VALVULAR DISEASE ACCSAP Flashcards

1
Q

Vasodilator therapy in chronic severe primary MR?

A

Vasodilator therapy is not indicated for normotensive asymptomatic patients with chronic primary MR and normal left ventricular (LV) systolic function.

Because vasodilator therapy appears to be effective in acute severe symptomatic MR, it seems reasonable to attempt afterload reduction in chronic asymptomatic MR with normal LV function in an effort to forestall the need for surgery. However, the results from the limited number of trials addressing this therapy have been disappointing, demonstrating little or no clinically important benefit.

Conversely, because vasodilators decrease LV size and mitral closing force, they may increase MVP, worsening rather than decreasing the severity of MR. The foregoing does not apply to patients with concomitant hypertension. Hypertension must be treated because of the well known morbidity and mortality associated with that condition and because increased LV systolic pressure by itself increases the systolic transmitral gradient and worsens the severity of MR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Exercise stress testing in aortic stenosis?

A

Exercise stress testing is reasonable to assess physiological changes with exercise and to confirm the absence of symptoms in reportedly asymptomatic patients with a calcified aortic valve and an aortic velocity ≥4.0 m/sec or a mean pressure gradient of ≥40 mm Hg (stage C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Choice of bioprosthetic versus mechanical valve replacement?

A

The choice of which type of valve, bioprosthetic versus mechanical, is an individual one and should be done with shared decision-making based on the individual’s preferences, risks of long-term anticoagulation, and contraindications to anticoagulation.

A bioprosthesis is recommended in patients of any age for whom anticoagulant therapy is contraindicated, cannot be managed appropriately, or is not desired.

Factors that favor mechanical prosthesis include age <50, low risk for anticoagulation complications, adherence to medical therapy, additional reasons for long term anticoagulation, small risk for re-intervention and small aortic root size.

While the risk for reoperation with bioprosthetic valves is greater in younger patients, this must be balanced against the risk of bleeding such as in a patient who is an avid motorcyclist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bileaflet mechanical AVR interruption of anticoagulation?

A

Temporary interruption of vitamin K antagonist (VKA) anticoagulation, without bridging agents while the international normalized ratio (INR) is subtherapeutic, is recommended in patients with a bileaflet mechanical AVR and no other risk factors for thrombosis who are undergoing invasive or surgical procedures.

When interruption of oral VKA therapy is deemed necessary, the agent is usually stopped 3-4 days before the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bridging therapy in patients with mechanical valves when VKA held prior to surgery?

A

“Bridging” therapy with either intravenous unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin has evolved empirically to reduce thromboembolic events during temporary interruption of oral anticoagulation in higher-risk patients, such as those with a mechanical mitral valve replacement or AVR and additional risk factors for thromboembolism (e.g., atrial fibrillation, previous thromboembolism, hypercoagulable condition, older-generation mechanical valves [ball-cage or tilting disc], left ventricular systolic dysfunction, or >1 mechanical valve).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment for primary assymptomatic severe primary MR?

A

Patient with asymptomatic primary severe MR (stage C1) with a normal EF and normal LV dimensions with a surgical risk of <1% and and a high likelihood of successful MV repair (>95%) may be considered for surgical MV repair to prevent long-term sequela and adverse remodeling (Class IIa). MV repair by an experienced surgeon is preferred over replacement. There is no indication for transcather repair as the patient is at a low risk for surgery. If observation is chosen, a repeat echocardiogram should be obtained in 6-12 months for severe MR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary TR causes?

A

Primary disorders causing TR include rheumatic heart disease, prolapse, congenital disease (Ebstein’s), infective endocarditis, radiation, carcinoid syndrome, blunt chest wall trauma, RV endomyocardial biopsy-related trauma, and intra-annular RV pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillator leads.

Rheumatic tricuspid valve disease typically includes diffuse leaflet thickening with restriction of opening due to commissural fusion, chordal shortening, and calcification with characteristic diastolic doming. In carcinoid syndrome, liver metastases produce 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid which causes a unique echocardiographic appearance of the RV including leaflets that are short, thick, and with systolic and diastolic restriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Secondary tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Approximately 80% of cases of significant TR are functional in nature and related to tricuspid annular dilation and leaflet tethering in the setting of RV remodeling due to pressure and/or volume overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pacemaker leads and TR?

A

Severe TR can be caused by restriction from pacemaker lead. Endocardial leads can impair the structure and function of the tricuspid valve. Injury can also occur during implantation or extraction. Chronic interaction between the endocardial leads and tricuspid valve leaflets and/or chords can result in inflammation and fibrosis leading to entrapment of the lead. The resulting TR will typically exhibit eccentric rather than a central trajectory, with the septal leaflet being the most common leaflet to be entrapped.

