Valuation

Question 1

What is equity value and how is it calculated?

Answer 1

45

Question 2

Could you explain the concept of present value and how it relates to company valuations?

Answer 2

45

Question 3

How do you calculate the fully diluted number of shares outstanding?

Answer 3

45

Question 4

What is enterprise value and how do you calculate it?

Answer 4

45

Question 5

How do you calculate equity value from enterprise value?

Answer 5

45

Question 6

Which line items are included in the calculation of net debt?

Answer 6

46

Question 7

When calculating enterprise value, why do we add net debt?

Answer 7

46

Question 8

What is the difference between enterprise value and equity value?

Answer 8

46

Question 9

Could a company have a negative net debt balance and have an enterprise value lower than its
equity value?

Answer 9

46

Question 10

Can the enterprise value of a company turn negative?

Answer 10

46

Question 11

If a company raises $250 million in additional debt, how would its enterprise value change?

Answer 11

46

Question 12

Why do we add minority interest to equity value in the calculation of enterprise value?

Answer 12

47

Question 13

How are convertible bonds and preferred equity with a convertible feature accounted for when
calculating enterprise value?

Answer 13

47

Question 14

What are the two main approaches to valuation?

Answer 14

47

Question 15

What are the most common valuation methods used in finance?

Answer 15

47

Question 16

Among the DCF, comparable companies analysis, and transaction comps, which approach yields
the highest valuation?

Answer 16

48

Question 17

Which of the valuation methodologies is the most variable in terms of output?

Answer 17

48

Question 18

Contrast the discounted cash flow (DCF) approach to the trading comps approach.

Answer 18

48

Question 19

How can you determine which valuation method to use?

Answer 19

48

Question 20

Would you agree with the statement that relative valuation relies less on the discretionary
assumptions of individuals?

Answer 20

49

Question 21

What does free cash flow (FCF) represent?

Answer 21

49

Question 22

Why are periodic acquisitions excluded from the calculation of FCF?

Answer 22

49

Question 23

Explain the importance of excluding non-operating income/(expenses) for valuations.

Answer 23

49

Question 24

Define free cash flow yield and compare it to dividend yield and P/E ratios.

Answer 24

50

Question 25

Could you define what the capital structure of a company represents?

Answer 25

50

Question 26

Why would a company issue equity vs. debt (and vice versa)?

Answer 26

50

Question 27

What are share buybacks and under which circumstances would they be most appropriate?

Answer 27

51

Question 28

Why would a company repurchase shares? What would the impact on the share price and financial
statements be?

Answer 28

51

Question 29

Why might a company prefer to repurchase shares over the issuance of a dividend?

Answer 29

51

Question 30

A company with $100 million in net income and a P/E multiple of 15x is considering raising $200
million in debt to pay out a one-time cash dividend. How would you decide if this is a good idea?

Answer 30

52

Question 31

When would it be most appropriate for a company to distribute dividends?

Answer 31

Companies that distribute dividends are usually low-growth with fewer profitable projects in their pipeline.
Therefore, the management opts to pay out dividends to signal the company is confident in its long-term
profitability and appeal to a different shareholder base (more specifically, long-term dividend investors).

Question 32

What is CAGR and how do you calculate it?

Answer 32

The compound annual growth rate (“CAGR”) is the rate of return required for an investment to grow from its
beginning balance to its ending balance. Put another way, CAGR is the annualized average growth rate.

Question 33

What is the difference between CAGR and IRR?

Answer 33

The compound annual growth rate (CAGR) and internal rate of return (IRR) are both used to measure the
return on an investment. However, the calculation of CAGR involves only three inputs: the investment’s
beginning and ending value and the number of years. IRR, or the XIRR in Excel to be more specific, can handle
more complex situations with the timing of the cash inflows and outflows (i.e., the volatility of the multiple
cash flows) accounted for, rather than just smoothing out the investment returns.
CAGR is usually for assessing historical data (e.g., past revenue growth), whereas IRR is used more often for
investment decision-making.

Question 34

How would you evaluate the buy vs. rent decision in NYC?

Answer 34

First, I would have to make assumptions to allow for a proper comparison, such as having enough upfront
capital to make a down payment and the investment period being ten years.
Under the 1st option, I assume I buy and will have to pay the monthly mortgage, real estate tax, and
maintenance fees (which will be offset by some tax deductions on interest and depreciation) during this
investment period. Then, I’ll assume that I could sell the property at a price that reflects the historical
growth rate in real estate in NYC. Based on the initial and subsequent monthly outlays and the final inflow
due to a sale, I can calculate my IRR and compare this IRR to the IRR from renting.
For the 2nd option, I would start by estimating the rental cost of comparable properties, factoring in rent
escalations over ten years. Since there’s no initial down-payment required, I would put that money to work
elsewhere, such as an investment in the stock market, in which I would assume an annual return over the
ten years consistent with the long-term historical return on the stock market (5-7%). I could then compute
an IRR based on the inflows/(outflows) and compare the two IRRs to make an informed decision.
I would keep in mind that this comparison is not precisely “apples to apples.” For example, investing in an
NYC property is riskier than investing in the stock market due to the leverage and lower liquidity. NYC real
estate is liquid, but not as liquid as public stocks. If the two IRRs were identical, I would probably go with
renting as it does not appear that I am being compensated for the added risk.

Question 35

How would you value a painting?

Answer 35

A painting has no intrinsic value, generates no cash flows, and cannot be valued in the traditional sense. The
pricing of the painting is a function of what someone will pay for it in the market, rather than being anchored
by its fundamentals. To determine the approximate price, you would have to analyze comparable transactions
to see the amount others paid to purchase similar paintings in the past.

Question 36

When would it be appropriate to use a sum-of-the-parts approach to valuing a company?

Answer 36

In a sum-of-the-parts (“SOTP”) analysis, each division of a company will have its unique risk/return profile and
need to be broken up to value the entire company more accurately as a whole. Thus, a different discount rate
will value each segment, and there’ll be distinct peer groups for the trading and transaction comps. Upon
completing each division’s valuation, the ending values would be summed up to arrive at the total value.
An example of when SOTP analysis (or break-up analysis) would be used is when the company being valued
has many operating divisions in unrelated industries, each with differing risk-profiles (e.g., conglomerate).

