Valuation Multiples Flashcards

1
Q

Valuation Multiples

A

Questions about valuation multiples may seem easy at first glance, but they can be surprisingly tricky if you don’t understand the fundamental concepts.

For example, do you understand how a valuation multiple is both shorthand for a cash flow-based valuation, and also a way to compare different companies?

Do you understand the trade-offs of different metrics and multiples?

What about the exceptions and special cases, such as differences under U.S. GAAP vs. IFRS?

Test yourself with the full set of questions below:

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2
Q
  1. What IS a valuation multiple?
A

A valuation multiple is shorthand for a company’s value based on its Cash Flow, Cash Flow Growth Rate, and Discount Rate.

You could value a company with this formula: Company Value = Cash Flow / (Discount Rate – Cash Flow Growth Rate), where Cash Flow Growth Rate < Discount Rate.

But instead of providing all that information, valuation multiples let you use a number like “10x” and express it in a condensed way.

You can also think of valuation multiples as “per-square-foot” or “per-square-meter” values when buying a house: they help you compare houses or companies of different sizes and see how expensive or cheap they are, relative to similar houses or companies.

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3
Q
  1. How do you use valuation multiples in real life?
A

Most often, you use them in “Comparable Company Analysis” or “Public Comps” when you find public companies similar to the one you’re analyzing and use their multiples to value your company.

For example, you might screen companies by geography, industry, and financial size so that they are similar to your company.

Then, you look at the growth rates of various metrics and their corresponding multiples to see how your company is currently priced.

For example, if the median EBITDA growth of this set of companies is 10%, and your company is growing at 20%, but your company’s TEV / EBITDA and the median TEV / EBITDA of the set are similar, then perhaps your company is undervalued.

If the companies are truly comparable, then they should have similar Discount Rates and Cash Flow figures. So, the differences in Cash Flow Growth Rates should explain most of the difference in the multiples.

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4
Q
  1. Why are valuation multiples and growth rates often NOT as correlated as you might expect?
A

The first problem is that company valuation is based on cash flow, which is different from metrics like EBIT and EBITDA (which are just approximations of cash flow).

So, even if a company’s EBITDA growth is 10%, its Cash Flow growth might be 5% or 20% or (5%) due to items like Taxes, the Change in Working Capital, and so on.

Also, it’s difficult to find 100% comparable companies in most industries, so there will usually be differences in the Discount Rates because the risk and potential returns will differ.

Finally, “current events” always affect the multiples, even if they don’t change a company’s long-term performance. For example, legal troubles, a newly announced product, or a new executive could all change a company’s short-term market valuation.

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5
Q
  1. You’re valuing a mid-sized manufacturing company. This company’s TEV / EBITDA multiple is 15x, and the median TEV / EBITDA for the comparable companies is 10x. What’s the most likely explanation?
A

The most likely explanation is that the market expects this company’s cash flows to grow more quickly than those of the comparable companies. For example, other companies might be expected to grow at 5%, but this company might be expected to grow at 15%.

The Discount Rate is unlikely to differ by a huge amount because these companies are all about the same size and are in the same industry, which means the risk and potential returns should be similar.

“Current events” could also affect the multiples, but it’s hard to say what they might be without additional information.

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6
Q
  1. Would you rather buy a company trading at a 10x TEV / EBITDA multiple, or one trading at a 5x multiple?
A

It depends on how each company compares to its peers, or comparable companies, in terms of growth rates and multiples.

If the 10x company is growing at the same rate as its peer companies, but the peer companies are trading at multiples in the 13x-16x range, then the 10x company looks like a good deal.

And if the 5x company is growing more slowly than its peer companies, despite trading in the same range (4-6x EBITDA), then the 5x company might be expensive for the growth it offers.

When you buy companies, you always try to find ones that are undervalued – which means similar or lower multiples than peer companies, despite the same or higher growth.

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7
Q
  1. Walk me through how you calculate EBIT and EBITDA for a public company.
A

With EBIT, you start with the company’s Operating Income on its Income Statement and then add back any non-recurring charges that have reduced Operating Income.