Note: We would see elevated RA pressure, v-waves without pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treatment of assymptomatic primary MR stage C2?

A

Mitral valve (MV) surgery is recommended for asymptomatic patients with chronic severe primary MR and left ventricular (LV) dysfunction (LVEF of 30-60% and/or LVESD of 40 mm, stage C2).

Ideally, MV surgery should be performed when the patient’s LV approaches, but has not yet reached the parameters that indicate systolic dysfunction (LVEF of 60% or LVESD of 40 mm). Because symptoms do not always coincide with LV dysfunction, imaging surveillance is used to plan surgery before severe dysfunction has occurred. If moderate LV dysfunction is already present, prognosis is reduced following MV operation. Thus, further delay (even though symptoms are absent) will lead to greater LV dysfunction and a still worse prognosis. Because the loading conditions in MR allow continued late ejection into a lower-impedance left atrium, a higher cutoff for “normal” LVEF is used in MR than in other types of heart disease. Although it is clearly inadvisable to allow patients’ LV function to deteriorate beyond the benchmarks of an LVEF of 60% and/or LVESD of 40 mm, some recovery of LV function can still occur even if these thresholds have been crossed.

MV repair is recommended in preference to MV replacement when surgical treatment is indicated for patients with chronic severe primary MR involving the anterior leaflet or both leaflets when a successful and durable repair can be accomplished, thus MV repair is the preferred choice in this patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Transcathetar mitral valve repair?

A

Transcatheter MV repair may be considered for severely symptomatic patients (New York Heart Association [NYHA] class III-IV) with chronic severe primary MR (stage D) who have favorable anatomy for the repair procedure and a reasonable life expectancy, but who have a prohibitive surgical risk because of severe comorbidities and remain severely symptomatic despite optimal guideline directed medical therapy (GDMT) for heart failure (HF; Level of Evidence B). A randomized controlled trial of percutaneous MV repair using the MitraClip device versus surgical MV repair was conducted in the United States. The clip was found to be safe, but less effective than surgical repair because residual MR was more prevalent in the percutaneous group. However, the clip reduced the severity of MR, improved symptoms, and led to reverse LV remodeling. Percutaneous MV repair should only be considered for patients with chronic primary MR who remain severely symptomatic with NYHA class III-IV HF symptoms despite optimal GDMT for HF and who are considered inoperable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ejection clicks?

A

Ejection clicks are high-pitched sounds that occur at the moment of maximal opening of the aortic or pulmonary valves. They are heard just after the first heart sound. The sounds occur in the presence of a dilated aorta or pulmonary artery or in the presence of a bicuspid or flexible stenotic aortic or pulmonary valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pulmonic ejection click/sound?

A

The most helpful distinguishing feature of a pulmonary ejection sound is its decreased intensity, or even its disappearance during the inspiratory phase of respiration. During expiration, the valve opens rapidly from its fully closed position; sudden “halting” of this rapid opening movement is associated with a maximal intensity of the ejection sound. With inspiration, the increased venous return to the right ventricle (RV) augments the effect of right atrial systole and causes partial opening of the pulmonary valve prior to ventricular systole. The lack of a sharp opening movement of the pulmonary valve explains the decreased intensity of the pulmonary ejection sound during inspiration. Thus, the best way to confirm that the patient has pulmonic stenosis is to assess the intensity of the murmur on inspiration.

Note: If ejection click and murmur are heard only at the left sternal border is consistent with pulmonic rather than aortic stenosis. The only right-sided auscultatory event that diminishes with inspiration is the pulmonary ejection click associated with pulmonary valve stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hand grip?

A

Sustained hand grip for 20-30 seconds leads to an increase in systemic vascular resistance, arterial pressure, cardiac output, and left ventricular (LV) volume and filling pressure. Hand grip is most useful in differentiating between the ejection systolic murmur of aortic stenosis and the regurgitant murmur of mitral regurgitation (MR). Intensity of the murmur of aortic stenosis tends to decrease along with a decreased transvalvular pressure gradient, while the severity and murmur of MR increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Valsalva manuever?

A

During the straining phase, phase 2, of Valsalva there is a decrease in venous return, RV and LV volumes, stroke volumes, mean arterial pressure, and pulse pressure; this is associated with a reflex increase in heart rate. The murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) increases in intensity as the LV outflow size decreases with a decreased venous return. In mitral valve prolapse (MVP) there is an early onset of the click and murmur due to the decrease in LV volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Squatting?