Question 37

How does valuing a private company differ from valuing a public company?

Answer 37

The main difference between valuing a private and public company is the availability of data. Private
companies are not required to make their financial statements public. If you’re provided private company
financials, the process is similar to public companies, except that private company financial disclosures are
often less complete, standardized, and reliable. In addition, private companies are less liquid and should thus
be valued lower to reflect an illiquidity discount (usually ranges between ~10-30%).

Question 38

What is an illiquidity discount?

Answer 38

The illiquidity discount used when valuing private companies is related to being unable to exit an investment
quickly. Most investors will pay a premium for an otherwise similar asset if there’s the optionality to sell their
investment in the market at their discretion. Therefore, a discount should be applied when performing trading
comps since shares in a public company include a premium for being sold in the public markets with ease
(called the “liquidity premium”).

Question 39

Walk me through a DCF.

Answer 39

1. Forecast Unlevered Free Cash Flows (“FCFF” or “UFCF”): First, unlevered free
   cash flows, which represent cash flows to the firm before the impact of leverage,
   should be forecast explicitly for a 5 to 10 year period.
2. Calculate Terminal Value (“TV”): Next, the value of all unlevered FCFs beyond
   the initial forecast period needs to be calculated – this is called the terminal value.
   The two most common approaches for estimating this value are the growth in perpetuity approach and
   the exit multiple approach.
3. Discount Stage 1 & 2 CFs to Present Value (“PV”): Since we are valuing the company at the current
   date, both the initial forecast period and terminal value need to be discounted to the present using the
   weighted average cost of capital (“WACC”).
4. Move from Enterprise Value  Equity Value: To get to equity value from enterprise value, we would
   need to subtract net debt and other non-equity claims. For the net debt calculation, we would add the
   value of non-operating assets such as cash or investments and subtract debt. Then, we would account for
   any other non-equity claims such as minority interest.
5. Price Per Share Calculation: Then, to arrive at the DCF-derived value per share, divide the equity value
   by diluted shares outstanding as of the valuation date. For public companies, the equity value per share
   that our DCF just calculated can be compared to the current share price.
6. Sensitivity Analysis: Given the DCF’s sensitivity to the assumptions used, the last step is to create
   sensitivity tables to see how the assumptions used will impact the implied price per share.

Question 40

Conceptually, what does the discount rate represent?

Answer 40

The discount rate represents the expected return on an investment based on its risk profile (meaning, the
discount rate is a function of the riskiness of the cash flows). Put another way, the discount rate is the minimum
return threshold of an investment based on comparable investments with similar risks. A higher discount rate
makes a company’s cash flows less valuable, as it implies the investment carries a greater amount of risk, and
therefore should be expected to yield a higher return (and vice versa).

Question 41

What is the difference between unlevered FCF (FCFF) and levered FCF (FCFE)?

Answer 41

Unlevered FCF: FCFF represents cash flows a company generates from its core
operations after accounting for all operating expenses and investments. To
calculate FCFF, you start with EBIT, which is an unlevered measure of profit
because it excludes interest and any other payments to lenders. You’ll then tax
effect EBIT, add back non-cash items, make working capital adjustments, and
subtract capital expenditures to arrive at FCFF. Tax-affected EBIT is often referred
to as Net Operating Profit After Taxes (“NOPAT”) or Earnings Before Interest After
Taxes (“EBIAT”). (see 54 for formula)
Levered FCF: FCFE represents cash flows that remain after payments to lenders since interest expense
and debt paydown are deducted. These are the residual cash flows that belong to equity owners. Instead of
tax-affected EBIT, you start with net income, add back non-cash items, adjust for changes in working
capital, subtract capex, and add cash inflows/(outflows) from new borrowings, net of debt paydowns. (see 55 for formula)

Question 42

What is the difference between the unlevered DCF and the levered DCF?

Answer 42

Unlevered DCF: The unlevered DCF discounts the unlevered FCFs to arrive
directly at enterprise value. When you have a present value, add any non-operating
assets such as cash and subtract any financing-related liabilities such as debt to get
to the equity value. The appropriate discount rate for the unlevered DCF is the
weighted average cost of capital (WACC) because the rate should reflect the
riskiness to both debt and equity capital providers since UFCFs are cash flows that
belong to debt and equity providers.
Levered DCF: The levered DCF approach, on the other hand, arrives at equity
value directly. First, the levered FCFs are forecasted and discounted, which gets you to equity value directly.
The appropriate discount rate on LFCFs is the cost of equity since these cash flows belong solely to equity
owners and should thus reflect the risk of equity capital. If you wanted to get to enterprise value, you
would add back net debt.
The levered and unlevered DCF method should theoretically lead to the same enterprise value and equity value,
but in practice, it’s very difficult to get them to be precisely equal.

Question 43

What is the appropriate cost of capital when doing an unlevered DCF?

Answer 43

When doing an unlevered DCF, the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is the correct cost of capital to use
because it reflects the cost of capital to all providers of capital.
However, the cost of equity would be the right cost of capital to use for levered DCFs.

Question 44

What is the formula to calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?

Answer 44

see 55

Question 45

If a company carries no debt, what is its WACC?

Answer 45

If a company has no debt on its capital structure, its WACC will be equivalent to its cost of equity. Most mature
companies will take on a moderate amount of leverage once their operating performance stabilizes because
they can raise cheaper financing from lenders.

Question 46

How is the cost of equity calculated?

Answer 46

The cost of equity is most commonly estimated using the capital asset pricing model (“CAPM”), which links the
expected return on a security to its sensitivity to the overall market (most often S&P 500 is used as the proxy). (see 55)

Question 47

How do you determine the risk-free rate?

Answer 47

The risk-free rate (“Rf”) should theoretically reflect the yield to maturity of default-free
government bonds of equivalent maturity to the duration of each cash flow being
discounted.
However, the lack of liquidity in the longest maturity bonds has made the current yield
on 10-year US treasury notes the preferred proxy for the risk-free rate for US-based
companies.

Question 48

What effect does a low-interest-rate environment have on DCF-derived valuations?