With EBITDA, you do the same thing and then add Depreciation & Amortization from the company’s Cash Flow Statement so that you get the all-inclusive number (D&A on the Income Statement is often embedded fully or partially in other line items there).

You do not add back items like the Amortization of Debt Issuance Fees or the Amortization of Debt Discounts because they are typically components of the Net Interest Expense on the IS.

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8
Q
  1. Walk me through how you calculate EBIT and EBITDA for a public company. Is anything different under U.S. GAAP vs. IFRS for these calculations? Do the multiples differ at all?
A

The main difference is that under U.S. GAAP, both EBIT and EBITDA fully deduct the Lease or Rental Expense, but under IFRS, they do not – because the Lease Expense is split into Interest and Depreciation elements.

EBIT under IFRS deducts part of the Lease Expense, while EBITDA adds back or excludes the entire Lease Expense.

You still use Enterprise Value in the numerator of these valuation multiples, but under IFRS, you must add Operating Leases to Enterprise Value, and EBIT is no longer a valid metric (unless you adjust it).

Under U.S. GAAP, no adjustment for Operating Leases is required, and TEV / EBIT and TEV / EBITDA are both valid multiples as-is.

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9
Q
  1. How do you calculate “Free Cash Flow” (just FCF, not Levered or Unlevered FCF), and what does it mean?

Are there any differences under U.S. GAAP vs. IFRS?

A

Free Cash Flow is defined as Cash Flow from Operations – Capital Expenditures, assuming that Cash Flow from Operations deducts the Net Interest Expense, Taxes, and the full Lease Expense.

It tells you how much Debt principal the company could repay, or how much it could spend on activities such as acquisitions, dividends, or stock repurchases.

The main difference under the two accounting systems is that IFRS-based companies often start their Cash Flow from Operations sections with something other than Net Income, which means you may need to adjust CFO by subtracting the Net Interest Expense, the Interest element of the Lease Expense, or other items from elsewhere on the Cash Flow Statement.

Also, under IFRS, you should not add back the entire D&A line item on the CFS – only the D&A that’s unrelated to the leases. That way, you ensure that the full Lease Expense is deducted.

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10
Q
  1. How do you calculate Unlevered FCF and Levered FCF, and how do you use them differently than normal Free Cash Flow?
A

Unlevered Free Cash Flow equals Net Operating Profit After Taxes (NOPAT) + D&A and sometimes other non-cash adjustments +/- Change in Working Capital – CapEx.

Levered Free Cash Flow equals Net Income to Common + D&A and sometimes other non-cash adjustments +/- Change in Working Capital – CapEx – (Mandatory?) Debt Repayments + Debt Issuances (?).

You normally use UFCF in DCF valuations because it lets you evaluate a company while ignoring its capital structure; FCF is more useful for standalone company analysis and determining a company’s Debt repayment capacity.

LFCF is not useful for much of anything because people disagree about the basic definition, but you could use it in a Levered DCF, and it may better represent the Net Change in Cash.

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11
Q
  1. If a company’s cash flow matters most, why do you use metrics like EBIT and EBITDA in valuation multiples rather than FCF or UFCF?
A

Mostly for convenience and comparability. FCF and UFCF measure a company’s cash flow more accurately, but they also take more time to calculate since you need to review the full Cash Flow Statement and possibly adjust some of the items.

Also, the individual items within FCF and UFCF vary quite a bit between different companies, regions, industries, and accounting systems, so you often need to normalize these figures, which requires discretion and explanation.

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12
Q
  1. How do you decide whether to use Equity Value or Enterprise Value when you create valuation multiples?
A

If the financial metric in the denominator of the valuation multiple deducts Net Interest Expense, then it pairs with Equity Value because the Debt Investors can no longer be “paid” after they earn their interest; only Equity Investors can earn something now.

If the metric does not deduct Net Interest Expense, then it pairs with Enterprise Value. This rule applies to both financial metrics (EBIT, EBITDA, etc.) and non-financial ones (Unique Users, Subscribers, etc.).