A

Squatting from a standing position is associated with a simultaneous increase in venous return (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload) and a rise in arterial pressure. In HCM, intensity of the ejection systolic murmur declines because of an increased LV volume and arterial pressure, which increase the effective orifice size of the outflow tract. In patients with MVP there is a delay in the onset of the click and a shortening of the late systolic murmur. These changes reflect the delay in prolapse induced by the increase in preload. However, as MR becomes more severe, the murmur may increase in intensity with squatting because of the increase in afterload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Non holosystolic MR estimation?

A

Parameters which are measured in a single frame like PISA, vena contracta width (VCW), or jet area can lead to significant overestimation of the severity of MR, especially in the setting of late systolic MR. The presence of normal LV and LA size should raise the possibility of overestimation by quantitative measure in this asymptomatic patient.

When calculated using the data from the echocardiogram, the instaneous effective regurgitant orifice area (EROA) is 0.5 cm2, which is consistent with severe MR (see calculations below). However, the calculated regurgitant volume is in the mild range. This is most likely secondary to late systolic MR as opposed to holosystolic MR. This is commonly seen in mitral prolapse where there is late systolic regurgitation yielding a small regurgitant volume. MR duration is a common reason for discrepancy between the calculated EROA and regurgitant volume.

Note: The MR jet would be expected to be anteriorly directed in this patient with posterior leaflet prolapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Regurgitant volume from PISA?

A

Flow = [(2) x (3.14) x (PISA r2) x (Aliasing velocity)]

EROA = [(2) x (3.14) x (PISA r2) x (Aliasing velocity)]/Vmax MR jet

Regurgitant volume is then calculated according the formula:
regurgitant volume = EROA x VTI of MR jet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Secondary prophylaxis for rheumatic fever?

A

Prophylaxis choices for RF include penicillin V twice daily, monthly benzathine penicillin G intramuscular injection, or daily sulfadiazine.

For those patients with residual valvular disease, the recommended duration is to continue penicillin prophylaxis for 10 years from the last episode of acute rheumatic fever or until 40 years of age (whicever is longer). If there was acute carditis but no residual valve disease, the recommendation is for 10 years or until 21 years of age (whichever is longer). If there was rheumatic fever without carditis, the recommendation is for 5 years or until 21 years of age (whichever is longer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Endocarditis prophylaxis?

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis against endocarditis is indicated for those patients undergoing dental procedures involving manipulation of gingival tissues who are at highest risk of complications. These high-risk patients include those with a prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic valve repair material, a prior history of infective endocarditis, cardiac transplant with valvulopathy, completely repaired congenital heart disease (CHD) with percutaneous or surgical repair occurring within the previous 6 months, repaired CHD with residual shunts or defects that impair endothelialization of prosthetic material, and unrepaired cyanotic CHD.

Antibiotic prophylaxis is required in these patients who are undergoing dental procedures that involve manipulation of the gingival tissues, the periapical region of the teeth, or perforation of oral mucosa. There are no prospective studies to suggest benefit from antibiotic prophylaxis in nondental procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prosthetic valve stenosis?

A

Transthoracic echocardiography is the first-line test for diagnosing prosthetic valve dysfunction such as stenosis which can occur in the setting of sporadic medical care, suspicious for valve thrombosis from inadequate anticoagulation.

Expected findings would be an elevated transvalvular velocity and gradient; a prolonged (>100 msec) acceleration time; a reduced effective orifice area (<1 cm2); and a reduced dimensionless index (<0.3).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Severe aortic stenosis management?

A

The recommendation for either surgical aortic valve replacement (AVR) or transcather AVR among patients aged 65 to 80 years old with severe, symptomatic AS (stage D), after consideration by a heart valve team, is a Class I (LOE A) in the 2020 guideline for patients with valvular heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Balloon aortic valvuloplasty for severe AS?

A

Percutaneous aortic balloon dilation has an important role in treating children, adolescents, and young adults with AS, but its role in treating older patients is very limited. The mechanism by which balloon dilation modestly reduces the severity of stenosis in older patients is by fracturing calcific deposits within the valve leaflets and, to a minor degree, stretching the annulus and separating the calcified or fused commissures. Immediate hemodynamic results include a moderate reduction in the transvalvular pressure gradient, but the postdilation valve area rarely exceeds 1.0 cm2. Despite the modest change in valve area, an early symptomatic improvement usually occurs. However, serious acute complications, including acute severe aortic regurgitation, restenosis, and clinical deterioration, occur within 6-12 months in most patients. Therefore, in patients with AS, percutaneous aortic balloon dilation is not a substitute for AVR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anticoagulation for mechanical valve prosthesis?