Answer 48

If the market’s prevailing interest rates are at low levels, valuations based on DCFs will become higher since the
discount rate will be lower from the decreased risk-free rate, all else being equal.
There has been much debate around normalized risk-free rates. Aswath Damodaran has argued against the
usage of normalized rates and has written that “you should be using today’s risk-free rates and risk premiums,
rather than normalized values when valuing companies or making investment assessments.”

Question 49

Define the equity risk premium used in the CAPM formula.

Answer 49

The equity risk premium (“ERP”) measures the incremental risk (or excess return) of investing in equities over
risk-free securities. Historically, the ERP has ranged between 4% to 6% based on historical spreads between
the S&P 500 returns over the yields on risk-free bonds.

Question 50

Explain the concept of beta (β).

Answer 50

Beta measures the systematic (i.e., non-diversifiable) risk of a security compared to the
broader market. Said another way, beta equals the covariance between expected
returns on the asset and the market, divided by the variance of expected returns on the
market.
A company with a beta of 1.0 would expect to see returns consistent with the overall
stock market returns. If the market has gone up 10%, the company should see a return
of 10%. A company with a beta of 2.0 would expect a return of 20% if the market had
gone up 10%.
Beta/Market Sensitivity Relationship
β = 0  No Market Sensitivity
β < 1  Low Market Sensitivity
β > 1  High Market Sensitivity
β < 0  Negative Market Sensitivity

Question 51

What is the difference between systematic risk and unsystematic risk?

Answer 51

Systematic Risk: Otherwise known as undiversifiable risk (or market risk), this is the risk inherent within
the entire equity market rather than specific to a particular company or industry. This type of risk is
unavoidable and cannot be mitigated through diversification.
Unsystematic Risk: In contrast, unsystematic risk is the company-specific (or industry) risk that can be
reduced through portfolio diversification. The effects of diversification will be more profound when the
portfolio contains investments in different asset classes, industries, and geographies.

Question 52

Does a higher beta translate into a higher or lower valuation?

Answer 52

A company with a high beta suggests more risk and will exhibit higher volatility than the market (i.e., higher
sensitivity to market fluctuations). Thus, a higher discount rate will be used by investors to value the
company’s cash flows, which directly leads to a lower valuation, all else being equal.

Question 53

What type of sectors would have higher or lower betas?

Answer 53

A useful question to ask yourself when assessing beta is: “Would consumers require (or demand) this product
or service during a recession?”
High Beta: A beta of >1 would mean the industry is highly cyclical and be more volatile than the broad
market. For example, the automobile, semiconductors, and construction industry have higher betas since
most consumers only purchase cars and new homes during positive economic growth.
Low Beta: A beta of < 1 suggests the security is less volatile than the broad market. Consumer product
stores that sell necessary, everyday goods such as toiletries and personal hygiene products would have a
low beta. Other sectors with low betas are hospitals/healthcare facilities and utilities, which provide
essential goods and services required by consumers regardless of the prevailing economic climate.

Question 54

What are the benefits of the industry beta approach?

Answer 54

The industry β approach looks at the β of a comparable peer group to the company
being valued and then applies this peer-group derived beta to the target. The benefits
are that company-specific noise is eliminated, which refers to distorting events that
could cause the correlation shown in its beta to be less accurate.
So the peer-group derived beta is “normalized” since it takes the average of the
unlevered betas of comparable businesses and then relevers it at the target capital
structure of the company being valued. The implied assumption is that the company’s
business risk will converge with its peer group over the long run.
This approach also enables one to arrive at an industry-derived beta for private companies that lack readily
observable betas. To perform a DCF analysis for a private company, the industry beta approach would be
required as privately-held companies don’t have readily observable betas.

Question 55

What are the flaws of regression betas?

Answer 55

1. Backward Looking: The standard procedure to estimate the beta is through a regression model that
   compares the historical market index returns and company returns, in which the slope of the regression
   corresponds to the beta of the stock. However, this past performance (and correlation) may not be an
   accurate indicator of the stock’s future performance.
2. Large Standard Error: The regression model is sensitive to the assumptions used, such as the index
   chosen to be the proxy for the market return. There are also company-specific events that can cause
   deviations that are not indicative of a company’s true correlation with the market.
3. Constant Capital Structure: The regression beta reflects the averaged past D/E ratios instead of the
   current leverage in the company’s capital structure. The amount of leverage used by a company often
   directly relates to its maturity, so this can be argued to be a flawed assumption for forecasting purposes,
   especially when considering beta’s relationship with debt.

Question 56

What is the impact of leverage on the beta of a company?

Answer 56

If a company’s capital structure has no leverage, its levered beta (or equity beta)
would be equal to its unlevered beta (or asset beta), reflecting only business-specific
risk. The removal of the risk from the debt component of levered beta results in
unlevered beta. Therefore, the levered beta can either be equal to or greater than
unlevered beta, but never lower. This is because levered beta is the combined risk
encompassing both business-specific and financial risk.
The amount of leverage held by a company directly impacts beta as the financial risk increases from the greater
risk of default and bankruptcy (i.e., less margin for error and more volatility if an economic downturn occurs).

Question 57

What is the typical relationship between beta and the amount of leverage used?

Answer 57

Generally, mature companies with lower betas will have a higher percentage of debt in their capital structure
because they can easily get cheap financing based on their long-lasting track record of cash flows and
profitability, as well as being non-cyclical and carrying less risk than the broad market.
In comparison, a company with a high beta will be reluctant to use debt or if they do, the terms of the debt
would be less favorable. From a financier’s perspective: “Would the lender be comfortable loaning money to a
company that has a higher beta and volatility throughout different economic cycles?”

Question 58

What are the formulas used to unlever and relever beta?

Answer 58

see 58

Question 59

Is it possible for an asset to have a negative beta?

Answer 59

Yes, the most commonly cited example is gold, which has an inverse relationship with the market. When the
stock market goes up, the price of gold will often decrease.
However, when the stock market undergoes a correction or enters recession territory, investors flee towards
gold as a safe-haven, and the increase in demand drives up gold prices.

Question 60

How do you estimate the cost of debt?