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13
Q
  1. If a company has both Debt and Preferred Stock, why is it NOT valid to use Net Income rather than Net Income to Common when calculating its P / E multiple?
A

You can use Equity Value or Enterprise Value in multiples, but you shouldn’t create multiples that are based on metrics in between Equity Value and Enterprise Value. If you use Net Income rather than Net Income to Common, you’ll have to use Equity Value + Preferred Stock in the numerator – which is halfway to Enterprise Value, but missing the adjustments for Debt, Cash, etc.

This numerator will confuse anyone looking at your analysis, so you should stick with the standard Equity Value metric and pair it with Net Income to Common.

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14
Q
  1. Should you use Equity Value or Enterprise Value with Free Cash Flow?
A

It depends on the type of Free Cash Flow. If the FCF metric deducts Net Interest Expense, i.e., it is either “Free Cash Flow” or Levered FCF, use Equity Value. If it does not deduct the Net Interest Expense, i.e., it is Unlevered FCF, use Enterprise Value.

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15
Q
  1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of TEV / EBITDA vs. TEV / EBIT vs. P / E?
A

First, note that you never look at just one multiple when valuing companies. You want to evaluate companies across different multiples and methodologies to get the big picture.

But the interviewer will probably be annoying and press you on this point, so you can say that TEV / EBITDA is better in cases where you want to exclude the company’s CapEx and capital structure completely.

TEV / EBIT is better when you want to ignore capital structure but partially factor in CapEx (via the Depreciation, which comes from CapEx in previous years).

So, TEV / EBITDA is more about normalizing companies and more useful in industries where CapEx is not a huge value driver, while TEV / EBIT is better when you want to link CapEx to the company’s value (e.g., for an industrials company).

The P / E multiple is not that useful in most cases because it’s affected by different tax rates, capital structures, non-core business activities, and more; you use it mostly as a “check,” and since it’s a standard multiple everyone knows.

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16
Q
  1. In the TEV / EBITDAR multiple, how do you adjust Enterprise Value?
A

If the denominator of a valuation multiple excludes or adds back an expense on the Income Statement, then the numerator should add the Balance Sheet item corresponding to that expense.

EBITDAR is EBITDA + Rental Expense, so it adds back the Rental Expense.

Therefore, in TEV, you must add the company’s on-Balance Sheet Operating Leases.

Under IFRS, EBITDAR = EBITDA because companies do not record the Rental Expense at all, so (TEV + Operating Leases) / EBITDAR = (TEV + Operating Leases) / EBITDA.

17
Q
  1. If EBITDA decreases, how do Unlevered FCF and Levered FCF change?
A

EBITDA = Revenue – COGS – Operating Expenses Excluding D&A.

If EBITDA decreases, it means that Revenue has dropped, or that COGS or Operating Expenses have increased.

Unlevered FCF and Levered FCF also add and subtract all these items, plus more.

As a result, both Levered FCF and Unlevered FCF will also decrease since the Operating Income that flows into both of them will be lower.

Technically, the FCF figures might stay the same if changes in D&A, the Change in Working Capital, or CapEx offset the drop in Operating Income.

But that’s not the main point of the question; the point is that a decrease in Operating Income will also reduce UFCF and LFCF, assuming everything else stays the same.

18
Q
  1. What are some different ways you can calculate Unlevered FCF?
A

If you assume that metrics like EBIT and EBITDA have been adjusted for non-recurring charges and that Cash Flow from Operations (CFO) deducts Net Interest Expense, Taxes, the full Lease Expense, and other standard items:

  • Method #1: EBIT * (1 – Tax Rate) + D&A and Possibly Other Non-Cash Adjustments +/- Change in Working Capital – CapEx.
  • Method #2: (EBITDA – D&A) * (1 – Tax Rate) + D&A and Possibly Other Non-Cash Adjustments +/- Change in Working Capital – CapEx.
  • Method #3: CFO – (Net Interest Expense and Other Items Between Operating Income and Pre-Tax Income) * (1 – Tax Rate) – CapEx.