A

Effective oral antithrombotic therapy in patients with mechanical heart valves requires continuous vitamin K antagonist (VKA) anticoagulation with an international normalized ratio (INR) in the target range. It is preferable to specify a single INR target for each patient and to recognize that the acceptable range includes 0.5 INR units on each side of this target.

Direct oral anticoagulants are not recommended in patients with mechanical valves. The one randomized controlled trial of dabigatran compared with warfarin in patients with mechanical valves was stopped early due to higher rates of bleeding and thrombosis in the dabigatran arm. No other direct oral anticoagulants have been studied in this patient population

Note: In contrast to prior guidelines, the 2020 American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association (ACC/AHA) Guideline for the Management of Patients With Valvular Heart Disease no longer recommends routine low-dose aspirin use for patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

S.Bovis endocarditis?

A

Colon cancer screening is mandatory if the pathogen is Streptococcus (S.) bovis. The association between colonic carcinoma and endocarditis was reported as early as 1951, but it was only in 1977 that S. gallolyticus (previously S. bovis) was recognized by Klein et al. as the pathogen agent specifically related to the presence of a colonic cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Echocardiography follow up after valve prosthesis?

A

Current guidelines recommend a baseline postprocedural study (TTE) ideally performed 1 to 3 months after intervention to ensure loading conditions have returned to normal. An echocardiographic examination performed 6 weeks to 3 months after valve implantation is essential to establish a baseline for comparison should complications or deterioration occur later (Class I recommendation, Level of Evidence B).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Repeat imaging (TTE or TEE) in patients with infective endocarditis?

A

Transthoracic and/or transesophageal echocardiograpy (TEE) are recommended for the re-evaluation of patients with infective endocarditis (IE) who have a change in clinical signs or symptoms (e.g., new murmur, embolism, persistent fever, heart failure [HF], abscess, or atrioventricular heart block) and in patients at a high risk of complications (e.g., extensive infected tissue/large vegetation on initial echocardiogram or staphylococcal, enterococcal, fungal infections).

HF, perivalvular extension, and embolic events represent three of the most frequent and severe complications of IE. They are also the three main indications for early surgery, which is performed in almost 50% of cases. If signs or symptoms consistent with any of these complications exist, there should be a very low threshold for repeat imaging in these patients.worsening HF is the indication to perform TEE to assess for progressive valvular destruction that may be an indication for urgent surgery. Perivalvular abscesses can extend into adjacent cardiac conduction tissues, leading to heart block. Involvement of the conducting system is most common in the setting of aortic valve infection, especially when there is involvement of the valve ring between the right and noncoronary cusp; this anatomic site overlies the intraventricular septum that contains the proximal ventricular conduction system.

However, atrial fibrillation would not be considered a sign of a perivalvular abscess and thus not an indication for repeat imaging. Fever associated with IE should resolve after 3-5 days of antibiotic therapy. A fever noted after 48 hours in the absence of other symptoms or signs would not be considered a failure of therapy and thus further imaging would not be indicated. Streptococcus bovis (S. bovis) is a common cause of IE, but unlike IE caused by Staphylococcus species, enterococcus, and fungal species, S. bovis IE usually responds to antibiotic therapy so the growth of S. bovis from blood cultures alone would not be a reason to perform repeat imaging. Septic emboli can occur with IE resulting in stroke, renal or splenic infarcts, ischemia of the extremities, myocardial infarction or, in the case of right-sided IE, pulmonary embolism. However, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) would not be a form of septic emboli and thus the presence of an acute DVT would not warrant further imaging.

28
Q

Acute MR and inferior MI?

A

Inferior MI is likely associated with posteromedial papillary muscle rupture. Acute severe MR may produce a brief systolic murmur or no murmur at all. Rapid diagnosis is essential. A delay in the time to surgery appears to increase the risk of further myocardial injury, organ failure, and death.

To confirm the diagnosis, an urgent echocardiogram is needed. Transthoracic echocardiography may be sufficient, however acute severe MR may be under-appreciated on transthoracic imaging, in which case transesophageal imaging would be needed.

29
Q

BAV and aortopathy?

A

BAVs are frequently associated with aortic dilation either at the level of the sinuses of Valsalva or, more frequently, in the ascending aorta. The incidence of aortic dilation is higher in patients with fusion of the right and noncoronary cusps. Aortic imaging is recommended annually in patients with a BAV and significant aortic dilation (>4.5 cm), a rapid rate of change in aortic diameter (increase of >0.5 cm in a year, and in those with a family history of aortic dissection (Class I recommendation, Level of Evidence B-NR). Aortic imaging can be by echocardiogram if there is adequate image quality with visualization of the aorta up to 4 cm distal to the valve. Alternatively computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging can provide better spatial resolution and is preferred in patients with poor echocardiographic windows.