Answer 60

The cost of debt is readily observable in the market as the yield on debt with
equivalent risk. If the company being valued doesn’t have publicly traded debt, the cost of debt can be estimated using a so-
called “synthetic rating” and default spread based upon its credit rating and interest coverage ratio.

Question 61

Which is typically higher, the cost of debt or the cost of equity?

Answer 61

The cost of equity is higher than the cost of debt because the cost associated with borrowing debt (interest
expense) is tax-deductible, creating a “tax shield.”
The cost of equity is typically higher because, unlike lenders, equity investors are not guaranteed fixed
payments and are last in line at liquidation (i.e., bottom of the capital structure).

Question 62

Since the cost of equity is higher than the cost of debt, why not finance using only debt?

Answer 62

The required return on the debt will increase with the debt level because a more highly levered business has a
higher default risk. As a result, the “optimal” capital structure for most companies includes a mixture of debt
and equity.
As the proportion of debt in the capital structure increases, WACC gradually decreases
due to the tax-deductibility of interest expense (i.e., the “tax shield” benefits). WACC
continues to decrease until the optimal capital structure is reached.
But once this threshold is surpassed, the cost of potential financial distress offsets the
tax advantages of debt, and the WACC will reverse course and begin an upward
trajectory as the risk to all debt and equity stakeholders increases.
Besides the risk of a company becoming overburdened with leverage, debt also comes
with more constraints (i.e., covenants) that restrict activity and prevent them from exceeding certain leverage
ratios or maintaining a coverage ratio above a certain threshold.

Question 63

What is the difference between WACC and IRR?

Answer 63

Internal Rate of Return: The IRR is the rate of return on a project’s expenditures. Given a beginning value
and ending value, the IRR is the implied interest rate at which the initial capital investment would have to
grow to reach the ending value. Alternatively, it’s defined as the discount rate on a stream of cash flows
leading to a net present value (NPV) of 0.
Weighted Average Cost of Capital: The WACC (or cost of capital) is the average minimum required
internal rate of return for both debt and equity providers of capital. Thus, an IRR that exceeds the WACC is
an often-used criterion for deciding whether a project should be pursued.

Question 64

Which would have more of an impact on a DCF, the discount rate or sales growth rate?

Answer 64

The discount rate and the sales growth rate will be sensitized in a proper DCF model, but the discount rate’s
impact would far exceed that of operational assumptions such as the sales growth rate.

Question 65

How is the terminal value calculated?

Answer 65

see 59

Question 66

Why is it necessary to discount the terminal value back to the present?

Answer 66

Under both approaches, the terminal value represents the present value of the company’s cash flows in the
final year of the 1st stage of the explicit forecast period right before entering the perpetuity stage. The TV
calculated is the present value of a growing perpetuity at the very end of the stage 1 projection of cash flows.
Thus, this future value must be discounted back to its present value (PV) since the DCF is based on what a
company is worth today, the current date of the valuation.

Question 67

For the perpetuity approach, how do you determine the long-term growth rate?

Answer 67

The long-term growth rate is the rate that the company will grow into perpetuity. That being said, it should
range somewhere between 1% to 3% (sometimes up to 5%). Often, GDP or the risk-free rate are proxies for g.
This growth rate must reflect the steady-state period when growth has slowed down to a sustainable rate.
A hypothetical question to ask would be: “Can this company grow at X% for the next hundred years?” If not,
then the perpetuity growth rate should be adjusted downward to be more realistic.

Question 68

How can the terminal value be sanity-checked if the exit multiple approach was used?

Answer 68

See 60

Question 69

What is the argument against using the exit multiple approach in a DCF?

Answer 69

In theory, a DCF is an intrinsic, cash-flow based valuation method independent of the market. By using the exit
multiple approach, relative valuation is being brought into the valuation. However, the exit multiple approach is
widely used in practice due to being easier to discuss and defend in terms of justifying the assumptions used.

Question 70

What is the purpose of using a mid-year convention in a DCF model?

Answer 70

By using the mid-year convention, we are treating the projected cash flows as if they’re generated at the
midpoint of the given period. Without this mid-year adjustment, the DCF implicitly assumes that all cash flows
are being received at the end of the year. This would be inaccurate since cash flows are generated steadily
throughout the year, depending on the industry.
The compromise is to use a mid-year convention that assumes the CFs are received in the middle of the year.
Since the projected cash flows are received earlier, the implied valuation of the company would increase
because of the earlier received cash flows. For example, if the cash flow you’re discounting is Year 5 and the
discount factor is 5, the mid-year convention would use a discount factor of 4.5 since we are assuming half a
year has passed before the cash flow is generated.

Question 71

Could you give me an example of when the mid-year convention might be inappropriate?

Answer 71

While the mid-year convention in a DCF is standard practice, it may be inaccurate for highly seasonal
companies. Many retail companies experience strong seasonal patterns in demand, and sales are
disproportionally received in the 3rd and 4th quarters.
This is particularly the case for retailers that have a niche in winter clothing. For example, the mid-year
convention may be an inappropriate adjustment for Canada Goose, a Canadian company that focuses primarily
on winter clothing. The unadjusted, period-end assumption may be more appropriate in this scenario.

Question 72

How would raising additional debt impact a DCF analysis?

Answer 72

The enterprise value based on an unlevered DCF should theoretically remain relatively unchanged since the
DCF is capital structure neutral. But if the debt raised changed the capital structure weights substantially, the
implied valuation could change. As the percentage of debt in the capital structure increases, the cost of debt
increases from the higher default risk (which lowers the implied valuation).

Question 73

Imagine that two companies have the same total leverage ratio with identical free cash flows and
profit margins. Do both companies have the same amount of default risk?

Answer 73

If one company has significantly more cash on its balance sheet, it’ll most likely be better positioned from a risk
perspective. When assessing leverage risk, a company’s excess cash should be considered since this cash could
help paydown debt. Hence, many consider cash to be “negative debt” (i.e., the implied assumption of net debt).
Therefore, one of the main leverage ratios looked at in addition to Total Debt/EBITDA is Net Debt/EBITDA. All
else being equal, the company with a higher excess cash balance and lower Net Debt/EBITDA would be at
lower risk of bankruptcy (and lower cost of debt).

