for an ewe still moving around but not eating?

a. C-section; IV glucose; oral propylene glycol
b. Induce with steroids; IV glucose; rumen fluid
c. Induce with steroids; IV glucose; oral propylene glycol
d. C section; IV insulin; oral propylene glycol
e. C-section; IV insulin; IV glucose; rumen fluid

Answer 41

e. C-section; IV insulin; IV glucose; rumen fluid

Do not want to induce with steroids, since having too much steroids is what got her into this mess. Cane be hypoG or hyperG, IV glucose is needed 6-8 times a day. Insulin should be given q 3 days.

Rumen fluid? idk why. But glucose needs to be given IV so this is the only option that fits.

Question 42

Which of the following is the best diagnostic test/procedure for fatty liver in cattle or sheep?

a. GGT
b. AST
c. BUN
d. Biopsy
e. Bilirubin

Answer 42

d. Biopsy

Droplets

Question 43

You are presented with a down cow in the field. Which of the following signs will be most indicative of milk fever?

a. Complete rumen atony
b. Rectum filled with feces
c. Rapid (>100) and soft heart sounds
d. Extremities cold to the touch
e. Reduced lower jaw tone

Answer 43

c. Rapid (>100) and soft heart sounds

Although all of these signs are seen with milk fever, tachycardia is most diagnostic. This is d/t decreased CO and contractility.

Question 44

Which of the following is most correct?

a. Feeding alfalfa prior to calving will reduce the amount of calcium in the blood at calving
b. Grass hay is a good source of calcium
c. Magnesium act as a calcium channel blocker in the body
d. Low blood magnesium is associated with low intracellular calciumà with increase intracellular Ca
e. Nitrogen fertilizer on pasture will not reduce the amount of bioavailable magnesium in the rumen

Answer 44

c. Magnesium act as a calcium channel blocker in the body

Alfalfa increases the energy balance. HypoMg is associated with hyperCa because the cell is being overloaded. There are no body stores of Mg, therefore what the animal eats effects Mg in the rumen.

Question 45

Which clinical sign from the list below is most indicative of hypomagnesemia?

a. Loud, rapid heart sounds; muscle tremors
b. Rapid breathing with upper respiratory stridor
c. Rumen atony and mild free gas bloat
d. Increased rectal temp, hypersensitivity
e. Seizure activity, opisthotonus; normal heart rate

Answer 45

a. Loud, rapid heart sounds; muscle tremor

Other c/s include: hyperesthesia, incoordination, bellowing, externsor rigidity, muscle tremors, opisthotonus, increased TPR.

Question 46

From the following select the most effective treatment to prevent pregnancy toxemia in sheep?

a. Identify triplet carrying sheep and feed separately
b. Feed only roughage prior to lambing
c. Determine liver Mg levels and supplement Mg
d. Feed extra potassium
e. Make sure all sheep body condition score is 4.5-5.0

Answer 46

a. Identify triplet carrying sheep and feed separately

Question 47

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Relative metabolic alkalosis increases the affinity of osteoclast receptors for PTH
b. PTH will decrease the renal excretion of Mg in cases of hypomagnesemia
c. One reason why older cows are more susceptible to develop milk fever is reduction in osteoclast receptors
d. The DCAD diet can indirectly stimulate PTH activity by causing a slight metabolic acidosis
e. Calcium is primarily absorbed through the duodenum via calcium binding protein

Answer 47

d. The DCAD diet can indirectly stimulate PTH activity by causing a slight metabolic acidosis

Dietary DCAD favors alkalosis because of high K and Na in forage in the dry cow diet. Alkaline blood pH lowers Ca.

Question 48

Which of the following is not a consistent sign of hypomagnesemia?

a. Bellowing
b. Incoordination
c. Opisthotonus
d. Tongue paralysis
e. Loud fast heart beat

Answer 48

d. Tongue paralysis

Ddx from milk fever: hypoCa see decreased tongue tone and tachycardia (soft)

Question 49

How many bottles of 500 mL of 50% dextrose need to be added to 20 L saline to make a 5% solution?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 10

Answer 49

b. 4

0. 0520L= 1L 500mL= 0.5L0.5= 0.25*4=1 L

Question 50

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Diagnosis of hypomanesemia can be confirmed on necropsy by measuring mg levels in ocular fluid
b. Decreased blood Ca levels may also be associated with hypomagnesemia
c. Frequent urination is often a sign of subacute hypomagnesemia
d. Sheep and goats are very resistant to hypomagnesemia
e. Lush spring pasture predispose to hypomagnesemia

Answer 50

d. Sheep and goats are very resistant to hypomagnesemia

Question 51

Which of the following does not play a role in the development of a negative energy balance?

a. High milk production
b. Estrogen
c. Reduced rumen volume
d. Transition ration
e. Subclinical hypocalcemia

Answer 51

e. Subclinical hypocalcemia

Question 52

Which of the following clinical signs is not consistent with ketosis?

a. Cow licking itself
b. Inverse milk fat to protein ratio
c. Loss of body condition
d. Acetone smell on breath
e. Diarrhea

Answer 52

e. Diarrhea

Between D+ and a cow licking itself?

Question 53

Which metabolic profile is most indicative of severe fatty liver in a cow?

a. Hyperglycemia, elevated NEFAs, low VLDL
b. Hypoglycemia, low insulin, low endogenous steroids
c. Ketonemia, hypoglycemia, elevated VLDL
d. Ketonemia, elevated ammonia, elevated NEFAs
e. fermentation failure, rumen atony and D+

Answer 53

d. Ketonemia, elevated ammonia, elevated NEFAs

See hypoglycemia, low insulin, low VLDL,

Question 54

What combination of clinical signs is most indicative of milk fever?

a. Deviation of neck posture, rumen atony, tachycardia
b. Cold extremities, subnormal temp, reduced anal tone
c. General muscle flaccidity, soft rapid heart sounds, cold extremities
d. Down with head on side, absent tail tone, reduced jaw tone

Answer 54

d. Down with head on side, absent tail tone, reduced jaw tone

Milk fever: down, kink in neck, decreased jaw tone and tongue tone, flaccid paralysis, cold extremeties, tachycardia with soft sounds and rumen atony.

Question 55

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Mg is the bodies natural Ca channel blocker
b. Bone act as a reservoir for magnesium
c. Young pasture is low in magnesium
d. Loose watery stool caused by spring pasture is a predisposing cause of hypomagnesemia
e. Hypermagnesemia can cause cardiac arrest

Answer 55

b. Bone act as a reservoir for magnesium

No body stores of mg

Question 56

Which of the following is not a predisposing cause for hypomagnesemia?

a. Rapid growing calves on a milk diet
b. Transport stress
c. Addition of nitrogen to the pasture
d. Na:K ratio of > 3:1
e. Dry fall pasture

Answer 56

d. Na:K ratio of > 3:1

Absorption is impaired when <3.1

Question 57

Regarding pregnancy toxemia which of the following predisposing causes is most important?

a. Number of lambs
b. Body condition score
c. Rumen volume
d. Sudden feed changes
e. Blind (blocked) teats

Answer 57

a. Number of lambs

Question 58

Regarding the treatment of pregnancy toxemia which of the following factors/signs will necessitate doing a c-section?

a. Severity of the clinical signs
b. Intensity of the ketonuria
c. Blood glucose level
d. Blood pH
e. Body condition score

Answer 58

a. Severity of the clinical signs

Question 59

What factor will not influence the activity of PTH in the body?

a. Blood glucose level
b. The cows age
c. Blood pH
d. Level of potassium in the feed
e. Calcium loss in the milk

Answer 59

a. Blood glucose level