Surgical intervention is recommended at a dimension of 5.5 cm or at 5.1-5.5 cm in patients with rapid growth or a family history of aortic dissection.

30
Q

Dilated aorta?

A

Patients with dilation of the aortic root or ascending thoracic aorta should be evaluated for bicuspid aortic valve and/or aortic regurgitation with transthoracic echocardiography.

31
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve can be associated with sudden cessation of valve opening, leading to an ejection systolic click, and often is associated with significant aortic valve regurgitation. Findings of chronic aortic regurgitation with left ventricular volume overload include an enlarged and laterally displaced apical pulse, wide aortic pulse pressure, and an S3.

32
Q

TAVI vs SAVR in low surgical risk patients?

A

Severe AS and low surgical risk (<4%), the most appropriate therapy is surgical aortic valve replacement (AVR; Class I) (Figure 1). Transcather aortic valve implantation (TAVI) is a Class I indication for treating AS in patients at prohibitive surgical risk as well as high surgical risk (Society of Thoracic Surgeons Predicted Risk of Mortality score >8%), but also patient age and life expectancy, depending on patient values and preferences. TAVI is not currently recommended for the treatment of patients with AS and low surgical risk and age <65.

Note: Nonobstructive coronary artery disease if FFR of >0.8 should treated medically.

33
Q

Severe acute vs chronic aortic regurgitation?

A

In severe acute AR echocardiography reveals preclosure of the MV due to the rapidly rising left ventricular diastolic pressure as a result of his severe AR. This also results in the soft S1 observed. As opposed to chronic AR, the difference between the aortic and left ventricular pressures in diastole may be small in acute AR and there may be little diastolic murmur. Likewise the pulse pressure may not be wide, and there may be none of the classic hemodynamic findings of chronic AR.

34
Q

Management pearls of acute severe AR?

A

Severe AR is a contraindication to the intra-aortic balloon pump. His tachycardia is appropriate for his serious hemodynamic state and beta-blockers therefore would not be appropriate. In addition, the reduced heart rate from a beta-blocker would increase diastolic time and the duration of AR per beat. Phenylephrine would increase afterload, which is contraindicated in severe AR.

We can try inotropes and nitroprusside for medical therapy

35
Q

Mitral valve findings in severe acute AR?

A

Early closure of the MV (normally should be right after or on QRS)

Fluttering on the anterior MV leaflet

36
Q

Infective endocarditis and acute heart failure?

A

Early surgical intervention is a Class I indication for patients with IE and valve dysfunction causing HF.

37
Q

Murmur of acute AS or AR?

A

AS and AR murmurs can be heard on the left sternal border. AS murmur is a systolic crescendo decresendo murmur where as AR murmur is a diastolic decrescendo murmur.

38
Q

Prosthetic valve thrombosis?

A

Patients presenting with a thrombosed left-sided mechanical prosthetic valve who have symptoms should be treated promptly. It is a Class Ib-NR recommendation to treat patients urgently with a slow infusion of a low-dose fibrinolytic therapy or emergent cardiac surgery. The decision to pursue fibrinolysis should be determined based on clinical factors using a multidisciplinary heart team approach and a shared decision-making process with the patient.

If a patient has no prior history of valve thrombosis, mild symptoms, a small thrombus burden, and a low bleeding risk, it is reasonable to consider fibrinolytic therapy before considering emergent surgery. The success rate of fibrinolysis is >90% with bleeding and embolic rates <2%. IV heparin alone would not be used to treat valve thrombosis but likely would be used to bridge this patient upon reinitiating warfarin. There is no indication of infective endocarditis, so empiric vancomycin is not appropriate. Transcatheter aortic valve replacement cannot be performed in a mechanical valve and is not indicated for treatment of prosthetic valve thrombosis

39
Q

Percutaneous balloon mitral commissurotomy (PBMC) for MS?

A

Transesophageal echocardiography should be performed in patients planning percutaneous balloon mitral commissurotomy (PBMC) to assess for the presence and degree of MR and to rule out left atrial or left atrial appendage thrombus prior to the procedure (Class I). PBMC is indicated in symptomatic patients with severe MS (Class I) and in asymptomatic patients with new onset AF and favorable valve morphology (Class IIB) (Figure 1).

40
Q

Exercise stress testing in patients with MS?

A

If a patient has symptoms and exam findings consistent with significant mitral stenosis (MS), but resting echocardiographic findings are suggestive of mild MS. Exercise testing with Doppler or invasive hemodynamic assessment is recommended to evaluate the response of the mean mitral gradient and pulmonary artery pressure in patients with MS when there is a discrepancy between resting Doppler echocardiographic findings and clinical symptoms or signs.