Question 74

When would a DCF be an inappropriate valuation method?

Answer 74

Practically, when you don’t have access to financial statements, a credible DCF analysis
valuation is difficult, and a comps analysis might be more realistic. So if you have a data
point such as revenue or EBIT, a comps analysis is easier to implement.
In addition, DCFs may be unfeasible when the company is not expected to generate
positive cash flows for the foreseeable future. Here, much of the company ’s value is
weighted towards the distant future, and the DCF becomes less credible.

Question 75

Why is a DCF not used to value early stage startups?

Answer 75

Although the DCF approach is based upon a company’s future cash flows, this method can still be used on
early-stage startups that are cash flow negative. The caveat being, there must be a path towards turning cash
flow positive in the distant future.
DCFs become less reliable for early-stage startups that may not reach a sustainable, stable growth rate for 15+
years as it becomes very difficult to accurately predict the FCFs beyond this period. A DCF valuation is most
credible when looking at mature companies with an established market position, as opposed to pre-revenue
companies that have not yet determined their business model, go-to-market strategy, or target end-user.

Question 76

If 80% of a DCF valuation comes from the terminal value, what should be done?

Answer 76

The explicit forecast period may not be long enough (should range from 5 to 10 years). In the final year in the
explicit stage, the company should have reached normalized, stable growth.
Alternatively, the terminal value assumptions may be too aggressive and not reflect stable growth.

Question 77

How would you handle stock options when calculating a company’s share count?

Answer 77

The standard convention for stock options is to include in the dilutive share count any vested (exercisable)
options whose strike price is below the current share price (“in-the-money”). In addition, any option proceeds
the company received from the exercising of those options are assumed to be used by the company to
repurchase shares at the current share price (the treasury stock method).
But certain finance professionals use all outstanding in-the-money options (as opposed to just the vested in-
the-money options) to perform the analysis. The logic being that any options that are still unvested will vest
soon, and since they’re in-the-money, it’s more conservative to include them in the share count.

Question 78

How would you handle restricted stock in the share count?

Answer 78

Some finance professionals completely ignore restricted stock from the diluted share count because they’re
unvested. However, increasingly, unvested restricted stock is included in the diluted share count under the logic
that eventually they’ll vest, and it’s thus more conservative to count them.

Question 79

How would you handle convertible preferred stock in the share count?

Answer 79

Convertible preferred stock is assumed to be converted into common stock to calculate diluted shares if the
liquidation value (i.e., the preferred stock’s conversion price) is lower than the current share price.
For example, imagine a company whose current share price is $60 issued raised $500 million several years ago
by issuing 10 million preferred shares, each granting the holder the right to collect either $50 per preferred
share (its liquidation value) or to convert it to one share of common stock. Since the current share price is
greater than the liquidation value, we would assume that the preferred stock is converted for calculating the
diluted share count.
When conversion into common stock is assumed to calculate the share count in a valuation, the preferred stock
should be eliminated when calculating net debt to be consistent and avoid double counting.

Question 80

How would you handle convertible bonds in the share count?

Answer 80

Convertible bonds are assumed to be converted into common stock if the conversion price of the bond is lower
than the current share price.
For example, imagine a company whose current share price is $60 issued raised $500 million several years ago
by issuing a bond convertible into 10 million shares of common stock. Since the current share price is greater
than the conversion price, we assume the bond is converted to calculate diluted shares.
If conversion into common stock is assumed to calculate the share count, the convertible bonds should be
eliminated from the balance sheet when calculating net debt to be consistent (and avoid double-counting).

Question 81

How should operating leases be treated in a DCF valuation?

Answer 81

They should be capitalized because leases usually burden the tenant with obligations and penalties that are far
more similar to debt obligations than to a simple expense (i.e., tenants should present the lease obligation as a
liability on their balance sheet as they do for long-term debt). In fact, the option to account for leases as an
operating lease was eliminated starting in 2019 for that reason.
Therefore, when operating leases are significant for a business (retailers and capital-intensive businesses), the
rent expense should be ignored from the free cash flow build-up, and instead, the present value of the lease
obligation should be reflected as part of net debt.

Question 82

For forecasting purposes, do you use the effective or marginal tax rate?

Answer 82

The choice between whether to use the effective or marginal tax rate boils down to one specific assumption
found in valuation methods such as the DCF: the tax rate assumption used will be the tax rate paid into perpetuity. In most cases, the effective tax rate will be lower than the marginal tax rate, mainly because many
companies will defer paying the government.
Hence, line items such as deferred tax assets (DTAs) and deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) are created. If you use
the effective tax rate, you implicitly assume this deferral of taxes to be a recurring line item forever. But this
would be inaccurate since DTAs and DTLs unwind, and the balance eventually becomes zero.
The recommended approach is to look at the historical periods (i.e., past 3-5 years) and base your near-term
tax rate assumptions on the effective tax rate. But by the time the 2nd stage of the DCF is approaching, the tax
rate should be “normalized” and be within close range of the marginal tax rate.

Question 83

How does a lower tax rate impact the valuation from a DCF?

Answer 83

1. Greater Free Cash Flows: A lower tax rate would result in more net income as fewer taxes have to be
   paid to the government, meaning more earnings retention and higher cash flow.
2. Higher Cost of Debt: A lower tax rate results in a higher after-tax cost of debt and a higher re-levered
   beta, all else being equal. If the tax rate is reduced, that would mean the after-tax cost of debt would rise,
   and the benefit from the tax-deductibility of interest (“tax shield”) would be reduced.
3. Higher Beta: A lower tax rate would result in a higher levered beta, which would cause the cost of equity
   and WACC to increase.
   While the last two implications suggest a lower valuation, the net impact on the company’s valuation would be
   specific to the company’s fundamentals, and one would have to flow through all the changes in a DCF model to
   see if the increased FCF offsets the increased WACC.

Question 84

How does a dividend discount model (DDM) differ from a discounted cash flow model (DCF)?