In Method #3, you’re reversing the Net Interest Expense, which is why that term has a negative sign in front.

19
Q
  1. When you calculate Unlevered FCF starting with EBIT * (1 – Tax Rate), or NOPAT, you’re not counting the tax shield from the interest expense. Why? Isn’t that incorrect?
A

No, it’s correct. If you’re ignoring the company’s capital structure, you have to ignore EVERYTHING related to its capital structure. You can’t say, “Well, let’s exclude interest… but let’s still keep the tax benefits from that interest.”

The tax savings from the interest expense do not exist if there is no interest expens

20
Q
  1. When you create “forward multiples” based on projections for metrics such as Revenue and EBITDA, how do you adjust Enterprise Value? Do you project it forward as well?
A

No. You never “project” Equity Value or Enterprise Value when calculating multiples for use in Public Comps or Comparable Company Analysis.

Instead, you always use each company’s Current Equity Value or Current Enterprise and divide them by the historical metrics and the projected metrics.

In other words, the numerator stays the same for both historical and projected metrics. This is because Current Eq Val and Current TEV represent past performance as well as the market’s future expectations for the company.

21
Q
  1. Two companies have the same P / E multiples but different TEV / EBITDA multiples.

How can you tell which one has higher Net Debt, assuming that each one has only Equity, Cash, and Debt in its capital structure?

A

You might be tempted to say, “The one with the higher EBITDA multiple,” but that’s wrong because the companies could be different sizes.

For example, if both companies have P / E multiples of 15x, but one has Net Income of $10, and one has Net Income of $100, the Equity Values are $150 and $1,500.

If the TEV / EBITDA multiples are 20x for the first one and 10x for the second one, and EBITDA is $20 for the first one and $200 for the second one, the TEVs are $400 and $2,000. So, the first one has a Net Debt of $250, and the second one has a Net Debt of $500.

But if you change the company sizes so that the first one has Net Income of $150 and EBITDA of $300, and the second one has Net Income of $100 and EBITDA of $200, you’ll get the opposite result: the first one now has higher Net Debt.

If you constrain the companies and say that their Net Income and EBITDA figures are the same, then yes, the company with the higher TEV / EBITDA multiple will have the higher Net Debt.

22
Q
  1. Two companies have the same amount of Debt, but one has Convertible Debt, and the other has traditional Debt.

Both companies have the same Operating Income, Tax Rate, and Equity Value. Which company will have a higher P / E multiple?

A

Since the interest rates on Convertible Debt are lower than the rates on traditional Debt, the company with Convertible Debt will have a lower interest expense and, therefore, a higher Net Income.

Therefore, it will have a lower P / E multiple than the company with traditional Debt because both companies have the same Equity Value.

Advanced Note: Technically, you should record the “Amortization of the Convertible Bond Discount” on the Income Statement, which reflects how the Liability component of a Convertible Bond is worth less than that of an equivalent, traditional Bond because of the lower interest rate. If you do this, then the Net Incomes of both companies will be much closer, so the P / E multiples may be almost the same.

23
Q
  1. A company is currently trading at 10x TEV / EBITDA. It wants to sell an Operating Asset for 2x the Asset’s EBITDA.

Will that transaction increase or decrease the company’s Enterprise Value and its TEV / EBITDA multiple?

A

The sale will reduce the company’s Enterprise Value because the company is trading an Operating Asset for Cash, which is a Non-Operating Asset.

Even though the company’s Enterprise Value decreases, its TEV / EBITDA multiple increases because the Asset’s multiple was lower than the entire company’s multiple.

Pretend that the company’s total EBITDA was $100, and that this Asset contributed $20 of that EBITDA.

Therefore, the company’s Enterprise Value before the sale was $1,000. The company now sells the Asset for $40. After the sale, the company’s Enterprise Value falls by $40, and its EBITDA falls by $20. So, its new TEV / EBITDA is $960 / $80, or 12x.