41
Q

Chronic severe AR intervention decision based on echo parameters?

A

In asymptomatic patients with chronic severe AR, indications for AVR include a left ventricular (LV) ejection fraction of <55% (Class I), an LV end systolic dimension >50 mm (Class IIa), progressive LV enlargement with an LV end-diastolic dimension of >65 mm if the patient is a low surgical risk (Class IIb), and if undergoing cardiac surgery for other indications (Class I). Holodiastolic flow reversal in the abdominal aorta is a highly specific sign for severe aortic insufficiency but is not by itself an indication for surgery. In patients with bicuspid aortic valve who have an indication for AVR, it is reasonable to replace the ascending aorta if its diameter is >4.5 cm (Class IIa). Otherwise, the indication for ascending aorta replacement is a diameter of >5.5 cm (Class I).

42
Q

Pregnancy, severe rheumatic MS and atrial fibrillation?

A

A pregnant woman with rheumatic mitral stenosis and AF with rapid ventricular response. The initial treatment will be medical therapy to lower her heart rate and anticoagulation.

There is no role for cardioversion at this time, as she now has appropriate rate control with associated improvement in symptoms. In addition, chemical or electrical cardioversion is not indicated as she has not been previously anticoagulated and the duration of AF is unknown; she has been symptomatic for 2 weeks.

If symptoms fail to improve with additional medical therapy, future options include transesophageal echocardiogram-guided direct current cardioversion. Indications for intervention (either percutaneous or surgical) are symptoms refractory to medical management. If medical management fails, balloon valvuloplasty (with pelvic shielding) would be the procedure of choice if the valve morphology is appropriate. Surgical MV replacement during pregnancy carries a 30% risk of fetal loss and is therefore a last resort.

43
Q

Follow up periods for aortic stenosis?

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram for re-evaluation of asymptomatic patients with AS with normal left ventricular systolic function who have no change in signs or symptoms is performed at intervals of 6 months to 1 year when aortic velocity is greater than equal to 4.0 m/sec (stage C), 1-2 years when aortic velocity is 3.0-3.9 m/sec (stage B), and 3-5 years when aortic velocity is 2.0-2.9 m/sec (stage B; Table 1).

44
Q

Infective endocarditis work up?

A

A patient that has an unexplained fever for >48 hours and a left-sided regurgitant murmur has a high likelihood for IE. Thus, the most appropriate next step in management is to obtain two sets of blood cultures. Blood cultures must be obtained before starting empiric antibiotics. TTE should also be obtained.

Patients with a prosthetic aortic valve are at risk for infective endocarditis (IE). It is important that two sets of blood cultures are obtained in patients who are at risk for IE, including those with congenital or acquired valvular heart disease, previous IE, prosthetic heart valves, certain congenital or heritable heart malformations, immunodeficiency states, or who are injection drug users. Blood cultures are positive in >90% of patients with IE and should be obtained at separate time intervals prior to the administration of antibiotics.

45
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis?

A

The most current guidelines do not recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis for myxomatous MVD. Endocarditis prophylaxis is only recommended for conditions associated with the highest risk of adverse outcome from endocarditis. These conditions include prosthetic cardiac valve or prosthetic valve repair material, prior history of infective endocarditis, cardiac transplant recipients with valvulopathy, completely repaired congenital heart disease (CHD) with percutaneous or surgical repair occurring within the previous 6 months, repaired CHD with residual shunts or defects that impair endothelialization of prosthetic material, and unrepaired cyanotic CHD.

For patients with these conditions, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for dental procedures that involve manipulation of the gingival tissues, the periapical region of the teeth, or perforation of oral mucosa. Antibiotic prophylaxis also may be considered for procedures that involve incision of the respiratory mucosa (e.g., tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy) and for genitourinary, skin, or gastrointestinal procedures that involve infected areas. Patients undergoing diagnostic procedures in the absence of these conditions do not require antibiotic prophylaxis.

46
Q

Antibiotic regimens for infective endocarditis?

A
47
Q

Tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Causes of primary tricuspid regurgitation (TR) include radiation, Ebstein’s anomaly, infective endocarditis, cardiovascular implanted electronic devices, and carcinoid syndrome, which is what this patient’s clinical presentation suggests. Advanced degrees of TR may be detected on physical examination by the appearance of elevated “c-V” waves in the jugular venous pulse (JVP), a systolic murmur at the lower sternal border that increases in intensity with inspiration, and a pulsatile liver edge. In many patients, characteristic findings in the JVP are the only clues to the presence of advanced TR, because a murmur may be inaudible even with severe TR. Symptoms include fatigue from low cardiac output, abdominal fullness, edema, and palpitations, particularly if atrial fibrillation is also present. Progressive hepatic dysfunction may occur due to the elevated right atrial pressure, and thus assessment of liver function is useful in patients with advanced degrees of TR.