Answer 84

The dividend discount model (“DDM”) stipulates that the value of a company is a function of the present value
of all its future dividends paid out, whereas the discounted cash flow states a company is worth the sum of the
present value of all the future free cash flows it generates.
The DDM will forecast a company’s future dividends based on a dividend per share (“DPS”) and growth rate
assumptions – which are then discounted using the cost of equity. For the terminal value calculation, an equity
value based multiple will be used, most commonly P/E. Therefore, the DDM directly calculates the equity value
and then equity value per share (similar to levered DCFs, but different from unlevered DCFs).

Question 85

What are the major drawbacks of the dividend discount model (DDM)?

Answer 85

Forward-looking valuation methods each have their shortcomings, and the DDM is no exception, given its
sensitivity to assumptions such as the dividend payout ratio, dividend growth rate, and required rate of return.
But some additional drawbacks that help explain why DDM is used less often include:
The DDM cannot be used on high-growth companies as the denominator would turn negative since the
growth rate would exceed the expected return rate.
The DDM is more suitable for large, mature companies with a consistent track record of paying out
dividends, but even then, it can be very challenging to forecast out the growth rate of dividends paid.
Most companies don’t pay out any dividends, especially as share buybacks have become common.
The DDM neglects buybacks, an increasingly important source of returns for shareholders.
If the dividend payout amounts reflected true financial performance, then the output would be similar to
the traditional DCF. However, poorly run companies can still issue large dividends, distorting valuations.

Question 86

What is the purpose of using multiples in valuation?

Answer 86

A valuation multiple is a financial ratio that reflects how valuable a particular company
is in relation to a specific metric. The numerator will be a measure of value such as
equity value or enterprise value, whereas the denominator will be a financial or
operating metric.
Since absolute values cannot be compared, multiples are used to standardize a
company’s value on a per-unit basis. This enables comparisons in value amongst
similar companies, which is the premise of relative valuation. For any valuation
multiple to be meaningful, a contextual understanding of the target company, such as
its fundamental drivers and general industry knowledge, is required.

Question 87

How do you determine what the appropriate numerator is for a multiple?

Answer 87

For multiples, the represented stakeholders in the numerator and denominator must match.
If the numerator is enterprise value, metrics such as EBIT, EBITDA, unlevered free cash flow (FCFF), and
revenue multiples can be used since these are all unlevered (i.e., pre-debt) measures of profitability.
In contrast, if the numerator is equity value, metrics such as net income, levered free cash flow (FCFE), and
earning per share (EPS) would be used because these are all levered (i.e., post-debt) measures.

Question 88

Walk me through the process of “spreading comps.”

Answer 88

Before you can answer the question, you must ask for clarification on whether the interviewer is asking about
trading or transaction comps. The processes for both, however, have many overlapping aspects.
1. Determine Comparable Peer Group: The first step to perform comps is to select the peer group. For
trading comps, the peer group will be composed of publicly traded comparable companies that are
competitors in the same industry or operate within a nearby industry. For transaction comps, the peer
group would include companies recently involved in M&A deals within the same or a similar industry.
2. Collect Relevant Information: The next step involves finding publicly available information that may be
helpful to understand the trends and factors affecting how companies in a particular industry are being
(or were) valued. Most of the insights gathered in this step will be more on the qualitative side and
related to industry research, understanding ongoing developments, and company-specific details.
3. Input Financials: With the industry research completed, you’ll then pull the financial data of each
comparable company and then “scrub” the financials for non-recurring items, accounting differences,
financial leverage differences, and business life cycles (cyclicality, seasonality) to ensure consistency and
allow for a fair comparison among the companies. If relevant, you’ll also calendarize each peer group
company’s financials to standardize the metrics to ensure comparability.
4. Multiples Calculation: Then, the peer group’s valuation multiples will be calculated and benchmarked in
the output sheet. At a minimum, the multiples are shown on a last twelve months (LTM) and the next
fiscal year (NTM) basis, and as a general convention, the minimum, maximum, 25th percentile, 75th
percentile, mean and median will be listed. Using the research collected in previous steps, you’ll then
attempt to understand the factors causing the differences and remove any outliers if deemed appropriate.
5. Apply Multiple to Target: In the last step, the target company being valued will have the median (or
mean) multiple applied to the corresponding metric to arrive at its approximate comps-derived value.
Understanding the fundamental drivers used to value companies within a particular industry makes
comps-derived valuations defensible – otherwise, justifying whether the target should be valued on the
higher or lower end of the valuation range will be difficult.

Question 89

When putting together a peer group for comps, what would some key considerations be?

Answer 89

See 66

Question 90

Should the target company being valued be included in its peer group?

Answer 90

Many professionals exclude the target company being valued from the peer group because the target’s
inclusion would skew the multiple towards the target’s current valuation. However, if the intuition behind a
comps analysis is that the market may misprice individual stocks but is correct on the whole, then logic dictates
that the target should be included in its market-based valuation.

Question 91

What are the primary advantages of the trading comps approach?

Answer 91

Public Filings: Trading comps involves public companies, making data collection far more convenient
since all their reports and filings are easily accessible online.
Less Data Required: Implementation is a key advantage of trading comps, as proper DCFs cannot be built
without detailed financials and supplementary data. But to get a decent trading comps-based valuation,
only a few data points (e.g., EBITDA, revenue, net income) are required, making it easier to value
companies when access to data sets is limited.
Current Valuations: Trading comps reflect up-to-date, current valuations based on investor sentiment as
of the present day, since it’s based on the latest prices paid in the public markets.

Question 92

What are the main disadvantages of performing trading comps?

Answer 92

Putting together a peer group of “pure-play” companies by itself can be a
challenging task, especially if the target is differentiated and has few (or no) direct
competitors.
Even with a well-thought-out, similar peer group, explaining the differences in
valuation can be difficult as the comparison is always “apples to oranges.
”
Understanding valuation gaps between a company and its comparables involves
judgment, which can be very challenging – plus, the market is often emotional and
fluctuates irrationally, bringing in more external factors to consider.

Low trade volume and less followed equities may not reflect their true fundamental value, making them
less useful for trading comps.

Question 93

To perform transaction comps, how would you compile the data?