Transothoracic echocardiography can distinguish primary from functional TR, define any associated left-sided valvular and/or myocardial disease, and provide an estimate of pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Characterization of severity of TR relies on an integrative assessment of multiple parameters.

48
Q

Acute severe MR management?

A

Medical management may include diuresis and afterload reduction with vasodilators or an intra-aortic balloon pump, but should be done while preparing for urgent surgical intervention. Norepinephrine is not indicated because it offers inotropic support with vasoconstriction. Neither percutaneous left ventricular assist device nor percutaneous mitral valve repair have been studied in this setting.

Pulmonary hypertension is secondary to her high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (group II pulmonary hypertension) so there is no indication for pulmonary vasodilator therapy.

49
Q

BAV and Aortopathy?

A

For patients with a BAV and an ascending aortic aneurysm >4.5 cm, annual imaging of the aneurysm is recommended (Class I). Transthoracic echocardiography is considered first-line imaging but cardiac magnetic resonance angiography or computed tomography angiography may be indicated when the morphology of the aortic sinuses, sinotubular junction, and ascending aorta cannot be adequately visualized (Class 1). For patients with mild AS without an ascending aortic aneurysm, serial echocardiography every 3-5 years is recommended in the absence of a change in clinical status or physical findings. Echocardiography is recommended annually for asymptomatic patients with severe AS and every 1-2 years in those with moderate AS. Patients should be advised to report changes in symptoms promptly.

50
Q

What is Gallavaridin phenomenon?

A

Gallavardin phenomenon—a harsh murmur at the base with a musical murmur at the apex. This is due to the high-frequency components of the AS murmur radiating to the left ventricular (LV) apex. It can be confused with the murmur of mitral regurgitation (MR) except that the murmur of AS is a systolic ejection murmur rather than holosystolic. The murmur of AS also increases with bradycardia or after a pause, such as after a PVC; an MR murmur would not change.

51
Q

VSD features?

A

Increased pulmonary artery (PA) oxygen saturation suggests the presence of a left-to-right shunt, such as a ventricular septal defect (VSD). A VSD murmur is typically continuous and heard at the sternal border, not the apex.

52
Q

Prosthetic valve dysfunction?

A

Doppler echocardiography (transthoracic echocardiography and transesophageal echocardiography) is the method of choice for the diagnosis of prosthetic valve dysfunction (stenosis and regurgitation).

In patients with bioprosthetic valves who show evidence of prosthetic valve regurgitation, TTE is used to monitor the appearance of the valve leaflets, valve hemodynamics, LV size and systolic function, and to estimate pulmonary pressures. The initial approach is TTE for evaluation of antegrade valve velocities and pressure gradients. However, transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is essential for the evaluation of suspected or known prosthetic mitral valve regurgitation. On TTE imaging, the left atrium is shadowed by the valve prosthesis, obscuring evidence of prosthetic regurgitation. TEE imaging provides clear images of the left atrial side of the mitral prosthesis and is particularly useful for delineation of the site and severity of paravalvular regurgitation, evaluation of suitability for a percutaneous approach, and guidance during percutaneous closure procedures.

Note: prosthetic valve endocarditis,can cause paravalvular leak that can lead to heart failure.

53
Q

Prosthetic valve dyfunction?

A

Prosthetic valve dysfunction could be due to endocarditis or thrombosis!

Echocardiography holds a Class I indication for the evaluation of suspected prosthetic valve dysfunction. TTE allows for the evaluation of the valve hemodynamics and the detection of valve stenosis or regurgitation. Leaflet motion and thrombus may be visualized by TTE in some patients, but transesophageal echocardiography is more sensitive for the detection of valve dysfunction and thrombosis and is sometimes required if TTE isn’t enough.

54
Q

Demand ischemia?

A

Note demand ischemia can frequently cause an elevation in troponin and ECG changes such as ST segment depressions

55
Q

Mechanical valves and aspirin?

A

Aspirin and not P2Y12 inhibitors (e.g., clopidogrel) have been used alongside warfarin in randomized controlled trials for Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval of currently available mechanical valves. A 2013 Cochrane Systematic Review showed that addition of aspirin, compared with VKA anticoagulation alone, reduced the risk of thromboembolic events and total mortality, but at the cost of excess major bleeding. Furthermore, the quality of trials included in this review was low. Therefore, the updated recommendation in 2020 for patients with mechanical prosthetic valves is to individualize the approach to addition of aspirin to VKA anticoagulation. In a patient with a history of GI bleeding and no thromboembolic events who is seeking anticoagulation alternatives, it is reasonable to stop aspirin.