Answer 93

To perform transaction comps, how would you compile the data?
When collecting the data to perform transaction comps, you would use deal announcement press releases,
proxy filings, and the merger agreement to learn about the deal terms. You would also use the target company’s
filings (annual and quarterly reports) for historical financial data, research reports, and financial data vendors
such as Bloomberg, Capital IQ, or FactSet for historical share price data and estimated earnings forecasts.

Question 94

What do transaction comps tell you that trading comps cannot?

Answer 94

Transaction comps can provide insights into control premiums that buyers and sellers
should expect when negotiating a transaction.
In addition, transaction comps can validate potential buyers’ existence in the private
markets and if a particular investment strategy has been successfully implemented
before.
Let’s say a certain company is valued at a specific price based on a DCF analysis and
confirmed to be within range by trading comps. However, if there are no buyers in the market, the seller is
unlikely to exit at its expected valuation.

Question 95

In M&A, why is a control premium paid?

Answer 95

A control premium refers to the amount an acquirer paid over the market trading value of the shares being
acquired (usually shown as a percentage). As a practical matter, a control premium is necessary to incentivize
existing shareholders to sell their shares. It’s improbable that an acquirer could get a controlling interest in a
target company without first offering a reasonable purpose premium over the current price.
From the perspective of the shareholders of the acquisition target: “What would compel existing shareholders
to give up their ownership if doing so is not profitable?”

Question 96

Besides incentivizing existing shareholders to sell, what other factors lead to higher control
premiums being paid?

Answer 96

Competitive Deals: In M&A, nearly all acquirers pay a control premium due to the competitive elements of
sale processes. As a general rule, the control premium paid will be higher the more buyers are involved, as
competition directly drives up the price.
Synergies: If there are potential synergies that can be realized by the acquirer and the management team
has high conviction in its occurrence, then the acquirer might be justified in paying a higher premium.
Asset Scarcity: Many acquirers (strategics in the majority of cases) might pay a higher premium if the
specific asset is a centerpiece to their future plans and there are no other acquisition targets in the market
that meet their criteria. Oftentimes, this acquisition could lead to a meaningful competitive advantage for
the acquirer over the rest of the market, making the completion of this acquisition a necessity.
Undervalued Target: The target company might be perceived to be significantly undervalued from the
buyer’s viewpoint. From their perspective, the purchase price could be a moderate premium when
compared to their own fair value assessment of the target, whereas to others the buyer paid an
unreasonably high premium.
Mismanagement: A mismanaged company coincides with the previous point, as this typically leads to
underperformance. The acquirer will most likely be under the impression that the management should be
replaced, and through operational improvements, a significant amount of value that is currently not being
fully taken advantage of could be derived. Thus, a target acquired for this reason will be immediately
restructured, beginning with the management team being replaced post-closing.

Question 97

Why is transaction comps analysis often more challenging than trading comps?

Answer 97

Performing comparable acquisition analysis can be challenging when there has been
limited (or no) M&A activity within the relevant space, or the comparable transactions
were completed a long time ago in a completely different economic environment. Data
from those prices paid might not reflect current market trends and investor sentiment.
The transaction dates place a significant constraint on the pool of comparable
transactions. Generally, only relatively recent transactions (within the last five years)
offer insight into industry valuations.
The transaction context must also be looked at, such as the form of consideration, the
type of buyer (financial or strategic), and the deal’s circumstances, which can
significantly influence the final purchase price. However, this information about the deal can be challenging to
compile, especially when they involve private companies, as they’re not required to disclose all this deal-
related information. Most times, even the purchase price paid for a company may not even be announced –
thus, the data found is “spotty” and less straight-forward than trading comps.

Question 98

When putting together a peer group for transaction comps, what questions would you ask?

Answer 98

What was the transaction rationale from both the buyer and seller’s perspective?
Was the acquirer a strategic or a financial buyer?
How competitive was the sale process?
Was the transaction an auction process or negotiated sale?
What were the economic conditions at the time of the deal?
Was the transaction hostile or friendly?
What was the purchase consideration?
If the industry is cyclical (or seasonal), did the transaction close at a high or low point in the cycle?

Question 99

When valuing a company using multiples, what are the trade-offs of using LTM vs. forward
multiples?

Answer 99

Using historical (LTM) profits have the advantage of being actual results. This is important because EBITDA,
EBIT , and EPS forecasts are subjective and especially problematic for smaller public firms, whose guidance is
less reliable and harder to obtain.
That said, LTM suffers from the problem that historical results are often distorted by non-recurring expenses
and income, misrepresenting the company’s recurring operating performance. When using LTM results, non-
recurring items must be excluded to get a “clean” multiple. In addition, companies are often acquired based on
their future potential, making forward multiples more relevant.
Therefore, both LTM and forward multiples are often presented side-by-side, rather than picking one.

Question 100

Why might two companies with identical growth and cost of capital trade at different P/E
multiples?

Answer 100

Growth and cost of capital are not the only drivers of value. Another critical component is the return on
invested capital (ROIC). Besides having different ROICs, the two companies could very well just be in different
industries or geographies.
Other reasons may include relative mispricing or inconsistent EPS calculations, often caused by non-recurring
items or different accounting policies.

Question 101

Should two identical companies with different leverage ratios trade at different EV/EBITDA
multiples?

Answer 101

multiples?
You would expect the EV/EBITDA multiples to be similar because enterprise value and EBITDA measure a
company’s value and profits independent of its capital structure. Technically, they won’t be exactly equal
because enterprise value depends on the cost of capital, so there’ll be some variation.

Question 102

Should two identical companies with different leverage ratios trade at different P/E multiples?

Answer 102

P/E multiples can vary significantly due to leverage differences for otherwise identical companies. All else
being equal, as a company borrows debt, the EPS (denominator) will decline due to higher interest expense.
The impact on the share price, on the other hand, is hard to predict and depends on how the debt is used:
If the debt proceeds go unused and generate no return, the share price will decline to reflect the
incremental cost of debt with no commensurate growth or investment. In this scenario, the share price and
P/E ratio can be expected to decline.
But if that debt were used to invest and grow the business, the P/E ratio should increase.
Simply put, debt adds more risk to equity investors (given their junior position in the capital structure) with
little potential return, and investors will value the company at a lower P/E.

Question 103

Which multiples are the most popular in valuation?