56
Q

Low flow Low gradient AS?

A

Most patients with severe aortic stenosis (AS) present with a high transvalvular gradient and velocity. However, a subset present with severe AS despite a low gradient and velocity due either to concurrent LV systolic dysfunction (LVEF of <50%) or a low transaortic stroke volume with preserved LV systolic function.

Outcomes in severe low-flow, low-gradient AS are improved with aortic valve replacement (AVR) compared with medical therapy particularly when contractile reserve is present. The American Society of Echocardiography/European Association of Echocardiography recommendations for clinical practice defines severe AS on dobutamine stress testing as a maximum velocity of >4.0 m/sec with a valve area of 1.0 cm2 at any point during the test protocol, with a maximum dobutamine dose of 20 mcg/kg per minute. On the basis of outcome data in several prospective nonrandomized studies, AVR is reasonable in these patients (Class IIa). LVEF typically increases by 10 LVEF units and may return to normal if afterload mismatch was the cause of the LV systolic dysfunction. Some patients without contractile reserve may also benefit from AVR, but decisions in these high-risk patients must be individualized because there are no data indicating who will have a better outcome with surgery.

57
Q

Exercise testing in Stage D AS?

A

Exercise stress testing is contraindicated in patients with severe symptomatic AS

58
Q

S2 splitting?

A

The second heart sound (S2) is caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves, which causes vibration of the valve leaflets and the adjacent structures. The aortic valve closes slightly before the pulmonic.

During inspiration, the chest wall expands and causes the intrathoracic pressure to become more negative (think of a vacuum). The increased negative pressure allows the lungs to fill with air and expand. While doing so, it also induces an increase in venous blood return from the body into the right atrium via the superior and inferior venae cavae, and into the right ventricle by increasing the pressure gradient (blood is being pulled by the vacuum from the body and towards the right side of the heart). Simultaneously, there is a reduction in blood volume returning from the lungs into the left atrium (the blood wants to stay in the lungs because of the vacuum surrounding the lungs, and PVR is lower because of lung expansion). Since there is an increase in blood volume in the right ventricle during inspiration, the pulmonary valve (P2 component of S2) stays open longer during ventricular systole due to an increase in ventricular emptying time, whereas the aortic valve (A2 component of S2) closes slightly earlier due to a reduction in left ventricular volume and ventricular emptying time. Thus the P2 component of S2 is delayed relative to that of the A2 component. This delay in P2 versus A2 is heard as a slight broadening or even “splitting” of the second heart sound; though it is usually only heard in the pulmonic area of the chest because the P2 is soft and not heard in other areas

During expiration, the chest wall collapses and decreases the negative intrathoracic pressure (compared to inspiration). Therefore, there is no longer an increase in blood return to the right ventricle versus the left ventricle and the right ventricle volume is no longer increased. This allows the pulmonary valve to close earlier such that it overlaps the closing of the aortic valve, and the split is no longer heard

Note: Splitting during inspiration is normal

59
Q

Fixed S2 split?

A

If splitting does not vary with inspiration, it is termed a “fixed split S2” and is usually due to a septal defect, such as an atrial septal defect (ASD). The ASD creates a left to right shunt that increases the blood flow to the right side of the heart, thereby causing the pulmonary valve to close later than the aortic valve independent of inspiration/expiration.

Fixed splitting: Spitting at both expiratory and inspiratory phases but does NOT lengthen with inspiration

Dx: ASD (due to continuous blood flow from left side to right side leading lenthened cardiac cycle on the right side of the heart), Right heart failure, Pulmonary Hypertension

Note: A bundle branch block either LBBB or RBBB, (although RBBB is known to be associated only with S1 split), will produce continuous splitting but the degree of splitting will still vary with respiration.

60
Q

Paradoxical S2 splitting?

A

Paradoxical splitting: Reverse of normal physiology, splitting of second heart sounds during expiration, singular during inspiration

Dx: Anything that causes delayed conduction down the left bundle (LBBB, pre-excitation of right ventricle, right ventricular pacing, premature RV beats), aortic stenosis

61
Q

Wide splitting of S2?

A

Wide splitting: Detected by presence of splitting during expiration, wider during inspiration

DDx: Anything that causes delayed conduction down the right bundle (RBBB, pre-excitation of left ventricle, pacing of left ventricle, premature LV beats), pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary arterial hypertension

62
Q
A
63
Q
A
64
Q
A
65
Q
A