Answer 103

Enterprise Value/EBITDA multiples are the most common, followed by EV/EBIT and P/E. There are several
others that are more industry and company-specific. For example, P/B ratios are used to value financial
institutions, EV/Revenue multiples are used to value unprofitable companies, and (EV – Capex)/EBITDA
multiples can be used for capital-intensive industries such as manufacturing or cable companies.

Question 104

What are some common enterprise and equity value multiples?

Answer 104

Enterprise Value Multiples: EV/Revenue, EV/EBIT, EV/EBITDA
Equity Value Multiples: Price/Earnings (P/E), Price/Book (P/B), Price/Levered Cash Flows

Question 105

Why would it be incorrect to use enterprise value and net income in a multiple?

Answer 105

There would be a mismatch between the represented investor groups in the numerator and denominator.
Enterprise value represents the value of the operations to all stakeholders in a company, meaning the cash
flows belonging to both lenders and equity providers of capital. Net income, however, represents the residual
value that flows just to equity shareholders.

Question 106

Why might one company trade at a higher multiple than another?

Answer 106

One company may be valued at a higher multiple than another because of superior fundamentals such as better
growth prospects, higher return on invested capital, lower cost of capital (WACC), and more robust cash flow
generation. Investors are forward-looking. Therefore, companies with better growth trajectories and signs of
being well managed with efficient capital allocation are rewarded with higher valuations.

Question 107

Intuitively, what does the P/E ratio mean?

Answer 107

see 69

Question 108

A company is currently trading at 12.5x EBITDA, is it overvalued?

Answer 108

The answer depends on the company’s industry being valued and how its valuation fares compared to the rest
of its peer group. For instance, a software company trading at 12.5x would be near the sector median, whereas
a double-digit multiple in an industry such as Oil & Gas is rare.
We recommend researching various industries and identifying those that consistently receive higher valuations
on average (e.g., software, healthcare) and which ones don’t – and then figure out the reason. The differences
can often be related to cyclical trends that are impacting an industry. For example, sub-industries related to
cloud computing, cybersecurity, remote healthcare, gaming, and video streaming services have seen significant
valuation increases since the beginning of the pandemic.

Question 109

What does a high P/E ratio relative to a peer group imply?

Answer 109

If a company has a high P/E ratio in relation to its peer group, this might mean the market is overvaluing the
company. Alternatively, it could mean the company has less earnings than its peer group (or is a younger
company). For this reason, the use of P/E multiples is most useful when the company is mature and its peer
group has a similar capital structure.
A high P/E ratio is almost always a positive sign that the market expects the company’s earnings to grow in the
future and is optimistic about its growth prospects, as well as its current capex (which is causing the lower
earnings) will pay off over time and eventually lead to greater profits.

Question 110

A company has an EPS of $2.00 that has declined to $1.00 four years later. Assume its share price
has remained the same at $10. Is its current P/E ratio higher or lower than its four year-back P/E
ratio, and how would you interpret this situation?

Answer 110

The company’s P/E ratio would be higher. The company’s four year-back P/E ratio was 5.0x and its current P/E
ratio is 10.0x. Therefore, its P/E doubled after its EPS declined by $1.00.
One potential interpretation is that the company is now overvalued and shouldn’t be trading at a 10.0x multiple
given the deteriorated EPS. Realistically, the market would view a decrease in EPS negatively, resulting in a
lower share price and valuation.
But since the share price didn’t change, there are a few possible explanations:
1. The company could have issued more shares to raise capital that had a dilutive impact on EPS.
2. The company might have made a dilutive acquisition with stock as the main purchase consideration.
In both cases, the cause of the lower EPS is the increase in the denominator. The share price remaining
constant suggests the market reaction to how the company plans to use the newly raised capital or the M&A
deal was positive, otherwise, the share price would’ve dropped. Similar to how EPS can be artificially boosted
from share buybacks, it can decrease without there being an actual drop in performance. The issuance of
additional shares typically results in the per-share value decreasing from the dilution, but the $10 share price
is the post-dilution share price (meaning, the price was upheld despite the dilution).

Question 111

When would the use of the PEG ratio be appropriate?

Answer 111

See pg 70

Question 112

When would you value a business using the P/B ratio?

Answer 112

The P/B ratio can be used when the company’s book value captures a substantial part of its real value. An
example would be commercial banks, as most of their assets and liabilities are frequently re-valued and similar
to their actual market values.

Question 113

When should you value a company using a revenue multiple vs. EBITDA?

Answer 113

Companies with negative profits and EBITDA will have meaningless EBITDA multiples. As a result, multiples
based on revenue are the only available option to gain some level of insight.

Question 114

How would you value a pre-revenue early stage internet company?

Answer 114

An internet company with no revenue or negative profitability could be valued using user engagement metrics
such as the subscriber count, monthly active users, daily active users, and website hits. For example, pre-
revenue internet startups are often valued using multiples such as EV/DAU or EV/MAU.

Question 115

Why is calendarization a required step when performing comps analysis?

Answer 115

Calendarization involves aligning the fiscal year ending dates of a group of comparable companies to allow for
a more accurate comparison. The general convention is to adjust the financials so that all the fiscal years end in
December. The reason calendarization is necessary is that cyclicality and seasonality can skew results and
create discrepancies when making comparisons.

Question 116

If the market matters most when valuing public companies, do we even need a comps analysis?
Why not just use the market cap directly to value the company?

Answer 116

If the market were perfectly efficient, it would price individual equities correctly, rendering a comps analysis
pointless. However, the reasoning for still using a comps analysis for public company valuations is that the
market may be efficient on average, but it can be off when pricing individual companies. Most investors will
agree that the market is relatively efficient. However, investors can be overly emotional and overreact, creating
investment opportunities.

Question 117

When applying a peer group derived EV/EBITDA multiple onto your target company, what is an
argument for using the group’s median multiple instead of the mean?

Answer 117

The simple reason is: Medians remove the distortive impact of outliers on the peer group multiple. When using
larger peer groups, the median is preferable over the mean because it limits distortions from outliers, which
increases as more companies are included. The mean might be preferable for smaller peer groups with fewer
than five comparable companies and no outliers.